Immune/Infection Flashcards

1
Q

Vancomycin is used to treat infections caused by which organisms?

A

Parentally (IV)
- staphylococcal spp (gram +)
- streptococcal spp (gram+)
PO
- Clostridium Dificile (C-Dif) (gram +)
- staphylococcal spp (including MRSA)

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2
Q

How is vancomycin eliminated from the body?

A
  • feces if given PO, poorly absorbed from GIT
  • urine if given parentally, not removed by HD
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3
Q

What is the half-life for vancomycin?

A

4-11 hours
- increased in patients with renal insufficiency or impairment

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4
Q

What are the most common organisms that cause septic shock?

A
  • staphylcoccus aureus (gram +)
  • streptococcus pneumoniae (gm +)
  • enteric gram-negative bacilli
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5
Q

Which empiric antibiotics are recommended to treated septic shock?

A

Vancomycin plus one of the below:
- piperacillin-tazobactam (zosyn)
- imipenem
- meropenem (merrem)
- cefepine

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6
Q

Piperacillin-tazobactam is also known as?

A

Zosyn

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7
Q

What type of bacteria is pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

gram-negative aerobic bacillus

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8
Q

What class of antibiotic is piperacillin-tazobactam (zosyn)?

A
  • piperacillin = anti-pseudomonal pcn
  • tazobactam = beta-lactamase inhibitor
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9
Q

Vancomycin is what class of antibiotic?

A

tricyclic glycopeptide antibiotic
- bactericidal
- inhibits RNA synthesis in gram positive bacteria

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10
Q

IV Vancomycin is used to treat which infections caused by which pathogen(s)?

A
  • staphylococcal spp
  • streptococcal spp
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11
Q

PO Vancomycin is used to treat which type of infections?

A
  • diarrhea associated with clostridium difficile (C-Dif)
  • enterocolitis d/t staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA)
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12
Q

IV Vancomycin is used to treat which infection(s)?

A
  • septicemia
  • infective endocarditis
  • skin and skin structure infections
  • bone infections
  • lower respiratory tract infections
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13
Q

Linezolid is also known as what?

A

Zyvox

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14
Q

Linezolid (Zyvox) is used to treat infections caused by which pathogen(s)?

A

gram-positive bacteria
- staphylococcus aureus
- streptococcus pneumoniae
- streptococcus pyogenes
- streptococcus agalactie
- mycoplasma pneumoniae
- chlamydia pneumoniae

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15
Q

Which organism(s) are the most common cause(s) of community-acquire pneumonia (CAP)?

A
  • chlamydia pneumia
  • haemophilus influenza
  • mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • streptococcus pneumoniae
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16
Q

Which organism(s) are the most common cause(s) of pneumonia in a non-ICU patient?

A
  • chlamydia pneumia
  • haemophilus influenza
  • mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • streptococcus pneumoniae
  • legionella spp
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17
Q

Which organism(s) are the most common cause(s) of pneumonia in an ICU patient?

A
  • chlamydia pneumia
  • haemophilus influenza
  • mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • streptococcus pneumoniae
  • legionella spp
  • staphylococcus aurea
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18
Q

What is tissue tropism?

A

the ability of a pathogen to infect and grow in a specific tissue or cell type of a host

19
Q

What is the term for the ability of a pathogen to infect and grow in a specific tissue or cell type of a host?

A

tissue tropism

20
Q

What is Rifaximin used to treat?

A
  • travelers diarrhea caused by E. Coli
  • IBS
  • hepatic encephalopathy r/t high ammonia levels, does this by destroying ammonia producing bacteria in the GIT
21
Q

What is the most abundant type & WBC?

A

Neutrophils
- 50 - 60%

22
Q

What are neutrophils?

A

50- 60% of total WBC
- granulocyte
- destroy pathogens via phagocytosis
-1st to respond to tissue damage
- dead neutrophils are major component of pus.
- produced and stored in bone marrow
- destroyed by spleen and liver

23
Q

Which WBC’s are known as granulocytes?

A
  • neutrophils
  • basophils
  • eosinophils
24
Q

What are bands?

A

Immature neutrophils

25
Q

What is the normal lymphocyte count?

A

20 - 30%
- destroy viruses

26
Q

Monocyte function?

A

Phagocytosis to clear cellular debris
- normal count is 3 - 7%

27
Q

Eosinophil function?

A

Combat allergens and parasites
- normal count is 1 - 3%

28
Q

Which WBC would you expect to be elevated in a patient with a bacterial infection?

A

Neutrophils
- > 70%

29
Q

Which WBC would you expect to be elevated in a patient with a viral infection?

A

Lymphocytes
- > 30%

30
Q

Which WBC would you expect to be elevated in a patient with an allergic reaction or parasitic infection?

A

Eosinophils
- > 3%

31
Q

What does a shift to the left mean when talking about WBC’s?

A

Increased number of immature neutrophils

32
Q

What is the normal value for bands?

33
Q

Fever should be more closely controlled in which patient population and why?

A
  • elderly, higher risk d malnutrition due to increase calorie demand
  • pt with CAD, fever increases myocardial O2 demand by 15% => increased risk of myocardial ischemia
  • pregnant, fever is teratogenic
  • critically ill
34
Q

Which type of infection should be considered in an immunocompromised patient with a fever?

A
  • Bacterial is most common
  • Fungal, they are at higher risk
35
Q

What one the 2 most common causes of post op Fever?

A
  • hypovolemia
  • atelectasis
36
Q

When should anti viral therapy be started on a patient with HIV?

A

At time of diagnosis

37
Q

What CD4 count is indicative of AIDS?

A

< 200 cells/mm3

38
Q

In a patient with HIV, viral load of __?__ is needed to be considered undetectable/non-transmissible?

A

< 200 copies/ml

39
Q

What is a Normal CD4 count?

A

500 - 1200 cells/mm3

40
Q

What is the time frame for starting prophylactic anti retro viral therapy after an HIV exposure?

A

Within 24 to 72 hrs

41
Q

What is the timeline for when patient can best post for HIV after exposure?

A

2 weeks to 6 months

43
Q

What is the term for high neutrophil count?

A

Neutrophilia

44
Q

When should anti-retroviral therapy