Blood/Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

What is anemia? What are the 3 general causes for anemia? What vitamins and minerals can affect RBC production?

A

Lower-than normalhemoglobin/hematocrit levels and fewer-than-normal circulating erythrocytes

Hypo-proliferative: Defective RBC production, bone marrow suppression from disease or chemotherapy

Hemolytic: RBC destruction in the circulation such as sickle cell disease

Bleeding/blood loss: GI blood loss, hemorrhage from trauma, heavy menstruation

iron, folate, Vit. B12 and protein

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2
Q

What are the manifestations of anemia? What are the characteristics of the tongue with megaloblastic anemia? And with iron deficiency anemia?

A

Fatigue and weakness
Dizziness or syncope upon standing/exertion
Paresthesia (Vit. B12 deficiency)
Pallor
Tachycardia
Dyspnea on exertion
Hypotension (if bleeding)
Jaundice if from hemolysis
Sensitivity to cold
Brittle, ridged, concave (spoon-shaped) nails
Angular cheilosis of lips
Pica

Tongue changes
Beefy red, sore = megaloblastic anemia
Smooth, red = iron deficiency anemia

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3
Q

What does the RBC carry? What is the function of hemoglobin? What does the hematocrit indicate?

A

RBC carries hemoglobin molecules

Hemoglobin (Hgb)
Transports O₂ to all tissues
Index of oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

Hematocrit (Hct)
Percentage of RBCs in relation to total blood volume

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4
Q

What is the mean corpuscular volume (MCV)? Why is it important? When does normocytic RBCs present? When does microcytic RBCs present? Macrocytic?

A

size of RBC

helps determine cause of anemia

(normal size) renal disease and anemias cause by chronic disease

(small) iron deficiency

(large) B12 deficiency, folic acid deficiency and alcoholism

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5
Q

What is mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)? How is it quantified?

A

amount of hemoglobin per RBC

normochromic: normal amount
hypochromic: decreased amount

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6
Q

How is iron-related anemia diagnosed? What does a sickle cell test evaluate? When is a bone marrow aspiration indicated? In what location is it commonly performed?

A

Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC): Indirect measure of transferrin
Ferritin: Indicates total iron stores in the body
Low levels indicates iron deficiency anemia
Elevated levels may indicate hemochromatosis
Most accurate test to evaluate iron stores in body

Evaluates sickling of RBCs

Used to diagnose any bone marrow diseases such as aplastic anemia, leukemia

posterior pelvic bone (iliac crest)

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7
Q

What is the most common type of anemia that occurs? What are 7 causes?

A

iron deficiency

inadequate intake of dietary iron
blood loss (GI bleed most common)
menorrhagia
pregnancy
ETOH abuse
IBD
NSAID and aspirin use

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8
Q

When taking supplemental iron enterally, what 2 things can aid in absorption? What are dietary sources of iron?

A

increase intake of Vit C

Do not take with food. Food decreases absorption

meat
seafood
beans
green leafy veggies
dried fruits (raisins, prunes, apricots, etc)

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9
Q

What is aplastic anemia? What cell lines are affected? Result? S/S? How is it treated?

A

rare anemia caused by damage to bone marrow stem cells

all three: RBC, WBC, platelet

pancytopenia: anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia

may not be noticeable at first
infections
fatigue
purpura or petechiae
retinal hemorrhages
splenomegaly

hematopoietic stem cel transplant
immunosuppressive therapy
supportive therapies such as transfusions

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10
Q

what is vitB12 deficiency related to? S/S? B12 causes what 2 dysfunctions? Other than inadequate intake, what can cause B12 deficiency?

A

absence of intrinsic factor causing pernicious anemia

smooth, sore, red tongue
extreme pallor
paresthesia
loss of balance and proprioception
confusion

anemia and neurological symptoms

atrophic gastritis
gastrectomy
disease of the distal ilium such as Crohn’s

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11
Q

How is megaloblastic anemia managed?

A

If folate deficiency: increase folate to 1 mg/day

If B12: supplement or months IM or SQ injection, lifelong supplementation

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12
Q

What is a hemolytic anemia? What is its nature? When do RBCs typically sickle? What disfunction does sickled RBCs cause?

A

sickle cell disease

autosomal recessive
affects African descent

events of illness or hypoxemia

occlusive/ischemia
hemolysis (breakdown of abnormal RBCs in capillaries and spleen)
severe pain d/t ischemia in various sites or organs

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13
Q

what is acute chest syndrome related to sickle cell crisis? Management?

A

emergency caused by ischemia in the lungs and heart

O2
hydration
opioids
possible antibiotics is bacterial infection present

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14
Q

What are clinical manifestations of sickle cell disease/vaso-occlusive crisis? What can happen with the spleen and gallbladder d/t sickle cell?

A

Sickled cells hemolyze rapidly and have a shortened lifespan
Anemia is usually present
Hgb values 5 -11 g/dL
Tachycardia
Cardiomegaly and heart failure
Arrhythmias
Jaundice
All tissues and organs can be affected by thrombosis in the microcirculation
Tissue hypoxia
Tissue damage
Tissue necrosis

gallstones from excessive bilirubin from RBC breakdown
splenomegaly from overwork removing RBCs

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15
Q

What is the medical management of sickle cell disease?

A

aggressive O2, pain control and hydration

hematopoietic stem cell transplant

hydroxyurea: chemo drug increases fetal hemoglobin and decreases the formation of sickled cells

transfusions

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16
Q

What are typical pain control methods for sickle cell?

A

aspirin
NSAIDs
opioids

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17
Q

What is polycythemia vera? What does the hematocrit indicate? S/S? Risk? Treatment?

A

blood cancer that causes bone marrow to make too many red blood cells.

Hct may be > 60%, resulting ina thickened blood

Increased blood viscosity (high RBCs)
Ruddycomplexion
Splenomegaly
Hypertension
Pruritis (high bilirubin)
Erythromelalgia (burning in hands/feet;reddish or bluish skin)

At risk for thrombosis complications and bleeding complications

phlebotomy to reduce RBC count
increase fluid
aspirin
myelosuppressive agents
interferon therapy
managment of symptoms such as pruritis

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18
Q

How are cancers of the blood classified? What are the 3 classifications f hematopoietic cancers?

A

Classified by the specific blood cells involved

Leukemia: Neoplastic proliferation of a certain type of WBC line
Granulocytes (acute myelogenous leukemia, chronic myelogenous leukemia)
Lymphocytes (acute lymphocytic leukemia,chronic lymphocytic leukemia)

Lymphoma: Neoplasms of the lymphoid tissue (Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin)

Multiple myeloma: Malignancy of the plasma cells (B-cell line)

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19
Q

What is leukemia? What does the overgrowth then influence? What then occurs? What is the risk? How is leukemia classified? Which is more aggressive? How is it further differentiated?

A

Hematopoietic malignancy with unregulated proliferation of leukocytes

Overgrowth prevents growth of other blood components (RBCs and platelets)

Anemia and thrombocytopenia

Lack of mature leukocytes leads to immunosuppression
Infection is the leading cause of death

Divided into acute and chronic leukemia.

