Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is emmetropia? Myopia? Hyperopia? Astigamatism?

A

Normal vision

Nearsighted and have blurred distance vision

Farsighted, have excellent distance vision but blurry near vision

Distortion due to curvature of the cornea

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2
Q

What is glaucoma? Cause? What is normal IOP? How often are the eye screenings?

A

damage to the optic nerve is related to increased intraocular pressure (IOP) caused by excessive aqueous humor/production and drainage are not in balance

Increased IOP causes irreversible mechanical and/or ischemic damage

Normal IOP is 10 to 21 mm Hg

Before age 40: every 2 to 4 years
40 to 54: every 1 to 3 years
55 to 64: every 1 to 2 years
65 and older: every 6 to 12 months

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3
Q

What does the angle refer to when distinguishing glaucoma? What is open-angle glaucoma/primary open angle? How does the IOP increase? Is it acute or gradual? S/S? Treatment?

A

angle between iris and cornea

Most common form
The aqueous humor outflow is decreased due to blockage in the drainage system

IOP increases due to reduced outflow of fluid

Gradual rise in IOP (22-32 mm Hg)
“Silent thief” of vision
Gradual loss of peripheral vision

Often initially asymptomatic, mild eye pain, blurry vision, halos around lights, and HA can occur

Requires chronic lifelong treatment

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4
Q

What is narrow-angle/primary-angle closure? Does IOP increase acutely or slowly? S/S? Treatment?

A

The angle suddenly closes, usually due to dilation of pupil

IOP increases suddenly (30 mm Hg or higher)

Severe eye pain, NV, photophobia, HA, decreased or blurry vision, colored halos around lights, red eyes, hazy cornea, pupils nonreactive to light

Requires immediate treatment to reduce IOP

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5
Q

What are nursing actions when administering eye drops? Why use punctal occlusion?

A

one drop in each eye twice daily

Wait 5 to 10 minutes between eye drops if more than one is prescribed

Avoid touching the tip of the applicator to the eye

Always wash hands before and after use

to insure the med does not go into the system.

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6
Q

What is first-line pharm therapy for both chronic and acute glaucoma? What is used for closed-angle specifically? MOA? SE? What are 3 other common meds?

A

Timolol (beta blocker)- first-line therapy, reduces fluid production
Drops can cause reduced BP, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and bronchospasm

Pilocarpine (cholinergic)
Drops cause miosis of the pupil, used in closed-angle glaucoma
Can cause bradycardia and dizziness (low BP)

Apraclonidine (alpha-adrenergic agonist)
Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)
Iatanoprost (prostaglandin analogue)

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7
Q

What is the client teaching for glaucoma surgery?

A

Wear sunglasses

Report manifestations of infection

Avoid activities that increase IOP
Bending at the waist, sneezing, coughing, straining, head hyperflexion, restrictive clothing, sexual intercourse

Use stool softener daily (docusate)

Do not lift anything > 15 lbs.

Limit activities such as tilting the head back to wash hair, cooking, housekeeping, rapid/jerky movements (vacuuming), driving and operating heavy machinery, playing sports

Do not lie on operative side

Report severe pain or nausea as this can indicate possible hemorrhage

Final best vision occurs 4 to 6 weeks after surgery

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8
Q

What is cataracts? Common causes?

A

An opacity or cloudiness of the lens that impairs vision

Common causes: age-related, traumatic, toxic (meds such as corticosteroids), associated (DM, hypoparathyroid, chronic sun exposure), complicated (intraocular disease such as glaucoma or retinal detachment)

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9
Q

What are clinical manifestations of cateracts?

A

Painless and progressive, blurry vision
Reduced night vision
Sensitivity to glare of light
Reduced visual acuity
Prescription changes, reduced night vision, decreased color perception
Myopic shift (return of ability to do close work)
Diplopia in a single eye
Color shifts as lens becomes more brown
Opacity of the lens

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10
Q

What is client teaching for cataracts surgery?

A

Final best vision occurs 4 to 6 weeks after surgery
Protective eye patch for 24 hours
Eyeglasses during the day
Eye shield at night
Washing of hands
Cleaning of eye
Shampoo hair cautiously
Decrease intraocular pressure
Avoid lying on side of affected eye the night of surgery

Health promotion teaching:
Protective eyewear while playing sports, hazardous activities (yard work)
Encourage annual eye exams

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11
Q

What is retinal detachment? S/S?

