Immune Flashcards

1
Q

There are how many types of leukocytes? Which ones are granulocytes and in what circumstances do they increase? Which are non-granular and their functions?

A

5

Neutrophils: Increased in bacterial infections (a left shift, or bands)
Eosinophils: Increased in allergic and parasiticconditions
Basophils: Increased in allergies mainly

Monocytes/macrophages: phagocytic cells​
Lymphocytes- B and T cells: B-cells produce antibodies and T-cells produce CD4 or CD8 cells

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2
Q

What is natural innate immunity? What kind of defense does it provide?

A

natural defenses and inflammation

Nonspecific, broad spectrum of defense against infections

physical barriers
cellular (phagocytic cells, neutrophils, platelets), and cytokines for communication

intact skin
mucous membranes
cilia in respiratory tract
IgA in saliva and breast milk
histamine
cytokines
prostaglandins
Inflammatory response causing vasodilation
chemotaxis of cells
phagocytosis of foreign material

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3
Q

What makes up pus?

A

dead neutrophils
bacteria
tissue

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4
Q

What constitutes the aquired immune system? What is the function of B lymphocytes? T-lymphocytes?

A

Humoral or antibody response​

B lymphocytes start process and can transform into plasma cells that manufacture antibodies orimmunoglobulins which disable invaders​
IgA,IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM​

2) Cellular immune response​ are theT-lymphocytesthat can turn into cytotoxic (or killer) T cells that attack pathogens​ or CD4 cells

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5
Q

What is the difference between active and passive acquired immunity? In what ways are they aquitred?

A

Active immunity: A result of prior exposure to an antigen either through an immunization or contracting a specific infection
1 exposure to the infection
2 immunizations
3 Humoral antibodies (IgM initially, then IgG is a long-lasting antibody)
4 Memory T-cells to recognize the same infection with future exposure

Passive immunity: not long-term for years
1 antibodies from mother to baby
2 receiving an antibody injection (immunoglobulin shot)

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6
Q

What are the 3 main types of T lymphocyte cells and their functions?

A

1)Helper T cells (aka CD4 cells)
Attack foreign invaders, initiate and augment inflammatory response, increase activated cytotoxic T cells, increase B-cell antibody production

2)Cytotoxic (killer) T cells (aka CD8 cells)
Lyse cells infected with virus; play a role in graft rejection

3)Memory T cells
Remember contact with an antigen and on subsequent exposures mount an immune response

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7
Q

What are 9 variables that can affect immune system function?

A

Age and gender
Many autoimmune disorders are more common in women, thought to be related to sex hormones
Immune system gradually declines with the aging process

Nutrition
Iron, vitamins, fatty acids, micronutrients, etc. are needed for a robust immune system

Presence of conditions and disorders
SLE, RA, MS, psoriasis, cancer, DM, COPD, fibromyalgia
Allergies

Environmental, foods, medications, latex, vaccines

History of infection and immunization​
Childhood and adult vaccines; TB, hepatitis, HIV, STIs, etc.​

Genetic factors

Medications and transfusions-

Lifestyle Factors​
Poor nutrition, smoking, ETOH, illicit drug use, STIs, environmental hazards​

Psychoneuroimmunologicalfactors​: Link between brain and immune system

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8
Q

What lab values indicate neutropenia? Potential causes? What is the ANC? At what level are neutropenic precautions indicated?

A

Neutrophil count: < 2,000/mm3​

bacterial infections
drug-induced bone marrow suppression​

Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) helps determine severity of the client’s risk of infection​, the lower the neutrophil count, the higher the risk of infection

Neutropenic precautions are essential when ANC is <1,000​
Neutropenic clients need to report any fevers or signs of infection

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9
Q

What is a lefft shift in WBCs? What is it also referred as? What does it indicate?

A

Increase of immature neutrophils (bands or stabs)​ in bloodstream from the bone marrow, so we call it a “ left shift” of the WBC count

also referred to as increased “bands”

Strongly associated with a serious bacterial infectionsince neutrophils are being mobilized

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10
Q

What are neutropenic precautuons?