Acute leukemia is more aggressive

Further classified by the type of WBC
Lymphoid/lymphocytic (ALL, CLL)
Myeloid (AML, CML)

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20
Q

What is the nature of chronic myeloid leukemia? Goal of treatment?

A

Mutation in myeloid stem cell
Unregulated proliferation of myeloid white blood cells

Least common type of leukemia

Goal of treatment is to control the disease with chemotherapy:
Obtaining remission or keeping the client in the chronic phase as long as possible, can often live for many years since chronic
CML is not considered curable in older adults but very treatable with chemotherapy

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21
Q

What is the nature of acute lymphocytic leukemia? Who is at risk, what age? Goal of treatment?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of immature cells (lymphoblasts) from lymphoid stem cell
B-lymphocyte affected in 75% of cases

75% - 80% of cases found in children
Most common childhood leukemia
Boys affected more than girls
Peak incidence is 4 years of age

Respond very well to chemotherapy
Prognosis is very good for children

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22
Q

What are menifectationso f acute lymphocytic leukemia in children? What do the leukemic cells commonly infiltrate causing what kind of symptoms? What will lab levels reflect?

A

bleeding gums, bruising
fatigue
Often found incidentally with routine lab studies or physical exam

other organs
CNS often affected
Cranial nerve palsies
Headaches
Vomiting
Hepatomegaly
Splenomegaly
Bone pain

Elevated WBC cells (lymphocytes),low RBCs and platelets

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23
Q

What is the treatment for acute lymphocytic leukemia in children?

A

chemo
HSCT
tyrosine kinase inhibitor

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24
Q

Who is at risk for chronic lymphotcytic leukemia? Who is it less common in? S/S? Clinical manifestations?

A

older individuals
family disposition
exposure to agent orange

indigenous people
asian descent

bone pain
bleeding
fever
night sweats
weight loss

May be asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally
Lymphocytosis is always present
Lymphadenopathy
Splenomegaly
B symptoms (fever, weight loss, night sweats)
Impaired T-cell function causing life-threatening infection and
Increased susceptibility to second malignancies

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25
Q

What are potential complications for all types of leukemia?

A

serious infection
bleeding
renal dysfunction
infertility
tumor lysis syndrome from treatment
nutritional depletion
fluid and electrolyte imbalances
fatigue
mucositis
depression, anxiety, grief

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26
Q

What is nursing management for leukemia?

A

Preventing and managing infection and bleeding
Managing mucositis
Improving nutritional intake
Easing pain and discomfort
Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance
Improving self-care
Managing anxiety and grief
Providing education

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27
Q

What is lymphoma? Where does it affect? What are the 2 major types and their characteristics?

A

Neoplasms of cells of lymphoid origin

Usually starts in the lymph nodes but can involve lymphoid tissue in the spleen, GI tract, liver, or bone marrow

Two major types:
Hodgkin lymphoma
Younger age, highly treatable
Usually presents with swollen cervical lymph nodes
Weight loss and sweats
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Middle to old age disease
Swollen lymph nodes throughout body
Higher mortality rate than Hodgkin disease

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28
Q

What is the nature of hodgkin lymphoma? Age groups affected? Risk factors?

A

Relatively uncommon
High cure rate
92% - 94% 5-year survival rate for early disease that is localized/regional (stage I or II)

Two peaks of incidence
Ages 15 – 34
After age 60

History of Epstein-Barr virus
Family history of lymphoma
Down syndrome (leukemias and lymphomas)
Chronic immunosuppression

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29
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Hodgkin lymphoma? What are the malignant cells and what do they indicate? Clinical manifestations? Treatment?

A

Initiates in a single node
Predictable spread along the lymphatic system

Malignant cell is the Reed-Sternberg cell
Pathologic hallmark of disease
Essential criterion for diagnosis

Painless cervical lymph node enlargement
Mild anemia
Fatigue
Anorexia
Increased susceptibility to infections

Cure is the goal
Chemotherapy
Radiation therapy
HSCT for clients who have not responded to other treatment modalities

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30
Q

What is the nature of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma? Who is at risk? Prognosis?

A

Group of cancers that originate in lymphoid tissue
85% B-cell lymphocytes
15% T-cell lymphocytes
Unpredictable and erraticspread

More common in men
Incidence increases with age
Average age at diagnosis is 66 years

Prognosis varies with the type of NHL

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31
Q

What are clinical manifestations of non-hodgkin lymphoma? Medical managment?

A

Highly variable symptoms
Night sweats
weight loss
swollen nodes to multiple areas
chronic fevers
fatigue
Other symptoms depend upon enlarged lymph node size and site of the lymph nodes

Goal of treatment: Usually try for remission,sometimes possible cure
Chemotherapy
Potential for tumor lysis syndrome (increased uric acid)
Radiation therapy

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32
Q

What is the patho of multiple myeloma? What can be affected? What is the persistent symptom? What two symptoms should be investigated in older adults to rule out MM?

A

Malignant disease of the plasma cells
Plasma cells accumulate in the bone marrow and crowd out healthy blood cells
Malignant plasma cells produce a specific, nonfunctional immunoglobulin (antibody) that is released into the blood
“M protein”

Immunoglobulins clog up the kidneys frequently resulting in renal failure
Hypercalcemia develops from the bone destruction

Persistent bone pain is a common symptom of the disease

back pain
elevated total protein

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33
Q

What is the treatment of multiple mylenoma?

A

not curable
immunotherapy
chemo
HSCT
biphosphonate
pain mngt
infection control
prevent fractures

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34
Q

What 3 incidents can low platelet counts be related to? Manifestations?

A

Reduced platelet production in the bone marrow (leukemias,chemotherapy)
Increased platelet destruction (Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP))
Increased platelet consumption (Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC))

Bleeding
Petechiae on the skin
Epistaxis
Gingival bleeding
Excessive bleeding from surgery or dental extractions

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35
Q

What is the most common site of uncontrolled bleeding with hemophilia?

A

joints

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36
Q

What is von Willebrand disease? Manifestations? Management?

A

Inherited disorder that affects men and women equally
reduced levels of vW factor
Necessary for factor VIII activation
Needed for platelet activation

Clinical manifestations- vary
Bleeding that involves the mucus membranes
Often not noticed for years
Easy bruising and petechiae
Prolonged bleeding from cuts and surgical sites
Heavy menstrual cycles
Nose bleeds
Bleeding with dental extractions

Replacement therapies of IVvWF or Factor VIII
Desmopressin/DDAVP (synthetic ADH): Prevents bleeding associated with surgical or dental procedures and provides a transient increase in vWF levels/activity in the body

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37
Q

What are differences between hemophilia and vonWillebrand?

A

Bleeding from hemophilia is from lack of a clotting factor in the coagulation cascade, preventing a fibrin clot to form

vWDis a deficiency of a protein called von Willibrand factor, preventing formation of a platelet plug

Hemophilia usually has deep bleeding into joints

vWD has superficial bleeding such as gums, skin, lacerations

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38
Q

What is DIC? Patho? Is it a disease? Causes? Is it an emergency?

