Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MS3 - Microbiology > Immune suppression infections > Flashcards

Immune suppression infections Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Hospital acquired infection def?

A

Infections that are neither present nor incubating when a patient enters hospital, but develop during hospital admission or are incubating when a patient leaves hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Transmission of hospital acquired infection?

A

I. Hands and contaminated equipment

II. Faecal/oral spread

III. Airborne/Droplet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hospital acquired hands and contaminated equipment pathogens ?

A

MRSA

Group A Streptococcus (GAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hospital acquired Faecal/oral spread and contaminated environment

A 
Viral Gastroenteritis (VG) 
C. difficile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hospital acquired Airborne/Droplet pathogens?

A

Viral gastroenteritis
Varicella zoster and
GAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common sites for Hospital acquired infections?

A

Urinary tract 23% (catheters)
Lower respiratory 23 (ventilators, post op NG feeding)
Blood stream 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Trachoma pathogen?

A

Chlamydia serovars A-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Trachoma complication?

A

preventable blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Trachoma transmission

A

hand to eye

flies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Trachoma mx?

A
  • Systemic Erythromycin or Doxycycline
  • Trials of Azithromycin
  • Eyelid surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Timing for post HIV exposure prophylaxis?

A

ASAP after exposure, preferably within 24 hours, but can be considered up to 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prophylaxis of HIV meds?

A

28 days Truvada and raltegravir

Hep B vaccine if clinically indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ix for post exposure to HIV?

A

STI testing, repeat at 2 weeks

HIV testing at 8-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hep B prophylaxis post exposure?

A

I. Vaccine

II. HBIG (hep B immunoglobulin) if high risk or vaccine non-responder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Timing of Hep B prophylaxis

A

48 hours – up to 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hep C prophylaxis?

A

No effective post exposure prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Polysaccharide vaccine made off?

A

are made of extracted and purified forms of the bacterial outer polysaccharide coat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Polysaccharide vaccine limitations?

A
  • They do not stimulate the immune system as broadly

- Protection is not long-lasting and response in infants and young children is poor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Conjugate vaccine made off?

A

Attachment of a carrier protein to a polysaccharide antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Advantage of conjugate vaccine?

A

Conjugate vaccines generate a better immune response and are effective even in young children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) vaccination program?

A
  • children <2 yo

- 13 capsular types of pneumococcal bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pneumococcal polysaccharide (PPV) vaccination program?

A
  • All adults who are over 65 years of age.

- protection against 23 types of pneumococcal bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HIV transmission

A

sexual contact, needlestick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

biggest reduction in risk of transmission

A

Biggest reduction due to circumsision (if sex not safe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clinical stages of HIV

A

Stage I: Acute seroconversion

Stage II: Asymptomatic and PGL (progressive glandular lymphadenopathy)

Stage III: Symptomatic infection (ARC although should be Stage IVC2)

Stage IV: AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Monitoring for HIV

A

T cells:

  • > 500 normal
  • 200 to 500 asymptomatic HIV, but may start highly active retroviral therapy
  • <200 AIDS
  • <50 High risk of death in next 12 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which T cells does HIV affect?

A

CD4

28
Q

Complications of HIV

A

opportunistic infection

29
Q

Innate immunity

A

NO MEMORY

  • mucosal barriers
  • bone marrow derived phagocytes
  • alternative complement pathway
  • acute phase response
  • cytokines / chemokines
  • interferons
30
Q

Adaptive immunity

A

SPECIFICITY + MEMORY

  • Lymphocyte mediated - T + B cell
  • Specific receptors for Ag
  • Delay in primary response
  • Memory gives more effective subsequent response
31
Q

Th1 cells products?

A
  • produce IFNγ, IL-2, IL-12
32
Q

Th1 cells role

A
  • Involved in cell mediated immunity

- macrophage activation

33
Q

Th2 cells products

A
  • produce IL-4, IL-13
34
Q

Th2 cells role

A
  • Involved in humoral immunity (Ab production)
35
Q

AIDS criteria

A

The infections that occur with any T Cell deficiency

36
Q

Fungal infection within AIDS criteria?