A

Restricting visitors
Protective isolation (reverse isolation)
Prohibiting visits by people who have an infection
Restricting exposure to live plants
Restricting ingestion of fresh fruits and vegetables
Avoid contamination from the client’s own bacterial flora (avoid rectal temps and IM injections)
Immediately report low-grade fever to the provider

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11
Q

What is the neddlestick protocol?

A

Wash the area with soap and water
Alert your supervisor
Identify the source client
Report quickly to employee health
Consent for baseline testing
Post-exposure prophylaxis medications
CDC says to start antiretroviral meds ASAP and no more than 72 hours after possible HIV exposure
2-3 drugs prescribed for 28 days
Follow-up testing
Usually baseline, 6 weeks, 12 weeks, and 6 months
Document in chart

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12
Q

What are the 4 stages of HIV and symptoms?

A

Stage O: primary infection, like a cold

Stage 1: HIM asymptomatic (can be for years)

Stage 2: HIV smptomatic–fever, weight loss, swollen nodes

Stage 3: AIDS–CD4 less than 200 or acquiring an AIDs defining disease

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13
Q

What are the criteria of the primary HIV infection/O stage?

A

From initial infection to the development of antibodies

Antibodies in blood indicate pt is infected with HIV (ELISA test)
AKA acute HIV infection or window period
Window period can last 2 weeks to 6 months

Virus replicates rapidly in CD4 immune cells
Destruction of CD4 T-cell (declining CD4 counts)
Increase in serum viral load
Usually present with non-specific viral illness symptoms that are similar to influenza
Fever, fatigue, sore throat, chills, anorexia, nausea, weight loss, night sweats, rash lasting 1-2 weeks

Person can test negative for at least 2-3 weeks
May test negative for up to 6 months

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14
Q

What are criteria for asymptomatic/stage 1 of HIV?

A

8-10 years on average before a major HIV-related complication develops such as infection

The client can remain asymptomatic for 10 years or more, but the immune system (CD4 cells) are being destroyed and declining in body
CD4 count is often in the thousands in a healthy individual

Clients generally feel well and have few, if any, symptoms

CD4 = 500 or greater
High enough to preserve immune defensive responses, and get just regular infections (like healthy individual)

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15
Q

What are criteria for symptomatic/stage 2/category B of HIV?

A

Over time the virus begins actively replicating using the host’s genetic machinery

CD4+ cells are further destroyed

The viral load increases
CD4 = 200 – 499

The client develops symptoms or conditions related to the HIV infection
Often fatigue, fevers, swollen lymph nodes develop

CD4 <500 will begin to result in the appearance of certain infections fromdestruction of immune system such as tuberculosis

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16
Q

What are criteria for stage 3/AIDS?

A

Defined as : < 200 CD4 or an AIDS defining illness occurs

There are not enough CD4 T-lymphocytes present to fight off infection

As levels drop below 100 cells/mm3, the immune system is severely impaired

This stage is characterized by life-threatening opportunistic infections

“AIDS defining infection” areopportunistic infections that occur in HIV with low CD4 counts

End stage of HIV
Without treatment, death occurs within 5 years from opportunistic infections or cancers

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17
Q

What are 11 AIDS-defining conditions?

A

Candidiasis of esophagus, bronchi, trachea, or lungs

Herpes simplex (chronic ulcers more than 1 month of duration)

HIV-related encephalopathy

Disseminated or extrapulmonary histoplasmosis (fungal)

Kaposi sarcoma (a soft tissue cancer)

Burkitt lymphoma
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (any site)

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

Recurrent pneumonia

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

Recurrent salmonella septicemia

Wasting syndrome attributed to HIV

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18
Q

What is the sequence of HIV testing?

A

HIV antibody screening test: enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Many false positives, so NOT a definitive test
Takes 2-3 weeks to develop antibodies sorequires repeat testing up to 6 months
Home test kits are available using a drop of blood

HIV antibody confirmation test: Western blot

HIV RNA quantification: HIV viral load test
Used for assessing effectiveness of antiviral medications
If viral load if “undetectable” with antiretroviral therapy,it indicates an excellent response to medications

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19
Q

When is a CD4 count performed? What does a decreasing amount indicate? What is a normal CD4-CD8 ratio inidcate? What can be inferred with a CD4 increase wiith antivirals?