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

Systemic syndrome characterized by microthrombi and bleeding (excessive clotting and bleeding)
Altered hemostasis mechanism causes massive clotting in microcirculation
As clotting factors are consumed bleeding occurs

Not a disease but a sign of an underlying disorder

Common causes: sepsis, trauma (hemorrhage, burns, crush injuries), shock, cardiopulmonary arrest, cancer, obstetric complications, toxins, and allergic reactions

Mortality rate can be > 80%

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39
Q

What are clinical manifestations of DIC? What does a nurse need to look for? What do lab values show?

A

progressive decrease in platelet count due to consumption of platelets
and
Extensive thrombosis = Manifestations of thrombosis in the involved organs

subtle bleeding that can develop into obvious hemorrhage
Bleeding from mucous membranes, venipuncture sites, GI and GU tracts
Occult internal bleeding

Lab values reveal decreased platelets,increased INR,decreased fibrinogen,RBC fragments/anemia

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40
Q

What is nursing care for DIC?

A

Early identification of condition usually by thrombotic or hemorrhagic manifestations
Treat underlying cause of the DIC
Implement bleeding precautions
Correct tissue ischemia
Improve oxygenation
Replace fluids and electrolytes
Maintain blood pressure; administer vasopressors
Replacement of coagulation factors and platelets occasionally done (not always)
Administer heparin
Inhibits formation of microthrombi and permits organ perfusion
Provide emotional support

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41
Q

What are 3 other coagulation disorders of not and their patho?

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura: decreased lifespan of platelets, can be treated with corticosteroids or splenectomy

thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura: blood abnormally clots

heparin induced thrombocytopenia: low platelet from heparin treatment

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42
Q

What are indications for heparin use? Routes? Therapeutic range? Nursing care? Antidote?

A

Indications: DVT and PE treatment, acute coronary syndrome, thrombosis prophylaxis

Routes SC (prophylaxis) or IV

TherapeuticaPTT60 to 80 seconds

Assess for signs of bleeding
Monitorplateletcount

Antidote is protamine sulfate

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43
Q

What are indications for use of warfarin? Route? Therapeutic range? Nursing care? Antidote?

A

Indications: DVT, PE, a-fib, mechanical heart valve

Given PO

Therapeutic INR 2-3 (3 to 4.5 for mechanical heart valve)

Monitor for any bleeding

Antidote is Vitamin K

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44
Q

What are 4 therapies for blood disorders and their effects?

A

Splenectomy
Surgical removal of spleen, immunosuppressed following splenectomy, needs vaccines such as pneumococcal, meningococcal, and Hemophilus influenzae (Hib)

Therapeutic apheresis
Blood components are separated and removed via a centrifuge
Blood is returned to client after cleansing

Therapeutic phlebotomy
Removal of certain amount of blood under controlled conditions
Used for hemochromatosis to reduce ferritin and Hg levels

Blood component therapy
Blood separated into primary components: erythrocytes, platelets, plasma
Components that are transfused depend on the condition being treated

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45
Q

What are 3 types of blood transfusions?

A

Standard transfusion
Transfusion from a compatible blood donor

Autologous transfusions
Client’s own blood is collected for future transfusions (elective surgery)
Collected up to 6 weeks prior to surgery
Designated and only used for the client

Intraoperative blood salvage
Type of autologous transfusion
Sterile blood lost from a procedure is saved
Blood is washed (saline), filtered, and returned to client via IV infusion
Administered intraoperatively or postoperatively
Reinfusion must occur within 6 hours of collection

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46
Q

What are nursing actions with transfusion reactions?

A

STOP the transfusion
Remove blood tubing from the IV
Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride
Monitor client and vital signs
Notify primary provider and implement prescribed treatments
Return blood bag and administration set to the lab for testing
Obtain any samples needed
Document event and reaction
Continue to monitor client

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47
Q

What are the S/S of the 5 transfusion reactions? Treatment?

A

febrile: temp, chills, malaise
hold transfusion, acetominophen, fluid, resume slowly

hemolytic: fever, chills, flank pain, N/V, shock, dark urine
Stop, IV fluids

allergic: urticaria, pruritis, hives, rarely anaphylaxis
stop, fluid, antihistamines and corticosteroids, resume slowly

TRALI (transfusion related acute lung injury): dyspnea, hypoxemia, bilateral chest infiltrates, fever, cyanosis, hypotension (can occur within 6hrs of transfusion)
stop, airway support, emergency

TACO (transfusion-associated circulatory overload): dyspnea, edema, JVD, crackles, HTN, anxiety
slow or stop blood, O2, diuretics, morphine

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48
Q

What is a more complete list of acute hemolytic blood reaction symptoms?

A

Fever
Chills
Low-back pain
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Flushing
Nausea
Chest tightness or pain
Tachypnea/dyspnea
Anxiety/ impending sense of doom
Hemoglobinuria

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49
Q

What blood product has a greater risk of bacteria forming? Why? How can a bacterial reaction be prevented?

A

platelets

stored at room temp

transfuse within 4 hours

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50
Q

What is a transfusion alternative that stimulates bone marrow production of RBCs? Route and frequency? Indications? Monitor?

A

Epoetin alfa

Administered SC or IV
Usually given 3 times a week to stimulate bone marrow

Commonly used to treat anemia in clients with acute renal failure

Can dangerously elevate BP due to increased hemoglobin levels
Monitor for an increase in blood pressure
Monitor Hgb and Hct twice per week
Monitor for cardiovascular event if Hgb increases too rapidly (> 1g/dL in 2 weeks)

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51
Q

What is the disease pricess of cancer? What is a tumor? What is mestatasis? what is the difference between malignant and benign?

A

cell is transformed by genetic mutation of cellular DNA

abnormal collection of cells, not all tumors are cancers (some are benign)

Metastasis: Abnormal cells invade surrounding tissue and gain access to lymph and blood vessels carrying them to other areas of the body

Malignant cancer cells: cells or processes that are characteristic of cancer, such as metastasis,local and distant tissue destruction,unregulated growth
Benign cancer cells: cells that are not cancerous, don’t metastasize, only grow locally, no local tissue invasion or destruction,don’trequire chemo/radiation therapy, sometimes surgery

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52
Q

What are the 3 malignant processes that makes cells carcinogenic?

A

cellular proliferation: uncontrolled growth, ability to metastasize, no normal apoptosis

cell characteristics: altered shape, structure or metabolism

metastasis: lymphatic and/or hematogenous spread

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53
Q

What are examples of carcinigenic agents/factors?

A

Viruses and bacteria: HPV, hepatitis B & C, Epstein-Barr, HIV, Helicobacter pylori

Physical factors: Sunlight, radiation, chronic irritation

Chemical agents: Tobacco, Asbestos, pesticides, alcohol, air pollution

Lifestyle factors: Obesity, insufficient physical activity
Diet high in fat, red meat, processed meat, preservatives, additives, and low in fiber

Hormones

Air pollution

Sexual lifestyles

Race, genetic, and familial factors

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54
Q

What are the 5 different classifications of cancer cells and examples?

