Immuno/Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

instinctive, non-specific and present from birth

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2
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

Specific, ‘acquired’ immunity which requires lymphocytes and antibodies

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3
Q

What are the polymorphonuclear luekocytes?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophil

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4
Q

What are the mononuclear leukocytes?

A

Monocyte, T-cells and B-cells

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5
Q

What are complements?

A

Group of serum proteins secreted by the liver that need to be activated to be functional.

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6
Q

What are the modes of action of complements?

A
  1. Direct lysis
  2. Attract more leukocytes to site of infection
  3. Coat-invading organisms
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7
Q

What are antibodies/

A

They bind specifically to antigens

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8
Q

What are immunoglobulins?

A

They are soluble, secreted and bound to B-cells as part of B-cell antigen receptor

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9
Q

What is IgG? (2)

A
  • Has 2 light chains and 1 heavy chain with a hinge region

- Most predominant Ig in human serum

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10
Q

What is IgM? (2)

A
  • Mainly found in blood as it is too big to cross endothelium
  • Mainly primary immune response
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11
Q

What is IgA?

A
  • Accounts for 15% of Ig in serum
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12
Q

What is IgE? (2)

A
  • Basophils and mast cells express a receptor with a high affinity for IgE
  • Associated with hypersensitivity allergic response
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13
Q

What is a cytokine?

A

A protein secreted by immune and non-immune cells

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14
Q

What is an interferon (IFN)?

A

Induce a state of anti-viral resistance in uninfected cells to reduce spread of infection

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15
Q

What are interleukins (IL)?

A

Produced by many cells and can be pro-inflam (IL1) or anti-inflam (IL-10). Cause cells to divide, differentiate and secrete factors

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16
Q

What are colony stimulating factors?

A

They direct the division and differentiation on bone marrow stem cells

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17
Q

What are TNFs?

A

They mediate inflammation and cytotoxic reactions

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18
Q

What does innate immunity include? (3)

A
  • Physical and chemical barriers
  • Neutrophils + macrophages
  • Blood proteins
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19
Q

What is the definition of inflammation?

A

A series of reactions that brings cells and molecules of the immune system to sites of damage

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20
Q

What are the two types of inflammation?

A
  • Acute - complete elimination of a pathogen, followed by resolution of damage
  • Chronic - persistent and unresolved
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21
Q

What do T-lymphocytes respond to?

A

Intracellular presented antigens

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22
Q

What does a T-cell receptor recognise?

A

foreign antigens in association with MHC

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23
Q

How does a B-cell get activated?

A
  • Binding to an antigen
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24
Q

What happens to B-cells that are activated? (2)

A
  • They go to the lymph nodes where they proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
  • The plasma cells secrete antibodies of the same specificity
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25
Q

What do antibodies do? (3)

A
  • Neutrolise toxin by binding to it
  • Increase phagocytosis
  • Activate complement
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26
Q

What is the basic antibody structure? (2)

A
  • Variable region which binds antigen

- Constant regions which is the same for some antibodies

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27
Q

Where are T-cells matured?

A

Thymus

28
Q

What is cell-mediated immunity?

A

Involves T-cells which bind to receptors to produce cytokines that specifically kill infected host cells

29
Q

What are T helper cells? (3)

A
  • They help B-cells make antibodies
  • Activate macrophages and natural killer cells
  • Help development of cytotoxic T-cells
30
Q

What are major histocompatibility proteins? (3)

A
  • encoded by MHC chromosome 6
  • also known as HLA molecules
  • polymorphic
    initiate T-cell response
31
Q

What is the role of IL-1?

A

Induces inflammation, fever and activation of leukocytes

32
Q

What is the role of IL-2?

A

Stimulates T, B and NK cell growth

33
Q

What are TH1 cells?

A

They produce IL-2 and TNFbeta

  • They activate macrophages to cause inflammation
  • Promote production of cytotoxic T-cells
34
Q

What is the issue with immunity?