A

Separation of the sensory retina and the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)
Hole or tear develops in the retina
Liquid vitreous seeps through and causes the retina to detach

S/S
Sensation of a shade or curtain coming across the vision of one eye
Bright flashing lights
Sudden onset of floaters
This is a true ocular emergency!

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12
Q

What is macular degeneration? What accumulates in the retina? S/S? What is dry macular degeneration? Wet?

A

Central loss of vision that affects the macula of the eye

drusen: Clusters of debris or waste material
Tiny, yellowish spots beneath the retina

Lack of depth perception
Objects appear distorted
Blurred vision
Loss of central vision
Blindness

The most common type
Caused by gradual blockage in retinal capillary arteries  ischemia and necrosis

Caused by new growth of blood vessels of thin walls causing the vessels to leak blood and fluid

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13
Q

What is the treatment for macular degeneration? Client education on vitamins?

A

Laser therapy to seal leaking vessels
Ocular injections

Consume foods high in antioxidants, carotene, vitamin E, and B12
May be prescribed a supplement high in carotene and vitamin E

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14
Q

What is diabetic retinopathy? Early symptoms? Treatment?

A

damage to the blood vessels in the tissue at the back of the eye (retina) resulting in microaneurysms,ischemic retina, and hemorrhages

Floaters, blurriness, dark areas of vision, difficulty perceiving colors

Mild cases may be treated with careful diabetes management
Advanced cases may require laser treatment or surgery

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15
Q

What is enucleation? What two ways is it done?

A

Removal of the eyeball (globe) from the orbit
Evisceration-removal of contents through an incision
Exenteration-removal of entire contents

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the Weber test? How are ear conditions categorized? How is sound heard with each category?

A

Weber Test:used to establish a diagnosis in clients with unilateral hearing loss

Is it from the outer ear, eardrum, ossicles (conductive)or the nerves? (sensorineural)

Sensorineural hearing loss: sound is heard louder on the side of the intact ear

Conductive hearing loss: sound is heard louder on the side of the affected ear

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17
Q

What is Rinne test? What do the findings indicate?

A

Useful for distinguishing between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss- assesses both air and bone conduction of sound of affected ear

If no conductive problem like earwax, eardrum,ossicles, then sounds will be heard longer through air

If there is a conductive problem, then the bone vibration will last longer than through air

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18
Q

How is vertigo tested? How is it detected? How is it conducted? Nursing actions? Contraindication? What other test can be done concurrently and test for nystagmus?

A

Electronystagmography (ENG):used in vertigo testing

Detects involuntary eye movements (nystagmus)

Assess for disease of the vestibular system
Electrodes are taped near the eyes and recorded when the ear canal is stimulated with cold water instillation or injection of air

Keep the client alert during the procedures
Client should maintain bedrest and NPO until vertigo subsides
Fast before the procedure
Restrict caffeine, alcohol, sedatives, and antihistamines several days before the test

Contraindicated in clients with pacemakers (pacemaker signals inhibit sensitivity of ENG)

caloric test

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19
Q

What causes a conductive hearing issue? Sensorineural? Can you have both at the same time?

A

Due to external canal or middle ear problem
Often caused by otitis media, otosclerosis, and foreign bodies, ear wax

Sensorineural
Due to damage to the cochlea or vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)

yes

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20
Q

What is otitis externa? Common causes? Manifestations?

A

Inflammation/infection (most commonly from bacteria or fungus) of the external auditory canal

Swimmer’s ear or trauma

Pain and tenderness
Pain with pulling on pinna of ear or pressing the tragus
Discharge- yellow/green/foul-smelling; fungal infections contain hairlike black spores
Edema of canal
Erythema of canal
Pruritus
Hearing loss
Feelings of fullness in the ear

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21
Q

What are causes of a tympanic membrane perforation? Is it self-limiting? What is the surgical intervention if needed?

A

Otitis media, nearby explosion, severe blow to ear, deep diving

Heal spontaneously in weeks to several months

Tympanoplasty
Tissue is placed across the perforation to allow healing and improves hearing

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22
Q

What is otorrhea? Rhinorrhea? Hemotympanum?

A

leakage of fluid from ear
CSF from the ear in a basal skull fracture, a clear, watery drainage

nasal fluid discharge
CSF from the nose, also in basal skull fracture

Blood behind the ear drum from trauma and basal skull fracture

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23
Q

What is acute otitis media? S/S?

A

Acute viral or bacterial infection of the middle ear

Otalgia (sensation of fullness or pain in ear)
Drainage from the ear (purulent or blood drainage)….only if TM perforation
Fever
Headache
Conductive hearing loss

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24
Q

What is serous otitis media? S/S? Treatment?

A

Middle ear effusion
Can occur following an acute otitis media
Fluid without infection

Hearing loss
Fullness or congestion
Popping or crackling noises as the eustachian tube attempts to open

May need a tympanostomy tube to drain

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25
Q

What is a tympanoplasty? Ossiculoplasty?

A

reconstruction of tympani membrane

reconstruction of middle ear bones with prostheses

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26
Q

What is a mastoidectomy? What is a cholesteatoma?

A

Removal of diseased bone, mastoid air cells, and cholesteatoma to create a non-infected, healthy ear

Cholesteatoma:
A benign tumor that is an ingrowth of skin that causes persistently high pressure in the middle ear
Causes hearing loss, facial pain and paralysis, tinnitus, vertigo, and destroys ear structures

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27
Q

What is Meniere disease? S/S? Treatment? Why is a low sodium diet effective?

A

Abnormal inner ear fluid balance in vestibular system

S/S
Fluctuating, progressive hearing loss
A long-term chronic condition
Tinnitus
Feeling of pressure or fullness
Episodic, incapacitating vertigo that may be accompanied by N/V

Low-sodium diet, 1000-1500 mg a day
Meclizine, tranquilizers, antiemetics, and diuretics can be used
Surgical management
Pressure point treatment
Inserting a tympanostomy tube, which applies micropulses at intervals to relieve vertigo by displacing fluid of the inner ear

Sodium and fluid retention disrupts the balance of fluid in the inner ear

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28
Q

What is tinnitis? Vertigo? Ototoxicity? Meds that can cause it?

A

Ringing in the ear
Roaring, buzzing, hissing sound in one or both ears

The illusion of motion or a spinning sensation when not occurring
Usually occurs from disease in the vestibular ear system

r/t medications:

gentamycin, erythromycin, furosemide, ethacrynic acid, NSAIDs, chemotherapy agents (cisplatin)

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29
Q

What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo? Treatment?

A

Caused by debris (small crystals of calcium carbonate) located within the semicircular canal
Sudden onset, can last a few weeks or years
Aggravated by any head movements until crystal is out of semicircular canal

Treatment: bedrest, meclizine, Epley maneuver to move crystal

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30
Q

What is labyrinthitis? Treatment?

A

Labyrinthitis
Often secondary to a viral infection in vestibular system
Sudden onset of severe vertigo, NV, hearing loss, and tinnitus

Treatment: bedrest, darkened room, meclizine or dimenhydrinate, antibiotics if bacterial

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31
Q

What is otosclerosis? Treatment?

A

Otosclerosis
Bones in the middle ear fuse together
Leads to conductive hearing loss

Treatment: stapedectomy (the stapes is removed and replaced with a prosthesis)

32
Q

What is the indications of meclizine? MOA? What other meds can help aid in treating vertigo?

A

Treats vertigo from inner ear problems (reduces symptoms to vomit center in brainstem)

Antihistamine and anticholinergic effects

Adverse effects: sedation, dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation,blurry vision

diphenhydramines
ondanteron (for nausea)
benzodiazapines

33
Q

What is the indication of scopolamine? MOA? Route? AE?

A

treats nausea associated with inner ear problems

Anticholinergic

Transdermal

Adverse effects: sedation, dry mouth, urinary retention

34
Q

How does Cushing’s present? What is the hormone insufficiency involved? What med presents similarly? Why is there a high glucose level? Why weight gain and toom much fluid?

A

weight gain
buffalo hump
moon face
hyperglycemia
changes inn personality
increased infection risk
osteoporosis, susceptible to fractures
fluid retention
striae

too much cortisol and aldosterone

corticosteroids

cortisol is a stress hormone that tells the lover to release more glucose

too much aldosterone tells the kidneys to resorb sodium and water follows.

35
Q

What are the stages of HIV? What determines progression to AIDS?