A

Oesophageal candidiasis

37
Q

Protozoal infection within AIDS

A

Toxoplasmosis
Cryptosporidiosis, chronic
Pneumocystis cariini pneumonia

38
Q

Bacterial infection within AIDS criteria?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, any site
Atypical mycobacteria
Salmonella
Recurrent bacterial pneumonia

39
Q

Viral infection within AIDS criteria?

A

CMV retinitis

Other site CMV disease

40
Q

Malignancy within AIDS criteria

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Lymphoma’s (NHL)

41
Q

Overview of AIDS criteria?

A

Infection
Malignancy
Other sx

42
Q

Other sx of AIDS?

A

HIV dementia

HIV wasting syndrome

43
Q

HIV wasting syndrome

A
  • 10% WT LOSS

- and has at least 30 days of either diarrhea or weakness and fever

44
Q

Hairy leukoplakia

A

White plaques on lateral aspect of tongue
EBV driven
AIDS defining disease

45
Q

Antiviral therapies

A
  1. Antiviral Nucleosides
    - Act as competitive inhibitors and DNA chain terminators
  2. inhibition of viral DNA polymerase
    - eg Aciclovir:
  3. Neuraminidase Inhibitors
46
Q

How is Aciclovir selective

A

activated only by the virus

47
Q

Mech of action of Aciclovir

A

Competitive inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase,

Leading to viral DNA chain termination

48
Q

Aciclovir used against

A

Effective against HSV types 1 & 2, and VZV infections

49
Q

Dose and duration of Aciclovir

A

requires to be given 5x daily for 5-7 days.

Treatment needs to start within 24-72 hours

50
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors examples

A
  • eg Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and Zanamivir (Relenza)
51
Q

Relenza (Zanamivir) use

A
  • Treatment and prevention of influenza A (inc avian) and B
52
Q

Relenza (Zanamivir) delivery

A

Delivery as an aerosol of powder from blister pack inhaled

53
Q

Tamiflu (Oseltamivir) method of delivery

A

Oral formulation

54
Q

Tamiflu (Oseltamivir) used for

A

for the treatment of influenza A and B (and prevention- o.d. regimen)

55
Q

Tamiflu (Oseltamivir) dose and duration

A

(75 mg capsule) b.d for 5 days and oral suspension

56
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors mech of action

A
  • Removes sialic acid from cell surface and new viruses, preventing virus slip through mucous reaching the respiratory cell epithelium
57
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors when to be taken

A
  • Needs to be taken within 48 hours of first symptoms for maximum benefit but should be given later if severely unwell/ high risk group
58
Q

Neutropenic sepsis ix?

A
  • neutrophil count ≤0.5 ×109/l plus
  • either temperature >38°C
  • or other signs/symptoms consistent with sepsis
59
Q

Intravascular catheter pathogens?

A
  • mostly skin organisms

e. g. coagulase-negative staphylococci

60
Q

Prevention of neutropenic sepsis?

A
  1. Prophylactic abx
    - ciprofloxacin for duration of neutropenia
  2. Granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF)
61
Q

Prevention Of Infection In Humoral Immune Deficiency

A

I. Active immunisation

II. Prophylactic antibiotics
- penicillin or macrolide

III. Immunoglobulin replacement

62
Q

Common Fungal Infections in immune deficient patient

A

Candida spp.

Dermatophytes

63
Q

Candidiasis in immune deficient common pathogens?

A

C. albicans and C. glabrata

64
Q

Candidiasis in immune deficient sx

A
  • thrush
  • commonly female genital tract or mucosa
    bloodstream infections
65
Q

Candidiasis mx?

A
  • depends on disease

- systemic agents include fluconazole, amphotericin B, and the echinocandins

66
Q

Dermatophyte Infection in immune deficient: which body part infected?

A

Infections of skin, hair or nails

67
Q

Dermatophyte Infection in immune deficient: which pathogen?

A

species belonging to the fungal genera

  • Trichophyton,
  • Microsporum and
  • Epidermophyton

MS3 - Microbiology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions