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NEO MLT Immunology > Immuno Final > Flashcards

Immuno Final Flashcards

1
Q

Lupis Erythematosus is best diagnosed by

A

antinuclear antibodies

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2
Q

Sera tested for IFA-ANA is best stored at what temperature?

A

5°C ± 2°C

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3
Q

Rim patern in the IFA-ANA test is most commonly associated with what

A

antibodies directed at native DNA

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4
Q

If a technologist observes a homogenous staining of the nucleus of interphase cells during an IFA-ANA test, combined with chromosome staining of the mitotic cells, this result is?

A

Expected of anti-DNA antibodies

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5
Q

An anti-dsDNA titer 1:80 and a higher titer of antibodies to Sm are best correlated with

A

an anti-nuclear antibody test with a titer of 1:320 for a peripheral pattern

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6
Q

High titers of DNA antibody are common test realists in what patients?

A

systemic lupus erythematosus

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7
Q

If a patient has these test results: ANA- +1:320, ASO- Todd Units, Complement- Decreased, RA- +,
What does the patient have?

A

lupus erythematosus

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8
Q

Nephelometry is

A

the most sensitive and appropriate method for the derection of rheumatoid factor

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9
Q

Gamma globulin-coated particles can react with

A

the rheumatoid factor

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10
Q

Consistent and repetitive negative IFA-ANA is a sign of what

A

Strong evidence against untreated SLE

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11
Q

Hyperglobulinemia is associated with

A

positive rheumatoid factor

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12
Q

A positive test for the detection of IgM class antibodies may be false when

A

rheumatoid factor is present in a patient’s serum

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13
Q

Autoantibodies with the specificity for the Fc portion of the immunoglobulin (IgG) molecule is the definition of?

A

Rheumatoid factor

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14
Q

Thyroid disease most often results in high titers of what?

A

antimicrosomal antibodies

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15
Q

High titers of anti-smooth muscle are seen in

A

chronic active hepatitis

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16
Q

Nucleolar immunofluorescent patterns are seen in individuals that have

A

anti-RNA antibodies

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17
Q

Speckled immunofluorescent patterns are often associated with what?

A

Anti-extractable nuclear antigens

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18
Q

When given an anti-nuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescent test, a patient exhibits a positive speckled pattern. What other test is necessary to perform?

A

Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies

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19
Q

Goat anti-human immunoglobulin is an antibody that…

A

has an indirect immunofluoresecent method of antibody detection in patient serum.

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20
Q

Antigen-antibody reactions are the same as what?

A

Chemical reactions

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21
Q

Fluorescein isothiocyanate is a common label for

A

direct fluorescent antibody technique (DFA)

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22
Q

Describe the Indirect fluorescence procedure

A

a substrate is first exposed into a patient’s serum and then after washing an anti-human immunoglobulin labeled with fluorochrome is added

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23
Q

Strength of a reacting antbody is the definition for?

A

Avidity

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24
Q

A rise in titer of the patient’s serum is most important in

A

the interpretation of agglutination tests for febrile diseases.

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25
Q

To increase sensitivity of the antigen, what is added in flocculation tests for Syphilis?

A

cholesterol.

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26
Q

Avidity is defined as

A

the strength of a visible reaction

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27
Q

When precipitin lines cross and form a double spur, what type of antigen-antibody precipitation reaction is identified?

A

reaction of non-identity

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28
Q

The test that has the highest sensitivity for antigen detection is?

A

ELISA

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29
Q

When excess antigen is present in precipitation gel reactions, what is expected to happen to the gel?

A

it will dissolve the precipitate after formation

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30
Q

The condition of antigen excess is formed under what complexes?

A

soluble immune complexes

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31
Q

Precipitation is described as

A

the visible serological reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody.

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32
Q

The enzyme control tube in an ASO hemolytic assay exhibits no cell lysis. What is the most likely
explanation for this?

A

oxidation of the enzyme

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33
Q

In a positive anti-streptolysin “0” enzyme inhibition test, the patient’s:

A

anti-streptolysin “0” inhibits the reagent streptolysin “O”’s, resulting in no hemolysis

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34
Q

Blood is drawn from a patient for serological tests for a viral disease at the time of onset and again
4 weeks later. The results of the tests are considered diagnostic if the:

A

second antibody titer is at least 4x the first

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35
Q

Which of the following is most useful in establishing a diagnosis in the convalescence phase of
a viral infection?

A

serological techniques

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36
Q

The best method to detect infections due to rubella, Epstein-Barr and human immunodeficiency
viruses is:

A

antibody detection by EIA

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37
Q

Immunoassays are based on the principle of:

A

antibody recognition of homologous antigen

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38
Q

A DPT vaccination is an example of:

A

active humoral-mediated immunity

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39
Q

Cells known to be actively phagocytic include:

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes

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40
Q

The presence of HbsAg, anti-HBc and often HbeAg is characteristic of:

A

early acute phase HBV hepatitis

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41
Q

When testing a patient for HIV antibody, which of the following is used to confirm a positive
screening test?