A

Stage 0: primary infection, feels like a cold
Stage 1: HIV asymptomatic (can be for years)
Stage 2: symptomatic (CD4 has declined enough that it is susceptible to infections and viral load increases)
Stage 3 AIDS

CD4 goes below 200 or an opportunistic infection

36
Q

What are DKA interventions? Monitor? What causes the excess ketones? It causes what imbalance?

A

labs: ABGs and ketone level in urine
fluid replacement (NS then D5 when BS 250
IV regular insulin
ICU setting
potassium (goes into the cells with the insulin so you must watch the shifts in levels)

ABGs, renal function, potassium, output, ECG, VS

rapid fat breakdown that the body cannot use

metabolic acidosis

37
Q

What are the benefits of hormone replacement? Risks?

A

manages menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes
reduced risk of fractures/osteo
prevent vaginal atrophy and dryness

breast, endometrial and ovarian cancers
DVT
CAD
MI

38
Q

What does a pheochromocytoma affect? What hormones does this affect? What reaction does this increas cause? Manifestations?

A

adrenal medulla

catecholamines–epi and norepi

fight or flight response

HTN
sweating
anxiety
hyperglycemia
tachycardia

39
Q

What are surgical pre-procedure interventions with a client with hemophilia? What is something that can indicate a bleed?

A

give them the factor they are missing, 8 or 9

check CBC, platelet, INR, coagulation time, Ptt

stool, intracranial

40
Q

What are GI manifestation of AIDS?

A

chronic diarrhea
fungal infections
wasting syndrome

41
Q

What is PID? What causes PID? What part of the reproductive tract is affected? Complications?

A

reproductive tract infection

STDs–ghonnerra and clamidia

upper

infertility
ectopic pregnancy
abnormal discharge
pain
fever

42
Q

What is multiple myeloma? What electrolyte imbalance does it cause? Why? Complications? Who are typically affected? Where does pain often present first?

A

blood cancer involving an overgrowth of plasma cells

hypercalcemia

bone destruction and releases calcium

renal failure
anemia
bone pain

older people

back ribs

43
Q

What is the screening test for HIV? Confirmation test? Test to evaluate response to meds?

A

Elisa

Western Blot

CD4 and viral load

44
Q

What are nursing interventions for a sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis?

A

O2
Fluids
IV meds
transfusion is Hgb is less than 7

45
Q

What is the pharm management for Cushing’s?

A

taper off steroid meds
ketoconazole (blocks enzymes that help produce the steroids)
Mitotane (if caused by cancer)
diuretic
antihypertensive

46
Q

What is overproduced with leukemias? What does is affect? What precautions should be in place with these clients? At what point are these precautions implemented?

A

WBC–they’re also immature and dysfunctional

It crowds out production of the rest in the bones–platelets and RBCs
pancytopenia
anemia
thrombocytopenia

neutropenic precautions

When neutrophil count drops below 1000

47
Q

What platelet value would elicit thrombocytopenic precautions?

A

platelet less than 50,000

48
Q

What is the nature of gonnorhea? Treatment?

A

discharge
pelvic pain
can result in infertility

antibiotics

49
Q

What are nursing interventions with Addison’s disease? How does their skin present? Why?

A

daily weights
IV fluids, electrolyte balance
VS
corticosteroid relpacement
minercorticorsteroid replacement
treat hyperkalemia
monitor for hypoglycemia

Bronze color

The pituitary is producing excess ACTH to try to get the adrenal to produce cortisol and aldosterone. ACTH also acts on melanocytes

50
Q

Who is endometrial cancer most common in? What might alert to there being cancer? Risk factors? Why?

A

elderly

bleeding after menopause
pelvic pain

nulliparity
early menarche
late menopause

longer period of time for hormonal influence

51
Q

Why is Hodgkin typically easier to treat over non-hodgekins?

A

predictable spread along the lymphatic system, typically happens in younger so age can help with outcome

non-Hodgkin has an unpredictable spread

52
Q

What are manifestations of Addison’s? Biggest risk?

A

bronze, ruddy skin
weight loss
hypotension
hyponatremia
hyperkalemia
weakness
hypoglycemia
hypovolemia/dehydration
N/V/D
abd pain
anorexia

significant hypovolemia that leads to hypovolemic shock

53
Q

What are brachytherapy precautions (radiation treatment)?