A

Perform when Western blot is positive​

Decreasing count indicates increasing risk of opportunistic diseases
Steadily decreasing count also indicates a poor prognosis or medication resistance/non-adherence

CD4-to CD8 ratio normal is 2:1. A ratio less than 1 indicates severe disease
Used for assessing the health of the immune system

An increasing CD4 count with antiviral medications indicates a strengthening of the immune system

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20
Q

What is the goal of antiretroviral therapy? What combination of drug classes are used to achieve this?

A

suppressHIV replication​

Reduce HIV-associatedmorbidity and prolong durationand quality of life​

Restore and preserveimmunologic function​ of client

Maximally and durably suppressplasma HIV viral load​

Prevent HIV transmission by reducing serum viral load

Use of combination therapy to prevent resistant HIV infection

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
Protease inhibitors (PIs)
Fusion inhibitors

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21
Q

What are the MOAs of the 4 HIV drug antiviral classes?

A

ENTRY/FUSION INHIBITORS
Blocks the entry of HIV into cells

REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS
Blocks the conversion of HIV RNA to DNA

INTEGRATION INHIBITORS
Blocks the HIV DNA to enter the cellular DNA in nucleus

PROTEASE INHIBITORS
Blocks proteases from forming the final HIV protein products

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22
Q

What is the prototype fusion inhibitor med? MOA? Nursing considerations? SE?

A

Prototype: enfuvirtide

A class of antiretroviral drugs that work on the outside of the host CD4 cell to prevent HIV from fusing with and infecting it. Fusion inhibitors act by binding to an envelope protein and blocking the structural changes necessary for the virus to fuse with the host CD4 cell.

Only given by injection
Use is limited due to adverse effects

Side effects
Common injection site reaction (severe pain, erythema, cysts, cellulitis)
Increases the risk of pneumonia

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23
Q

What is the nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) med? For what is it commonly used? SE?

A

zidovudine

Usedin pregnant women to prevent passing the HIVto unborn child
Also given to newborns to protect from HIV mother
Blocks reverse transcription-stops virus from replicating in cells

Side effects
Bone marrow suppression (aplastic anemia)
Black box warning: associated with myopathy with long-term use

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24
Q

What is Kaposi sarcoma? How does it manifest?

A

Cutaneous lesions but may involve multiple organ systems, usually brownish pink to deep purple, may be flat or raised and surrounded by ecchymosis and edema

Lesions cause discomfort, disfigurement, ulceration, and potential for infection

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25
Q

What are S/S of B-cell lymphoma or Hodgkin, Non-Hodgkin lymphoma? What does it typically indicate?

A

Weight loss, night sweats, fever

Poor prognosis due to severe suppression of immune system, and now the need for chemotherapy

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26
Q

What is HIV encepalopathy? Patho? nursing considerations?

A

Progressive cognitive, behavioral, and motor function decline
Probably directly related to the HIV infection

HIV triggers release of toxins/lymphokines that result in cellular dysfunction, inflammation, and neurotransmitter interference

Maintain client safety and initiate seizure precautions

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27
Q

What is crytococcus neoformans?

A

Fungal infection that causes fever, headache, malaise, stiff neck, N/V, mental status changes, seizures by invading the brain tissue

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28
Q

-atopy indicates what kind of allergic reactions? Examples?

A

IgE antibody action and a genetic predisposition

atopic dermatitis, asthma, allergic rhinitis)

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29
Q

What are diagnostic findings when evaluating allergic disorders? WBC? Eosiniphils? IgE? What is a serum specific IgE test? Skin test? Nursing considerations?

A

WBC
Usually normal except with infection orinflammation

Eosinophil count
Elevated with an allergic reaction (bee sting, spider bite, etc.)

IgE level
High levels support a diagnosis of allergic disease

Serum-specific IgE Test ( radioallergosorbent test- RAST)
Takes blood of client to test if IgE is present to a specific allergen

Skin tests (intradermal or scratch)
Considered most accurate confirmation of allergy

Emergency equipment must be readily available to treat anaphylaxis!!!
Stopall antihistamines/corticosteroids 48 hrs. to 2 weeks prior to thetest

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30
Q

What are medications for anaphylactic allergies and what doe they target? Can other meds replace epinephrine if anaphylaxis is present?

A

Oxygen: if respiratory assistance needed due to shortness of breath or hypoxemia

Epinephrine IM: for anaphylactic reactions such as swelling, wheezing, hypotension, vomiting combined with an urticarial rash

Antihistamines: for urticarial rash or itching by blocking histamine effect

Corticosteroids: to help reduce systemic inflammation in anaphylaxis

Adjunct therapy of antihistamines and corticosteroids are not in place of epinephrine

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31
Q

What is the therapeutic response of epinephrine in an anaphylactic allergic response?

A

Will reduce airway swelling and wheezing plus increase blood pressure

32
Q

What are common food allergies?

A

Seafood
Peanuts and tree nuts
Seeds
Berries
Eggs
Wheat
Milk
Chocolate

33
Q

What are the characteristics of rheumatic diseases?

A

Inflammation (redness, swelling and tenderness)

Autoimmunity

Degeneration and destruction of joints
They primarily affect the joints (monoarticular or polyarticular), but also muscles, bone, ligament, tendons, and cartilage, sometime organs

34
Q

What are S/S of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Elevated serum rheumatoid factor (RF)
Elevated ESR or CRP inflammatory markers

Severity of disease varies

Bilateral and symmetric
Joint pain, redness, swelling and warmth to joints (inflamed)
Joint stiffness, especially in the morning
Lack of function gradually develops from deformities
Deformities of hands and feet (late manifestation)
Joints are “spongy” on palpation (filled with fluid)
Typically, begins in small joints of hands and feet

35
Q

What are S/S of systemic rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Fever
Weight loss
Fatigue
Anemia
Lymph node enlargement
Raynaud phenomenon of digits
Chest pain from pleuritis or pericarditis
Chest pain from angina (increased risk of CAD)
Rheumatoid nodules
Sjogren syndrome (10-15 % of clients with RA have Sjogren syndrome): Dry eyes and dry mucous membranes such as mouth, skin, and vagina

36
Q

What are 3 lab tests for rheumatoid arthritis and what they indicate?

A

Rheumatoid factor (RF) antibody
Diagnostic level is 1:40 to 1:60 (normal <1:20)
High titers correlated with severe disease
Other autoimmune diseases can have increased levels (creating diagnostic confusion)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Elevated ESR is associated with inflammation or infection
>70 indicates severe inflammation

C-reactive protein (CRP)
May be done in place of ESR, or often both are prescribed
Used to diagnose, monitor, or assess medication effectiveness
>1.0 mg/dL indicates inflammation

37
Q

What is the medical managment of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

NSAIDS
DMARDS (disease modifying antirheumatic drugs, biologic vs non-biologic)
Corticosteroids
X-rays to determine the degree of join destruction
Reconstructive surgery
Arthroplasty such as hip,knee, shoulder replacements

38
Q

What is nursing care of rheumatoid arthritis? Client education?

A

Assist with and encourage physical activity
Balance of rest and exercise
Teach the client to monitor skin closely
Provide referrals for OT and PT to maintain maximal function and ADLs
Facilitate use of assistive devices
Monitor for medication effectiveness
Nutrition therapy
High in vitamins, protein, and iron in mall, frequent meals

Apply heat/cold to affected areas
Balance rest/exercise
Follow routine health screenings
Report manifestations that can indicate RA exacerbation: fever, infection, pain upon inspiration, chest pain
Express feelings regarding body image
Use nonpharmacologic pain relief: hypnosis, acupuncture, imagery, music therapy, spiritual practices

39
Q

What is the common non-biologic DMARDS? AEs? Common biologic DMARD? AEs?

A

methotrexate

Bone marrow suppression
Ulcerative stomatitis
Liver toxicity
Pregnancy category X
6 weeks for therapeutic effects

Etanercept- similar: infliximab

Given only by injection (subcutaneous or IV infusion)
Can cause severe immunosuppression exposing client to cancer and infection
Stevens-Johnson syndrome rashes can occur
Avoid live vaccines due to immunosuppressed state
TB skin test needed prior to many biologic agents

40
Q

What is the patho of systemic lupsu erythematosus? Risk factors?

A

Exaggerated production of autoantibodies that attack many sites in the body. Varies in severity and progression
Periods of exacerbations and remissions throughout life

Genetic factors, increasedrisk if a parent or sibling has disease
Immunologic factor
Hormonal factor
Environmental factor
Exposure to medications can cause a flare-up of the disease
Sulfa drugs, penicillin, or antibiotic drugs
women
African Americans

41
Q

S/S of lupus. Systemic? Musculoskeletal? Integumentary? Cardiac? Renal? CNS?

A

Systemic symptoms:
Fever, fatigue, anemia, lymph node enlargement, Raynaud phenomenon, malaise, weight loss, anorexia

Musculoskeletal symptoms:
Joint swelling, tenderness, pain on movement, arthritis

Skin manifestations:
Butterfly-shaped rash across nose and cheeks

Pericarditis:- most common cardiac condition. Also increased heart disease

Renal involvement:
Nephritis due to buildup of antibodies and immune complexes that damage nephrons, which can progress to renal failure

CNS involvement:
Psychosis, cognitive impairment, seizures, neuropathies, strokes

42
Q

What are diagnostic findings with lupus?

A

Antinuclear antibodies (positive in 95% of cases)
ESR and CRP elevated
Pancytopenia
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Leukopenia

43
Q

What medications help control effects of lupus, what they effect, and AEs?

A

NSAIDs: reduce inflammation (Can worsen renal disease, HTN, HF, PUD, and fluid retention)

Corticosteroids: used for flare-ups of SLE, usually short-term due to side-effects

Monoclonal antibodies (belimumab/Benlysta): DMARD to suppress immune system

Antimalarials (hydroxychloroquine):
DMARD,remember eye check-ups annually

Methotrexate: DMARD, suppresses immune system, monitor for fevers/infections, petechiae (low platelets), and signs of anemia (know the symptoms of bone marrow suppression which involves 3 cell lines)

44
Q

What is client education for lupus?

A

Teach to avoid cold for hands/toes​​
Pain management (pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic)​​
Protect from sun exposure​​- sunscreen and protective hats/clothing
Use mild protein shampoo and avoid harsh hair treatments
Impaired skin integrity​
Use steroid creams for rash
Cleanse skin with mild soap and inspect skin daily
Apply lotion to dry skin
Avoid powders, alcohol, or anything drying
Pat skin dry rather than rubbing
Report evidence of infection, peripheral edema, or periorbital edema immediately

45
Q

What is the patho of osteoarthritis?

A

Most common joint disorder
Not considered an inflammatory arthritis
Incidence increases with age (can affect any age)
Not from autoimmunity of inflammation
Limited to affected joint, no systemic symptoms
By age 40, 90% of adults have some degenerative joint changes
85% of people over 65 years of age has radiographic changes indicating OA
Articular cartilage breaks down leading to progressive damage of the bone​
Joint space narrows, develops bone spurs (osteophytes)
Not considered a “normal part of aging” but aging is the biggest risk factor

46
Q

What is the medical management of osteoarthritis?

A

Goals are to decrease pain and stiffness and maintain/improve joint mobility
Acetaminophen is first line due to safety profile
NSAIDs
Corticosteroid injections
Topical analgesics such as diclofenac gel
Weight reduction
Exercise (cardio and strength training)
Orthotic devices (splints, braces, canes, walkers)
Massage, yoga, acupuncture, TENS (research under way to determine effectiveness)
OT and PT
Surgery (osteotomy and arthroplasty)

47
Q

What is the patho fo gout? Risk factors?

A

The most common intermittent inflammatory arthritis
Uric acid results from the breakdown of nucleic acids in cells (so think of which foods worsen condition)
Hyperuricemia occurs (increased serum uric acid) causing uric acid crystals to deposit in joints and body tissues

Risk factors
Age
Males are mainly affected until women reach menopause (estrogen was protective against gout before menopause)
High BMI
Postmenopausal women and adult males of any age
Genetic predisposition
High intake of purine rich foods (shellfish, organ meats)
Alcohol ingestion
Some chemotherapy agents since they destroy cells, and release nucleic acids
Chronic renal failure, diabetes, hypertension and heart disease
Medications such as hydrochlorothiazide diuretics

48
Q

What are the S/S of gout?

A

Acute inflammatory arthritis from uric acid crystals in joint
Severe pain, redness, warmth, and swelling of the affected joint
Most common in big toe joint, but also includes foot, ankle, knee
Attacks can come suddenly, often at night
Very painful when the swollen joint is touched or moved
Appearance of tophi in soft tissues with chronic gout
Most attacks will subside over 3-10 days with treatment
Attacks come and go but result in gradual joint damage

49
Q

What medications are used to manage acute flare-ups of gout?

A

NSAIDs:
First-line therapy for acute attack
Monitor for side-effects (renal injury,hypertension,edema,PUD,bleeding)

Colchicine:
Acute attack, when NSAIDs are not effective
Decreases inflammation
Explosive diarrhea limits use

Corticosteroids:
Oral prednisone or dexamethasone for acute attacks
Not first-line due to assorted list of side-effects (important to know)

50
Q

What is the preventative medications for gout? MOA? SE? Client teaching?

A

allopurinol

Reduces uric acid production resulting in lower serum levels

Side effects are rare, but can cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome​ and possible bone marrow suppression
Renal toxicity (drink 2 L fluids a day)​,

so maintain hydration
Monitor uric acid levels ​
Clients often take for life to reduce the acute attacks of gout
Can also help reduce kidney stones if caused by uric acid stones

51
Q

What are adjunct measure to manage gout?

A

Restrict foods high in purines
Organ meats (liver, kidneys), beer, sardines, shellfish, mushrooms, asparagus, gravy
Limit intake of ETOH
Avoid starvation diets, aspirin, and diuretics
Limit physical or emotional stress
Increase fluid intake
Maintain normal body weight

52
Q

What is the patho of fibromyalgia?

A

Chronic pain syndrome
Chronic fatigue- #1 problem and concern

Generalized, widespread, bilateral musculoskeletal pain or tenderness

Stiffness to muscles and joints

Sleep disturbances

Amplification of pain signals
Predisposing factors to increased pain: anxiety, depression, physical trauma, emotional stress, insomnia, and viral infection

53
Q

How is fibromyalgia managed? Nursing considerations? Client education?

A

Medical Management
NSAIDs
Antidepressants (can help improve pain)
Anticonvulsants such as pregabalin or gabapentin
Treat insomnia with tricyclic antidepressant (amitriptyline) or trazadone
Exercise, PT/OT

Nursing Management
Assess/monitor pain, mobility, and fatigue
Support and encouragement
Clients typically have had symptoms for extensive period and may feel that their symptoms have not been taken seriously

Limit intake of caffeine, alcohol, and other substances that interfere with sleep
Develop a sleep routine
Engage in low-impact exercise daily
Acupuncture, stress, management, tai chi, hypnosis can also be used

54
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

causative organism
reservoir (a location that provides growth/survival of the organism)
portal/mode of exit from the reservoir
mode of transmission to host
susceptible host
portal/mode of entry

55
Q

What are standard precautions?

A

hand hygiene
gloves
proper handling of client equipment and linens
environmental control
prevention from sharps injuries

56
Q

What are airborne precautions? What diseases requires such precautions? Mneumonic to help remember?

A

negative air pressure room
private room
keep door closed
N-95

measles
varicella
herpes zoster
TB

My chicken has TB

57
Q

What are droplet precautions? Diseases needing such precautions?

A

standard plus face mask within 3-6 feet

influenza
menigitis
mumps
pertusis

58
Q

What are contact precautions?

A

standard plus
private room
gowns
masks not needed, but you probably will want one

C Diff
MRSA

59
Q

What is the patho of MRSA? Treatment? Considerations? Why is there an increase is VRSA?

A

Easily colonizes on skin
Individual serves as a reservoir for MRSA transmission to others
Infection can spread to wounds or immunocompromised clients

Treated with mupirocin ointment if not extensive or IV vancomycin if severe or systemic

Admission screenings
Contact isolation
Clients regularly bathed with chlorhexidine gluconate solution to decrease microbial count on skin

VRSA
Vancomycin-resistant staphylococcus aureus
With control of MRSA, the emergence of VRSA strains should decrease

60
Q

What is vancomycin resistant enterococcus?