A

Western blot

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42
Q

What kind of antigen-antibody reaction would be expected if soluble antigen is added to
homologous antibody?

A

precipitation

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43
Q

The Rapid Plasma Reagin test:

A

is useful in screening for syphilis

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44
Q

Flocculation tests for syphilis detect the presence of:

A

reagin antibody

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45
Q

In the cold agglutinin test, the tubes containing the serum and erythrocytes are allowed to
stand overnight in the refrigerator, and the results are read the next morning. If a disk of the
erythrocytes floats up from the bottom of the tube with only the flick of finger, this is read as a:

A

4+ reaction

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46
Q

Flocculation tests for syphilis use antigen composed of:

A

cardiolipin and lecithin

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47
Q

A VDRL serum sample is heat inactivated, then placed in a refrigerator for overnight storage. 
Before being tested, the serum must be:

A

reheated to 56°C for 10 minutes

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48
Q

Substancesthat are antigenic only when coupled to a protein carrier are:

A

haptens


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49
Q

.A serological test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen is: 


A

RPR


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50
Q

The serological test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is:
a nontreponemal antibody

A

CSF-VDRL

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51
Q

What assay would confirm the immune status to hepatitis B virus?

A

anti-HBs


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52
Q

The following procedure has been routinely used for detection of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) because of its high level of sensitivity: 


A

ELISA

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53
Q

In an indirect ELISA method designed to detect antibody to the rubella virus in patient serum, the conjugate used should be:

A

anti-human IgG conjugated to an enzyme

54
Q

Which of the following is the best indicator of an acute infection with the hepatitis A virus?

A

the presence of IgM antibodies to hepatitis A virus

55
Q

Biological false-positive VDRL reactions are frequently encountered in patients with:

A

lupus erythematosus

56
Q

Which serological marker of HBV (hepatitis B virus) infection indicates recovery immunity?

A

anti-HBs

57
Q

For diagnosis of late latent or tertiary syphilis, the most appropriate assay is:

A

FTA-ABS


58
Q

A 26-year-old nurse developed fatigue, a low-grade fever, polyarthritis and urticaria. Two months earlier she had cared for a patient with hepatitis. Which of the following findings are likely to be observed in this nurse?

A

elevated AST and ALT levels

59
Q

The classic antibody response pattern following infection with hepatitis A is:

A

increase in IgM antibody; decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody

60
Q

The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technique for the detection of HBsAg:

A

uses anti-HBs linked to horseradish peroxidase

61
Q

The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is:

A

HBeAg

62
Q

Chronic carriers ofHBV:

A

continue to carryHBV

63
Q

The initial immune response following fetal infection with rubeEa is the production of which class(es) of antibodies?

A

IgM


64
Q

A maternal serum rubella titer that is equal to or greater than 1:8 indicates:

A

probable immunity to rubella

65
Q

Which of the following is a treponemal test?

A

FTA-ABS

66
Q

The air temperature throughout the serology laboratory is 20°C. How will this affect VDRL and RPR test results?

A

weaken reactions so that false negatives occur

67
Q

Which laboratory technique is most frequently used to diagnose and follow the course of therapy of a patient with secondary syphilis?

A

flocculation


68
Q

The most commonly used serological indicator of recent streptococcal infection is the antibody to:

A

streptolysin O

69
Q

Antibodies composed of IgG immunoglobulin:

A

can cross the placenta from mother to fetus

70
Q

Measurement of serum levels of which of the following immunoglobulins can serve as a screening 
test for multiple allergies? 
a IgA b IgE c IgG d IgM
Cells that are precursors of plasma cells and also produce immunoglobulins are: 


A

B lymphocytes

71
Q

IgM antibodies are frequently hemolytic because of: 


A

their efficient ability to fix complement

72
Q

To which of the following classes do the antibodies that cause hemolytic disease of the newborn belong?

A

IgG

73
Q

It is important to note that when an infant is born, levels of specific antibody of the following class are used to indicate neonatal infection: 


A

IgG

74
Q

Antibodies are produced by:

A

B cells

75
Q

Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the:

A

constant region of heavy chain

76
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is associated with a secretory component (transport piece)?

A

IgA

77
Q

The immunoglobulin class typically found to be present in saliva, tears and other secretions is

A

IgA

78
Q

Treatment of IgG with papain results in how many fragments from each immunoglobulin molecule?

A

3

79
Q

The immunoglobulin class associated with immediate hypersensitivity or atopic reactions is:

A

IgE

80
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient at agglutination? 


A

IgM

81
Q

The key structural difference that distinguishes immunoglobulin subclasses is the:

A

the sequence of the constant regions

82
Q

The IgM molecule is a:

A

pentamer

83
Q

Which of the following immunoglobuHns is present in the highest concentration in normal human serum?

A

IgG

84
Q

Which of the following statements about immunoglobuHns is true?