A

Carcinoma: Epithelial tissue (glandular or squamous)
80% - 90% of all cancers
Examples: skin, GI tract lining, lung, breast, prostate

Sarcoma: Connective or supportive tissues
Examples: bone, cartilage, fibrous tissue, muscle tissue
Osteosarcoma or chondrosarcoma for example

Leukemia
Hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow
Examples:
WBCs: AML, CML, ALL OR CLL
RBCs: Polycythemia vera

Lymphoma
Develop from lymphocytes

Myeloma
Plasma cells (initially B-cells)

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55
Q

What are examples of primary cancer prevention? Secondary and examples of screenings? Tertiary?

A

Immunizations
Healthy diet (limit alcohol, sugar, processed meats)
Avoid tobacco
Maintain healthy body weight
Exercise
Sunscreen
Breast feed infants exclusively for the first 6 months of life
Chemoprevention: use of medications or other substances to disrupt cancer development

Cancer screening to identify precancerous lesion and early-stage cancer
Self-examinations at home
Mammogram annually, starting at age 45
Clinical breast exam every 3 years for ages 20 to 39, annually for 40 and up
Colonoscopy starting at age 45
Fecal occult annually
Prostate screening annually, at age 50 (40-45 for those at higher risk)
Pap test start at age 25, then every 3 to 5 years

Monitoring for and preventing recurrence of the primary cancer
Screening for the development of second malignancies in cancer survivors

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56
Q

What is tumor staging? How is it categorized?

A

Staging determines the size of the tumor, the existence of local invasion, lymph node involvement, and distant metastasis
T = anatomic size of the primary tumor
N = extent of lymph node involvement
M = presence or absence of metastasis

Staging
0: Cancer in situ, non-invasive
1: Localized, within the tissue of origin
2: Limited local spread
3: Extensive local and regional spread
4: Metastasis

57
Q

What is tumor grading? What is differentiation? How are they graded?

A

Pathologic classification of tumor cells
Numeric value from I – IV (degree of cell differentiation)

Differentiation: The degree to which the tumor cells retain the characteristics and function of the tissue of origin
 Well-differentiated: Tumor cells closely resemble the tissue of origin in structure and function
Poorly differentiated or undifferentiated: Tumor cells that do not resemble the tissue of origin in structure or function

Grading
X: Cannot be determined
1: Well-differentiated (most normal)
2: Cells more abnormal, moderately differentiated
3: Poorly differentiated (very abnormal)
4: Undifferentiated, cells very immature, grow quickly and spread, poor prognosis

58
Q

What are 3 different surgical options with tumors?

A

prophylactic: removal of non-vital tissue/organs before developing cancer

palliative: relieve symptoms, may not be a cure

Reconstructive: improve function or cosmetic effect

59
Q

What is the nature of radiation therapy? What is the goal of neoadjuvant radiation? What is localized radiation therapy? What tissue is most responsive to radiation?

A

About 60% of clients with cancer receive radiation therapy
Cure, control, palliation

Neoadjuvant: Administered to reduce tumor size in order to facilitate surgical resection

Localized therapy
Only tissues within the treatment field are affected

Body tissues that undergo frequent cell division are most sensitive to radiation therapy (skin, GI, bone marrow, mucosa)

60
Q

What is external beam radiation therapy? What is internal radiation therapy?

A

Most used form of radiation therapy
Total radiation dose depends on sensitivity of target tissues, tumor size, radiation tolerance of surrounding normal tissues
Total dose is delivered over several weeks in daily doses
Client is not radioactive*
Skin is marked with tattoo to guide beam

Internal radiation (brachytherapy)
Placement of radioactive sources within or immediately next to cancer site
Provides highly targeted, intense dose of radiation
Temporary or permanent
High dose or low dose
Causes the body fluids and waste to be contaminated with radiation
Most clients remain in the hospital until therapy is complete

61
Q

What precautions need to be implemented with general radiation therapy? Brachytherapy precautions?

A

limit time
visitors remain 6’ away
use lead barriers
wear dosimeter badge

Private room with door closed
Radioactive sign on the door
Wear a lead apron during client care
Wear dosimeter badge
Records personal amount of exposure
Precautions if implant is dislodged
Don’t touch!
Use tongs to place radioactive substance in container
Rotate care givers
Encourage client self-care
All linens and dressings kept in client’s room until radiation source is removed
Ensure they are not lost
Limit visitors
Time limit of 30 minutes
Maintain distance of 6 feet
No pregnant visitors
No children

62
Q

What are discharge precautions with temporary brachytherapy? Permanent brachytherapy?

A

High-dose series
Radioactive material implanted for a short period of time (minutes)
Once the radioactive material is removed, the client is not radioactive
No precautions needed
High-dose temporary implant
Client remains hospitalized for the duration of treatment
Time, distance, shielding

Client may emit very low levels of radiation for weeks to months
Avoid pregnant women and children
Strain urine for the first 7-10 days to catch any seeds that may inadvertently pass
Notify provider

63
Q

What are manifestations of radiation toxicity? Skin?Bone marrow? GI? General systemic?

A

Most often localized in region being irradiated
Early toxicities usually begin within 2 weeks of starting treatment

Skin: Alopecia, Erythema. Wet or dry desquamation

Bone marrow: Pancytopenia

Epithelial lining of GI tract
Stomatitis/mucositis
Xerostomia (dry mouth)
Loss/change of taste
N/V/D

Systemic
Fatigue
Malaise
Anorexia

64
Q

What is chemotherapy? Effect?

A

Administration of systemic or local cytotoxic antineoplastic medications that damage the cell’s DNA or destroy rapidly dividing cells
Causes harm to healthy, rapidly proliferating cells

Toxic effects (stomatitis, diarrhea/vomiting, hair loss, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia)

65
Q

What is chemotherapy extravasation? Why is chemo particularly harmful with infiltration? Nursing actions?

A

Extravasation: Leakage from a vein into surrounding tissue

Vesicant: Medication that causes inflammation, tissue damage and potential necrosis of tendons, muscles, nerves, and blood vessels if extravasation occurs

Nursing actions for IV infiltration
Follow hospital policy
Stop infusion
Administer antidote
Notify provider
Prevention is key!
Check IV patency first prior to chemo administration

66
Q

How do healthcare workers protect themselves from chemotherapy exposure?

A

Wear gloves designated for handling chemo
Long-sleeved disposable gowns

Proper disposal in closed-system, puncture- and leak-proof containers labeled “hazardous: chemotherapy contaminated waste”

Monitor for manifestations of exposure
N/V
Skin & eye irritation
Nasal mucosal ulcerations
Reproductive issues- trouble conceiving

67
Q

Antineoplastics affect what systems? What does docorubicin specifically affect? Vincristine? cyclophosphamide?

A

GI
hematopoietic
fatigue
cognitive impairment
reproductive

cardiopulmonary

neurologic

renal

68
Q

What are methods for dealing with stomatitis?

A

Rinse the mouth with 0.9% sodium chloride, room-temperature water, or salt and soda water (not glycerin or alcohol based)
Perform gentle flossing and brushing (soft-bristle toothbrush or foam swab)
Rinse mouth before and after meals
Take medications to control infections and decrease pain
Choose soft, bland foods and supplements that are high in calories
Ice cream, mashed potatoes, scrambled eggs, cooked cereal, bananas
Avoid salty, spicy, acidic, tough, or hard foods
Avoid drinking alcohol and using tobacco
Drink at least 2 L of water a day

69
Q

When should bleeding precautions be implemented? When should neutropenic precations be initiated? What is a normal ANC? What are neutropenic precautions?

A

platelet count less than 20,000-50,000

ANC less than 1000

2500-5000

Private room with reverse isolation
Handwashing
Place a mask on client during transport
No live plants, stagnant water, or contaminated equipment
Keep dedicated equipment (BP, thermometer, stethoscope) in client’s room
Avoid invasive procedures unless necessary
Prevent exposure to people with known infections

70
Q

What is renal toxicity from chemotherapy? What is a prophylactic? What should the nurse monitor in terms of adverse cardiac response?

A

rapid cell lysis from chemo causes increase in uric acid which is hard on the kidney

allopurinol (gout med)

monitor EF with echo
monitor for s/s of HF: JVD, SOB, crackles
monitor for pneumonia: SOB, chills, fever, cough

71
Q

What are nursing actions to manage chemo induced peripheral neuropathy?

A

Monitor for loss of sensation in hands and feet, orthostatic hypotension, loss of taste, and constipation
Early manifestations include numbness, tingling, and redness
Teach client how to prevent injuries
Inform the client about risk for ED and treatment options
Protect the skin due to loss of sensation
Insect the feet daily

72
Q

What is HSCT? Use? Types? What is client at high risk for until graft establishes?

A

Hemopoietic stem cell transplant

Primarily used for hematologic cancers

Types of HSCT
Allogenic: From donor other than the client
May be a family member
Autologous: From the client
Syngeneic: From an identical twin
Myeloablative: Clients receive high-dose chemotherapy and occasionally total body irradiation Bone marrow cells destroyed

sepsis
bleeding

73
Q

What are 3 other notable cancer treatment modalities other than chemo and radiation?

A

Immunotherapy
Use of medications or biochemical mediators to stimulate or suppress parts of the immune system to kill cancer cells
Example: monoclonal antibodies

Cancer vaccines (HPV)

Targeted therapies
Example: monoclonal antibodies
Target specific parts of cells to kill or prevent the spread of cancer cells
Less negative effects on healthy cells

74
Q

What is superior vena cava syndrome? Complication? What cancers is it commonly associated with? Manifestations? Nursing interventions? Treatment?

A

Oncologic emergency
Results from obstruction of venous return and engorgement of vessels from the head and upper body

Untreated may lead to facial edema and cerebral edema

Most often associated with metastases from breast or lung cancers

Clinical manifestations
Dyspnea
Erythema and edema of the upper body and face
Epistaxis

Nursing interventions
Position in high-Fowler position to facilitate lung expansion

Treatment
High-dose radiation for emergency temporary relief
IV corticosteroids to decrease swelling

75
Q

What is tumor lysis syndrome? Prophylactic treatment? Manifestations? Complications?

A

Oncologic emergency from the chemotherapy
Occurs when rapidly destroyed tumors release cellular content into the bloodstream faster than the body can process them

Pretreated with allopurinol to reduce uric acid levels to prevent gout

Clinical manifestations
GI distress
Flank pain
Muscle cramps and weakness
Seizures
Mental status changes

Complications
Acute kidney injury
Cardiac dysrhythmias
Hyperkalemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hyperuricemia
Hypocalcemia

76
Q

What is the medical management of tumor lysis syndrome?

A

IVF
fluid intake of 3L/day to flush out metabolites
consume alkaline fluids to lower uric acid
diuretics
allopurinol for uric acid
sodium polystyrene for potassium
hemodialysis/ICU

77
Q

What is spinal cord compression in terms of complication to cancer? Manifestations? Nursing actions?

A

Oncologic emergency
Caused by metastases to epidural space and spinal cord resulting in compression
Most often with cancers that metastasize to bone

Manifestations
Changes in sensation, muscle strength
Reduced DTRs
Worsening back pain
Bowel or bladder changes

Nursing Actions
Administer high-dose corticosteroids to reduce inflammation around spinal cord
Prepare the client for possible radiation therapy or emergency surgery

78
Q

In relation to cancer what is the electolyte imblance of concern? What cancers is it a complication of? Interventions?

A

hypercalcemia
Oncologic emergency

Complication of breast, lung, head and neck cancers; leukemia and lymphoma; multiple myelomas and bony metastasis of any cancer
Tumor cells release growth hormones that mimic PTH

Medical and nursing interventions
Identify at-risk client
Increase daily fluid intake to 2 - 4 liters
Administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV, loop diuretics, glucocorticoids (decreases absorption in gut), antiemetics, or phosphates

79
Q

What is the most common cancer in the US? What are the 3 classifications?

A

skin

basal cell
squamous cell
malignant melanoma

80
Q

What is the patho of basal cell carcinoma? Nature? Growth rate?

A

80% of all skin cancers in the U.S.
Rarely causes death
Twice as common in men than in women
Usually appears on sun exposed areas of the body

Begins as a small waxy nodule with rolled, translucent, pearly borders
May develop central ulceration and crusting as it grows (called a rodent ulcer)

Rarely metastasizes to other area
Recurrence is common

81
Q

What is the patho of a squamous cell carcinoma? Growth rate? Nature?

A

Second most common skin cancer in the U.S.
2-3x more common in men than women
Less aggressive than melanoma but responsible for at least 15,000 deaths yearly

Invasive carcinoma
Metastasizes in 4% - 8% of cases
Malignant proliferation that often arises from actinic keratosis (like rough sandpaper)

Usually appears on sun damaged skin
Rough, thickened, scaly tumor that may be asymptomatic or may bleed

82
Q

What is the medical management of BCC and SCC skin cancers?

A

Diagnosis made through biopsy
Surgical excision: Mohs,Most accurate, Conserves healthy tissue
Electrosurgery
Cryosurgery
Topical chemotherapy agents
Prevention of recurrence

83
Q

What is the patho of melanoma? Nature? Prognosis?

A

White Americans are 20x more at risk for than Black Americans
Average age of diagnosis is 65 years
Change in a nevus (mole) or new growth on the skin

Typically dark, red or blue/purple colored, and irregular in shape
May have itching, rapid growth, ulceration, or bleeding

Diagnosis made through biopsy
Depth of melanoma and spread to lymph nodes determines prognosis
Tumor staged using the TNM classification system

84
Q

What are the ABCDE of skin cancer?

A

A: asymmetry
B: border
C: color
D: diameter
E: evolving

85
Q

What is the medical management of melanoma?

A

Surgery
Tumor removal
Reconstructive surgery
Chemotherapy
Radiation therapy
Client education
Clients diagnosed with melanoma have increased risk of developing a secondary melanoma

86
Q

When is a coloscopy and cervical biopsy indicated? How is it performed? How are cancerous cells managed if found? When is the optimum to perform this kind of biopsy/excision?

A

Usually performed if the PAP test reveals atypical cells/precancerous
Examination of the tissues of the vagina and cervix using a microscope

Can perform endocervical curettage if lesions are present
Cone biopsy
Excise a cone-shaped sample of tissues to remove harmful cells

Can destroy cells using cryosurgery, lasers, or loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)

Best done during the early phase of menstrual cycle (cervix is less vascular)

87
Q

What are client teaching point with a colposcopy/cervical biopsy?

A

May experience temporary discomfort and cramping
Rest 24 hours after the procedure
Do not insert anything into the vagina (sexual intercourse, creams, tampons) for 2 weeks
Do not lift heavy objects for 2 weeks
Avoid aspirin
Report excessive bleeding, fever, and foul-smelling drainage to the provider

88
Q

What is an endometrial biopsy? Used to diagnose what? Client education about the procedure?

A

Endometrial biopsy is theremoval of a small piece of tissue from the endometrium
Procedure that helps diagnose potential causes of abnormal uterine bleeding

Used for the diagnosis of endometrial hyperplasia or uterine cancer

Procedure:
Rule out pregnancy before
Empty bladder prior to procedure
Administer analgesia as needed
Obtain a consent
Explain there will be some discomfort during procedure
Vaginal spotting can occur for 1-2 days after (avoid intercourse or inserting anything into the vagina until resolved)
Report fevers, purulent discharge, heavy vaginal bleeding, or severe pain

89
Q

What is a hysterosalpingogram? What does it evaluate? Nursing considerations for pre, intra and post procedure?

A

A test used to visualize the cervix, uterus, and fallopian tubes using contrast dye and x-rays

Evaluates for infertility,fibroids, or tumors

Pre-procedure: confirm last menstrual date, iodine allergy, consent form,ensure client voids, prepare for pelvic exam
Procedure: Remain with client for support, arrange needed equipment
Post-procedure: minimal bleeding and cramping to be expected;administeranalgesics; report heavy bleeding, fevers, or purulent vaginal discharge

90
Q

What is a cystocele? Fisk factors? Findings? Diagnostics?

A

Cystocele:
Weakening of the anterior vaginal wall resulting in bladder bulging into vagina

Risks factors: Obesity, old age, multiple pregnancies, vaginal injury atchildbirth, family history

Can be palpated by the client or HCP within the vagina
Findings: Stress incontinence,recurrent UTIs,vaginal fullness, painful intercourse, painful pelvic pain

Diagnostics: pelvic exam reveals anterior vaginal bulging, bladder ultrasound may show residual urine

91
Q

What is a rectocele? Risk factors? findings? Diagnostics?

A

Weakening of the posterior vaginal wall resulting in the rectum bulging into vagina

Risk factors: Obesity, old age, constipation, family history, complicated vaginal birth

Findings: constipation,feeling of vaginal fullness, painful intercourse

Diagnostics: vaginal exam reveals posterior bulging

92
Q

What are 4 therapeutic treatments for cystocele and rectocele? And 2 more invasive treatment and instructions?

A

Intravaginal estrogen: Treats/prevents atrophy of vaginal tissue

Bladder training: Regular urination every 2-3 hours if incontinence is present

Vaginal pessary: A vaginally-inserted device to provide support

Kegel exercises: specific exercises to strengthen the pelvic muscles
Contract circumvaginal and perirectal muscles, increase contractions to 10 seconds; relaxation for 10 seconds; perform 30-80x/daily; relax abdominal wall; perform laying, sitting, or standing

Anterior colporrhaphy (cystocele)
Vaginal or laparoscopic procedure to tighten pelvic muscles, supports bladder
Monitor for infections,avoid straining, lifting (over 5 pounds), sitting or walking for long periods, and sexual intercourse for 6 weeks
Posterior colporrhaphy (rectocele)
Vaginal or laparoscopic procedure to tighten pelvic muscles
Monitoring and restrictions similar as anterior colporrhaphy

93
Q

What is the patho of fibrocytic breast disease? Symptoms? Diagnostics? Treatment?

A

Occurs inpremenopausal women, often young adults
Can also develop with the initiation of hormone replacement therapy (post-menopausal)

Symptoms: tender breast lumps/cysts,especially upper outer breast

Confirmed with breast ultrasound that reveals multiple cysts
Fine needle aspiration can be done to reduce tender cysts
Mammograms often not useful in young adults due to breast density

Treatment: reduce salt prior to menses, avoid caffeine, supportive bra,ibuprofen/acetaminophen,warm/cool compresses, oral birth control pills, and diuretics

94
Q

Where are the most common sites of metastasis with breast cancer?

A

bone
lung
brain
liver

95
Q

Risk factors for breast cancer?
What risk factors for breast cancer are NOT supported by evidence? Protective measures?

A

Older age, family hx, early menarche, late menopause, HT/BCP, radiation, obesity, high-fat diet, alcohol intake, smoking
BRCA1 and BRCA2- inherited mutations

Silicone breast implants, antiperspirants, underwire bra,
abortion

breast feeding for 1 year
physical activity
healthy body weight

96
Q

What are 2 non-invasive breast cancers?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ: cancer cells in duct without invasion to surrounding tissue

lobular carcinoma: abnormal cells in milk-producing glands

97
Q

Whate are 2 invasive breast cancers and manifestations?

A

infiltrating ductal carcinoma
Lump
Skin dimpling
Edematous thickening
Pitting of breast skin (orange peel)

inflammatory breast cancer
Seldom presents as a lump
May not be present on mammogram
Clinical manifestations
Swelling
Redness
Breast pain

98
Q

What are 2 early less-invasive surgical modalities of breast cancer managment? How are they conducted?

A

Sentinel lymph node biopsy
First node that receives drainage
from primary tumor
Use IV contrast
Pathology completed when in surgery. If + for cancer, then axillary node dissection is needed

Lumpectomy
Breast conserving
Excise tumor while achieving acceptable cosmetic result

99
Q

What are the difference between 3 more invasive sugical modalities for breast cancer?

A

Total mastectomy
Removal of the breast and areolar tissue (no axillary nodes)

Radical mastectomy
Removal of breast tissue, nipple/areola, some axillary nodes, and muscle

Modified radical mastectomy
Muscle is left intact, lymph nodes removed

100
Q

What is lymphedema? S/S? Management?

A

surgical complication of mastectomy
Chronic swelling d/t interrupted lymph circulation
Protein-rich fluid in the interstitial space

S/S: Painful swelling, weakness, shoulder pain, tingling sensation in arm & shoulder

No BP, injections/IV, blood draws in affected limb (place a sign above the client’s bed)
Compressive arm sleeves used to reduce edema

101
Q

What is nursing management post mastectomy?

A

Increase HOB to 30°
Support operative arm(s) on a pillow
Lie on the unaffected side to help relieve pain
Wear a sling when OOB
Offer emotional support and encourage the client to express feelings related to body image
Drain care (usually left in for 1 to 3 weeks)
Perform early hand exercises to prevent lymphedema and improve ROM

102
Q

What are 3 nonsurgical medical management of breast cancer? Med that suppresses breast cancer growth? Risk of this med?