A

VRE
Normally found in the GI tract
Admission screenings done
Survives well on skin/hands and environmental objects
2nd most common source of HAIs in US
Contact isolation

61
Q

What is a CLABSI? What location is of highest risk? Prevention?

A

central line associated stream infection

Femoral site

aseptic dressing changes
Aseptic caps on ports- port cleaning is essential prior to access! Clean with friction
Bundles on temporary non-tunneled central lines
Change clear dressings every 7 days

62
Q

What can be done to reduce the incidences of CAUTIs?

A

Decrease use of catheters
Assess need daily
No dependent loops in tubing
Urometermust be kept off the floor
Securement of device to avoid traction
Peri care with soap and water at least twice daily

63
Q

What is VAP? What can reduce incidences?

A

ventilator associated pneumonia

HOB at 30 degrees
Extubate as soon as possible
Daily assessments to potentially extubate
Oral care every two hours with chlorhexidine
Endotracheal suctioning as needed (not every 2 hour if not needed)

64
Q

When is the MMR immunizations administered?

A

12-15 months of age
Repeat dosing at 4-6 years of age

65
Q

Who is is the varicella immunization contraindicatedin? Why? When is the herpes zoster immunization recommended?

A

pregnant and immunocompromised

it’s a live vaccine

60+ years

66
Q

What allergy is contraindicated in some influenza vaccines?

A

egg

67
Q

What causes campylobacter infections? What is the frequent symptom? Treatment? Prevention? Complication associated with thisi infection?

A

found in poultry, beef, pork

diarrhea

usually resolves, if severe ciprofloxacin

cook and store meat appropriately
separate kitchen supplies used to prepare meat

Guillain-Barre

68
Q

What sources is salmonella prevelent?

A

chicken
eggs
sprouts, fruits and vegetables

69
Q

What is the patho of escherichia coli? How is is transmitted? What serious complication can occur?

A

Most common aerobic organism colonizing the large bowel
Part of normal flora
Some strains of E. coli lead to severe diarrhea and rapid dehydration

Ingestion of undercooked beef and vegetables that have been contaminated by animal wastewater
Cook beef thoroughly until the juices run clear
Bacterium lives in the intestines of cattle and can be introduced into the meat during slaughter

May result in hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) form E.coli toxin

70
Q

What type of organism is giardia lamblia? How is it transmitted? Symptoms?

A

protozoa

through contaminated food and drink, fecal-oral

abd. pain, nausea, diarrhea, fever

71
Q

What is the rehydration protocol for infectious diarrhea? What should be avoided? What are potential complications?

A

Mild dehydration: 50 mL of oral rehydration salts (ORS) per 1kg of weight over 4 hours

Moderate dehydration
100 mL/kg of ORS over 4 hours

Severe dehydration
IV replacement until hemodynamic and mental status return to normal

Avoid anti-diarrheal medications for infectious diarrhea

Bacteremia, hypovolemic shock/sepsis

72
Q

What are S/S of the zika virus? What are pregnant women cautioned to do?

A

Mild fever
Rash
Headache
Conjunctivitis
Joint/muscle pain
Microcephaly and congenital abnormalities in infants of some women infected with Zika during pregnancy
Guillain-Barre syndrome

not traveling in endemic areas
safe sex/abstinence with partners who have traveled

73
Q

What are S/S of West Nile Virus? Cause? Reservoir?

A

Usually a mild presentation
HA
Fever
Persistent fatigue

Caused by a mosquito bite

Birds are the natural reservoir for the virus

74
Q

How is the ebola virus spread? S/S? Potential complication?

A

Spread through direct contact with blood or body fluid, handling bats or wild animals hunted for food

S/S
High fever
Muscle aches
Fatigue
Severe diarrhea
Abdominal pain
Vomiting
5% develop bleeding or hemorrhage

Severe dehydration can lead to hemodynamic shock

75
Q

What is Legionnaires disease? Reservoir? Treatment?

A

Multisystem illness
Includes pneumonia and respiratory symptoms

Found in water sources
man-made and naturally occurring
Incidence increases during Summer and Fall months and growth occurs in plumbing systems

Treated with antibiotics