A

IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules

85
Q

Antibody idiotype is dictated by the:

A

variable regions of heavy and Hght chains

86
Q

Antibody allotype is determined by the:

A

constant regions of heavy and light chains

87
Q

Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta?

A

IgGl

88
Q

The J-chain is associated with which of the following immunoglobulins?

A

IgA

89
Q

Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by which of the following:

A

opsonin


90
Q

Which of the following is most likely to activate the alternative pathway of complement activation?

A

haptens


91
Q

Which of the following is the larger residual split portion of C3?

A

C3b

92
Q

Which of the following activities is associated with C3b? 


A

opsonization

93
Q

After a penicillin injection, a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting and hives. This reaction is primarily mediated by:

A

IgE

94
Q

Which of the following is the “recognition unit” in the classical complement pathway?

A

Clq

95
Q

In immunofixation electrophoresis:

A

the antigen is electrophoresed and then monospecific antisera is reacted with it

96
Q

Which of the following is the “membrane attack complex” of complement activation?

A

C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

97
Q

Which of the following releases histamine and other mediators from basophils?

A

C3a


98
Q

A single, reliable screening test for detecting neonatal infection in the absence of clinical signs is:

A

quantitative serum IgM determination

99
Q

Bence Jones proteins are:

A

Fab fragments of a monoclonal protein

100
Q

Humoral antibodies are produced by which cells?

A

Blymphocytes

101
Q

Initiation of the activation mechanism of the alternative complement pathway differs from that of the classical pathway in that:

A

antigen-antibody complexes containing IgA or IgE may initiate activation

102
Q

Which of the foEowing is cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway?

A

C4


103
Q

The component associated only with the alternative pathway of complement activation is:

A

properdin factor B

104
Q

Potent chemotactic activity is associated with which of the following components of the complement system: 


A

C5a

105
Q

Hereditary angioedema is characterized by:

A

decreased activity of Cl esterase inhibitor

106
Q

Which of the following has been associated with patients who have homozygous C3 deficiency?

A

a lifelong history of life-threatening infections

107
Q

Hereditary deficiency of early complement components (Cl, C4 and C2) is associated with:

A

lupus erythematosus like syndrome

108
Q

Hereditary deficiency of late complement components (C5, C6, C7 or C8) can be associated with which of the following conditions?

A

a systemic gonococcal infection if exposed

109
Q

Which immunologic mechanism is usually involved in bronchial asthma?

A

immune complex


110
Q

Antihistamines like Benadryl®:

A

block HI histamine receptors

111
Q

A child has severe hay fever. A total IgE measurement was performed by the Ouchterlony immunodiffusion method. No lines of precipitation appeared on the immunodiffusion plate. The most likely explanation is:

A

IgEis in too low a concentration to be detected by this method

112
Q

Which test is used to evaluate the cellular immune system in a patient?

A

skin test for commonly encountered antigens

113
Q

T cells are incapable of:

A

secretion of immunoglobulins

114
Q

Tlymphocytes are incapable of functioning as:

A

phagocyti cells

115
Q

Nonspecific killing of tumor cells is carried out by:

A

natural killer cells

116
Q

Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measured by:

A

immunoassays


117
Q

A patient with a B-cell deficiency will most likely exhibit:

A

increased bacterial infections

118
Q

A patient with a T-cell deficiency will most likely exhibit:

A

increased parasitic infections

119
Q

Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?

A

neutrophil

120
Q

Which of the following mediators is released during T-cell activation? 


A

cytokines

121
Q

Which of the following terms describes a graft between genetically unidentical individuals belonging to the same species? 


A

allograft

122
Q

Tlymphocytes that possess the CDS surface marker mediate which of the following T-cell functions?

A

cytotoxic


123
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity may be induced by:

A

contact sensitivity to inorganic chemicals

124
Q

The most rapid immediate hypersensitivity reaction is associated with: 


A

anaphylaxis

125
Q

An immunofluorescence test using reagent antibody directed against the CDS surface marker would identify which of the following cell types in a sample of human peripheral blood?

A

all mature T lymphocytes

126
Q

In flow cytometry, labeled cells:

A

scatter the light and emitfluorescence

127
Q

A marked decrease in the CD4 lymphocytes and decrease in the CD4/CD8 ratio:

A

is associated with a viral induced immunodeficiency

128
Q

What is the immunologic method utilized in the flow cytometer?

A

immunofluorescence

129
Q 
Given the following data:
WBC: 5.0x103/L 
lymphs: 15%

CD4: 8%
Calculate the absolute CD4:
A

60

130
Q 
Given this hematologic data:
WBC: 		5.0x103/L!L 
lymphs: 	15%

CD4: 		8%
Which of the following is the correct interpretation?
A

consistent with a viral infection such as HIV

131
Q

A patient’s abnormal lymphocytes are positive for CD2antigen, lack C3receptors, and are negative for surface immunoglobulin. This can be classified as a disorder of:

A

T cells

NEO MLT Immunology (5 decks)

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