A

Hormonal therapy
Most effective in cancer cells with estrogen receptors that can be inhibited

Chemotherapy/Radiation
Augment or replace mastectomy
Chemotherapy includes a combination of several medications
External beam or brachytherapy with radioactive seeds

Target therapy
Most effective for breast cancer with HER2/neu gene
Trastuzumab & pertuzumab are signal transduction inhibitors
They inhibit proteins that are signals for cancer cells to grow

Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)— tamoxifen
Used for those who are high risk for breast cancer or have advanced breast cancer
Suppresses the growth of cancer cells

Tamoxifen increases the risk of endometrial cancer (vaginal bleeding), DVT/PE (leg swelling or SOB); common side effect is hot flashes, reduced libido by creating menopause

103
Q

What are risk factors for male breast cancer?

A

age 68+
low testosterone
BRCA1, BRCA2
Klinefleter syndrome
gynecomastia

104
Q

What is the patho of ovarian cancer? Diagnostics? Risks? Manifestations?

A

Leading cause of death in female reproductive cancers
Frequently metastatic at the time of diagnosis
BCPs and pregnancy reduce the risk of ovarian cancer
Tumor markers: CA-125, alpha-fetoprotein,hCG

Diagnosis is with pelvic ultrasound, CT scan, and tissue biopsy

Risks:
Early menarche and late menopause increase risk(more cycles)
Nulliparity (more cycles)
Family history of ovarian, breast cancer, or colon cancer
BRCA-1 or BRCA-2 gene mutations
Diabetes mellitus
Endometriosis

Findings: (non-specific)
Abdominal/pelvic pain, abdominal bloating, abdominal mass, weight loss, vaginal bleeding, urinary urgency/frequency

105
Q

What is the patho of endometrial cancer? Risk factors? Findings? Treatment?

A

Most common female reproductive cancer
Usually occurs in elderly females (prolonged estrogen exposure)
Avoid unopposed estrogen therapyif client has an intact uterus

Risk factors:
Personal history of breast or ovarian cancer, or PCOS
Diabetes mellitus
Obesity (estrogen production by fat cells)
Estrogen replacement therapy (need progesterone if woman has a uterus)
Nulliparity
Use of tamoxifen
Smoking
Late age at menopause

Findings: irregular or post-menopausal bleeding,pelvic/back pain
Diagnosed by endometrial biopsy,pelvic ultrasound, increased CA-125 and alpha-fetoprotein

Treatment: hysterectomy, brachytherapy/external beam radiation, chemotherapy

106
Q

What is the patho of genital herpes? Instructions? Findings? Diagnostics? Treatment?

A

A recurrent lifelong viral infection
More than 87% of infected individuals are unaware
An STD that also may be transmitted by contact and that may be transmitted when the carrier is asymptomatic (viral shedding)

Avoid sexual intercourse with active herpes,condoms the rest of the month

Causes painful itching and burning herpetic lesions
Outbreaks are associated with stress, sunburn, dental work, inadequate rest, and inadequate nutrition

Herpes viral culture- fluid from lesion is collected
Polymerase chain reaction (PRC) test- identifies genetic material from lesion
Antibody test- ELISA blood test

Treatment
Antivirals (acyclovir) to reduce length of time to recovery
Pregnant women need a cesarean delivery if active herpes

107
Q

What is the patho of syphilis? 3 stages? Diagnostics?

A

Painless ulcer on genitals, rectum, or mouth
Bacterial disease with 3 stages

Primary stage is a painless sore (chancre)
All stages can be treated with penicillin
Secondary stage occurs with body rash including palms and soles
Latent stage occurs with rash resolving
Tertiary syphilis can occur years later, affecting the blood vessels,brain,eyes,heart,nerves, and joints

VDRL is the serologic screening test
A treponemal antibody test is confirmatory

108
Q

What is the patho of chlamydia? Complications? Treatment?

A

Common bacterial STI
Clear vaginal or penile discharge, dysuria

Many women are unaware of infection- asymptomatic
Can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease/infertility
Can result in ectopic pregnancies in the future

Treated with antibiotics
Standard STI precautions
Use condoms
Limit sexual partners
Obtain screening test

109
Q

What is the patho of gonorrhea? Findings? Complications? Treatment?

A

A bacterial infection affecting the urethra, vaginal, rectum, or throat

Copious penile discharge,painful urination, vaginal discharge, and pelvic pain

Can result in infertility in men and women

Standard STI precautions
Condoms, limit partners, testing for condition

110
Q

What is PID? Patho? Complications? Common causes? S/S?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Infection of the upper female reproductive tract
Usually develops from a bacterial infection in the vagina or cervix

Can result in scarring, infertility, and abscess formation
Increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy and chronic pelvic pain later

Gonorrheal and chlamydial organisms are common causes
Some are associated with more than one infection

S/S (asymptomatic, mild to severe)
Fever
Pain and tenderness (lower abdomen)
Post coital bleeding
Cervical motion tenderness
Abnormal vaginal discharge

111
Q

What is treatment for PID?

A

Mix of broad-spectrum antibiotics
Cephalosporin injection (ceftriaxone), followed by PO doxycycline andmetronidazole
Treat sexual partners
Acetaminophen and ice packs
No future tampon use
No baths
May need surgery to remove adhesions or drain abscesses if severe

112
Q

What is the patho of PCOS (polycystic ovarian syndrome? Findings?

A

Dysfunction of the hypothalamic-pituitary ovarian axis
Complex disorder, not well understood
Highly associated with insulin resistance
Elevated levels of testosterone
Common disorder affecting 10 to 47% of women in the U.S.

Two of the three criteria must be met for diagnosis
Hyperandrogenism (increased facial hair)
Chronic anovulation (irregular cycles)
Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound

113
Q

Treatment for PCOS?

A

Weight loss
Eat food with a low-glycemic index
Medications
Metformin- regulates periods & helps with weight loss
Spironolactone- reduces hirsutism symptoms of excessive hair
Oral contraceptives
Infertility
Clomiphene citrate
Surgery
To remove cysts

114
Q

What are uterine fibroids? Findings? Treatment?

A

Benign smooth muscle tumors of the uterus
Very common- 70-80% of women over 50 years old have fibroids

Can be asymptomatic or cause abnormal, heavy/long menstrual bleeding and abdominal pain
Complications
Iron deficiency anemia
Infertility
Miscarriage

Treatment
Myomectomy
Hysterectomy

115
Q

What are 5 types of hysterectomies and their differences?

A

Total hysterectomy: uterus and cervix are removed

Subtotal hysterectomy: uterus removed; cervix is not

Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy: ovaries and fallopian tubes are removed

Panhysterectomy: uterus, cervix, ovaries, and fallopian tubes are removed

Radical hysterectomy: uterus, cervix, upper part of the vagina, and adjacent tissue including lymph nodes are removed

116
Q

What is post-op hysterectomy nursing care?

A

Indwelling urinary catheter inserted intraoperatively which is kept in place for 24 hr.

Monitor vaginal bleeding
Excessive bleeding 1 pad saturation in 4 hr.

Priority assessment
Monitor for signs of infection, atelectasis, paralytic ileus, wound dehiscence, DVT, bleeding, and hypovolemia

117
Q

Patient education for hysterectomy?