A
  • It can take a long time but infections arrive quickly and unpredictably
  • infection is often associated with injury
35
Q

What are cell-associated PRRs? (2)

A
  • Receptors that are present on the cell membrane or cytosol of the cells
  • Recognise a broad range of molecular patterns
36
Q

What is the main group of PRRs?

A

TLRs

37
Q

Which group of TLRs can have bacterial DNA as a ligand?

A

TLR9

38
Q

What are NLRs?

A

They are a family of 22 human proteins that detect intracellular microbial pathogens

39
Q

What is the role of NOD2?

A

It activates inflammatory signalling pathways. It is the non-functioning mutation in Crohn’s Disease

40
Q

What are RLRs?

A

They couple to cause activation of interferon production to give an anti-viral response.
Rig-1 and MDA5 are two examples

41
Q

What can activate TLRs?

A

The appearance of host molecules in unfamiliar contexts

42
Q

How are PRRs relevant to disease?

A

They recognise host molecules in autoimmune disease. If there is a failure to recognise pathogens, then there is an increased inflammatory response

43
Q

What is passive immunisation?

A
  • The transfer of preformed antibodies

- Can be natural or artificial

44
Q

What is artificial passive immunisation?

A

The treatment with pooled normal human IgG or the immunoserum against pathogens

45
Q

What is the problem with passive immunisation?

A

It does not activate immunological memory so no long term protection

46
Q

Which diseases are examples of where passive immunisation is used?

A
  • Tetanus
  • Diptheria
  • Hepatitis
  • Measles
  • Rabies
47
Q

What is active immunisation?

A

Where the immune system is manipulated to generate a protective response against pathogens

48
Q

What is the process of active immunisation?

A
  • Need to elicit “danger” signals which will activate the immune system
  • Engage TLR receptors
  • Activate specialist antigen presenting cells
  • Engage adaptive immune system (generate memory T and B cells)
49
Q

What are the different responses of active immunisation?

A
  • Initial response - this relies on innate immunity
  • Second exposure to antigen
  • Secondary response 0 does not rely on innate immune system
50
Q

Influenza and immunological memory

A
  • It has a rapid onset and the infection can be established before immunological memory is activated
  • Need to maintain high levels of neutralising antibody by repeated immunisation
51
Q

Whole organism (activated) vaccine

A
  • Advantages include the attenuated pathogen sets up a transient infection and gives prolonged contact with the immune system
  • Disadvantages include complications and immunocompromised patients may become infected
52
Q

Whole inactivated pathogen vaccine

A
  • Advantages include no risk of infection

Disadvantages include that generally just activates humoral responses and repeated booster vaccinations are required

53
Q

What would be the ideal scenario for a vaccine?

A
  • Should induce a suitable immune response
  • Generate T and B cell memory
  • Be stable and easy to transport
  • Should not require repeated boosting
54
Q

Describe erythrocytes.

A
  • Biconcave and anucleated

- produced in bone marrow

55
Q

Describe neutrophils.

A
  • Multi-lobular nucleus

- Phagocytic and play a role in inflammation and infection

56
Q

Describe eosinophils.

A
  • Bi/tri lobular nuclei

- Numbers generally raised in parasitic infections

57
Q

Describe basophils.

A
  • Associated with hypersensitivity reactions

- Similar role to mast cells (secrete histamine)

58
Q

Why is the liver important in clotting?

A
  • The liver synthesizes many coagulation factors

- Liver produces bile salts needed for Vit K absorption

59
Q

What are the bacteria shapes?

A
  • Cocci
  • Bacilli
  • Spirochaete (less common)
60
Q

What colours are gram +ve and gram -ve?

A
  • Gram positive = purple

- Gram negative = pink

61
Q

What are 3 main gram positive bacilli?

A
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Acne
  • C. difficile
62
Q

What are 3 main gram negative cocci?

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Gonhorrhoea
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
63
Q

How would you treat candida albicans?

A
  • Anti-fungal e.g. topical nystatin

- Oral fluconazole

64
Q

How would you treat hookworm?

A
  • Mebendazole
65
Q

How would you treat giardia?

A
  • Metronidazole