A

radiation sign
leave linens in the room until all pellets are accounted for
lead apron
dosimeter badge
no children or pregnant women
visitors only 30 min
rotate caregivers
6’ proximity
client does as much as they can for themselves
if an implant dislodged, pick up with tongs and put in a lead box

54
Q

How does a hemolytic blood transfusion reaction manifest?

A

flank pain
fever
chills
anxiety and feeling of doom
tachypnea
chest pain
hypotension
tachycardia

55
Q

Anemia manifestations? What symptom is specific to B12/pernicious anemia?

A

pallor
mucous membranes pale
sensitivity to cold
fatigue
dizziness
PICA (iron def)
dyspnea

paresthesia

56
Q

What manifestations of a retinal detachment does the client experience? After surgery how must the client lay? Why?

A

bright flashing lights
sudden onset of floaters
“curtain” suddenly covers the vision of the affected eye

prone

Because a gas bubble has been inserted and it needs to sit at the back of the eye, gas rises so the back of the eye needs to be on top.

57
Q

What is polycythemia vera? What happens to the H&H? Clinical manifestations? What is the concerning complication?

A

blood cancer with an overproduction of RBCs

ruddy complexion
splenomeagly
HTN
pruritis

elevated

blood becomes more viscous so they are prone to blood clots/thrombosis

58
Q

If ICP is increasing, what is decreasing? Late sign rising?

A

LOC
Glasgow
RR
HR

HTN

59
Q

What is the rule of 9s? What are some percentages of note?

A

Used to determine TBSA% that is burned
Percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) to identify the extent of injury, calculate medication doses, fluid replacement, and caloric needs

front of legs 9%
back 9%
All the leg 18% each

Thoracic region: 9%
peritoneum: 9%
full front trunk: 18%

genitals 1%

front and back of arms: 4.5% each
total arm: 9%

front of head, back of head: 4.5% each
total head: 9%

60
Q

What is the Parkland formula for fluid replacement when treating burns?

A

4 mL x % burn (TBSA) x pt wt in kg = total fluids (mL) for 24-h​r

½ of the total volume is given over the first 8 hours​ from time the burn occurred and the remaining volume over the next 16 hours

61
Q

What are the initial lab findings with burns?

A

K+ is high
Na+ is low
Hct is high (d/t fluid loss)

62
Q

What IV med treats shock and HF by dilating blood vessels and increasing perfusion to the kidneys?

A

dopamine

63
Q

What is a priority hx finding with ischemic stroke? Why?

A

onset of symptoms

TPA has a 4.5hr window to be administered

64
Q

What inflammatory condition can be exasperated by diets high in purine foods (liver, meats, alcohol)

A

gout

65
Q

What is first-line treatment for RA?

A

methotrexate (DMARD)
NSAIDs
steroids

66
Q

What manifestations can occur with Lupus?

A

fatigue
lymph node enlargement
Raynaud phenomenon
joint swelling
nephritis
pericarditis
rash
respiratory infections

67
Q

What reproductive disorder is associated with insulin resistance and elevated testosterone? Treatment?

A

PCOS

metformin
spironolactone
lose weight and symptoms will improve

68
Q

What is the surgery that relieves urinary obstruction with BPH?

A

TURP

69
Q

When should males check for testicular cancer? Female for breast cancer?

A

after the shower with clean hands

during the shower with soapy hands

70
Q

How does hypothyroidism present? Treatment? What is to be remebered with this med?

A

constipation
decreased mental status
bradycardia
cold intolerance

Levothyroxine

take in the AM
monitor levels to avoid hyperthyroidism

71
Q

What are S/S of hyperthyroidism? Treatment?

A

tachycardia
palpitations
nervousness
unintentional weight loss
bulging eyes, blurry vision
high BP
heat intolerance
calories

PTU

72
Q

What condition presents with head injury, increased thirst and urination?

A

DI

73
Q

What does the client experience with a thyroid storm?

A

extreme symptoms of hyperthyroidism
fever
HTN
adb. pain
tachycardia

74
Q

What is sclerosis of the ossicles? What does it cause? Treament

A

otosclerosis–overgrowth of tissue of the bones in the middle ear

tinnitus and conductive hearing loss

stapedectomy: surgical removal of a portion of the stapes and replacing it with a prosthesis

75
Q
A