A

Well-balanced diet high in protein and vitamin C to promote wound healing

If ovaries have been removed
Menopausal manifestations
HT may be an option

Vaginal atrophy can cause itching and dryness- instruct client to use artificial lubrication

Activity restrictions including no sexual intercourse for 4 to 6 weeks

Avoid tampons
Report symptoms of infection
Report symptoms of DVT

118
Q

What are 4 menstrual disorders and their dysfunctions?

A

Menorrhagia excessive menstrual bleeding (amount and duration), possibly with clots, saturate more than one tampon or pad per hour

Metrorrhagia bleeding between menstrual periods, common in adolescents and those entering menopause

Dysmenorrhea painful menstruation

Amenorrhea is the absence of menses, can indicate pregnancy, thyroid disorder, or other disorder

119
Q

What is PMDD?

A

Premenstrual dystrophic disorder (PMDD) severe form of PMS, unable to carry out daily activities

120
Q

What is the patho of endometiosis? Complications? Manifestations? Treatment?

A

Overgrowth of endometrial tissue that extends outside of the uterus into the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and pelvis

Results in bleeding, inflammation, and scarring
infertility

Manifestations
Pelvic pain and painful intercourse (dyspareunia)
Menorrhagia
Pain with defecation
Depressed mood

Treatment
Manage pain and limit the progression of implants
Hormone therapy/BCP, steroids, GnRH agonists (see next slide)
Pain is often unresponsive to NSAIDS
Surgical options
Severe cases
Excision of endometrial implants and adhesions

121
Q

What is the pharmeseutical treatmen for endometriosis? Route? Complication?

A

Nafarelin
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist that decreasesovarian function(suppressed releaseof estrogen)
Results in medical-induced menopause

Administration is 1 spray into one nostril in the morning; 1 spray into the opposite nostril in the evening

May lead to rhinitis and nasal irritation

122
Q

What are potential complications associated with perimenopause and what should one do to mitigate them?

A

Osteoporosis
Increase calcium and vitamin D intake
Avoid caffeine and tobacco

Coronary artery disease
Avoid obesity, tobacco, alcohol
Treat hyperlipidemia, HTN, and DM since heart disease increases at menopause

123
Q

What is the patho of menopause? Diagnostics?

A

Permanent physiologic cessation of menses associated with declining ovarian function
Complete when there is no menses for 12 months
Natural or surgically induced

Laboratory testing
FSH/LH increased
Pelvic exam and pap to r/o cancers

124
Q

What are risks associated with estrogen therapy? Benefits? Who is it contraindicated in?

A

CAD
MI
DVT
Stroke
breast, ovarian, endometrial cancer

supresses hot flashes
prevents atrophy of vaginal tissue
reduses risk of osteoporosis

Hx of breat cancer
Hx of DVT
impaired liver functions
uterine cancer
undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

125
Q

What is PSA? What does it indicate? What value requires further monitoring? What is a DRE?

A

prostate specific antigen test

Protein produced by prostate that is found in the blood; sensitive but not specific to cancer
Increased PSA levels may indicate cancer, BPH, acute urinary retention, acute prostatitis; UTI can elevate PSA for up to 6 weeks

PSA value >4 ng/mL requires further evaluation

Digital rectal exam

126
Q

What 2 diagnostic tests are used to detect prostate cancer?

A

EPCA2 greater than 30 ng/mL
transrectal ultrasound

127
Q

What diagnostic test can determine penile dysfunction? what does it determine? Client instructions?

A

penile doppler ultrasonography

blood flow

hold ED meds 2 days prior

128
Q

What is BPH? Patho? Risk facotrs?

A

begnign prostatic hyperplasia

BPH-prostate enlarges and causes urinary symptoms
Affects half of men over age 60 and 90% of men over age 85

Risk factors:
Increased age
Smoking
ETOH use
Sedentary lifestyle
Obesity
Western diet (high-fat, high-protein, high-carbs; low-fiber)
DM
Heart disease

129
Q

What meds can aid in restablshing urine flow with BPH and their MOAs and AEs?

A

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)-lowering medications (finasteride)
Decreases the amount of testosterone produced in the prostate gland decreasing the size of the prostate
It can take 6 months for any therapeutic effect, not immediate at all
Adverse effects: impotence, gynecomastia, decreased libido since blocks testosterone
Teratogenic to male fetus (can be absorbed through the skin), women should handle medication with gloves

Alpha-blocking agents (tamsulosin)
Relaxes the bladder outlet and prostate gland stronger flow
Educate the client to change position slowly (orthostatic hypotension)
Works immediately to relax the valve

130
Q

What is TURP? Method? Post-op nursing care? Client education?

A

transurethral resection of the prostate
releves urinary obstruction

resectoscope inserted in urethra and trims away prostetic tissue

Client will have a three-way catheter
Allows for continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) to keep the catheter free of obstruction
Adjust rate to keep the output pink or lighter (NEVER place on IV pump)
If irrigation become bright-red (ketchup), increase CBI rate
For obstructions: turn off the CBI and hand irrigate with 50 mL syringe of irrigation solution
Record the amount of irrigation fluid instilled (large amounts) and the amount of return. The difference equals UOP
The catheter may be taped tightly to the leg to create traction to prevent bleeding
Catheter has a large balloon- 30 to 45 mL
Client may have a continuous urge to urinate
Instruct the client to not void around the catheter

Avoid heavy lifting, strenuous exercise, straining, and sexual intercourse for 2-6 weeks
Drink at least 12 glasses of water throughout the day (if appropriate)
Avoid NSAIDS
Avoid bladder stimulants
Caffeine and alcohol
If urine becomes bloody, stop activity and rest and increase fluid intake

131
Q

What are risk factors for prostate cancer? Common secondary mestasize?

A

Increases with age
Age> 65
Familial predisposition
Father, brother
African-American race
High fat/red meat, low fiber diet
Gene mutations
HPC1, BRCA-1, BRCA-2

bone

132
Q

What are physiologic causes of ED? Pharm managment? SE and contraindications? Other therapies?

A

CV disease, endocrine disorders, cirrhosis, CKI, GU conditions, hematologic conditions, neurologic conditions, trauma to area, alcohol, smoking, medications, drug abuse

Oral medications: sildenafil

Side effects include headache, flushing, dyspepsia
Take one hour before sexual intercourse
Caution with retinopathy
Contraindicated with any nitroglycerin use for heart disease

penile implant: semirigid rod or inflatable
negative pressure vaccuum

133
Q

What is prostatitis? S/S? Treatment? Nursing care?

A

Inflammation/infection of the prostate gland
Often associated with UTI

Signs and symptoms
Fever, chills
Urethral discharge
Perineal discomfort/pain
Burning
Urgency
Frequency
Hesitancy
Boggy, tender prostate
Elevated PSA, elevated WBC

Treated with oral antibiotics for 3-5 weeks (cipro)
ejaculate to reduce retention
tamsulosin to promote relaxationo f bladder and prostate

Comfort measures- analgesics, sitz baths
Client teaching- antibiotic therapy, s/s of recurrent prostatitis
Fluids encouraged to satisfy thirst but not forced- effective med level must remain in urine
Avoid indwelling catheters- suprapubic may be needed for severe urinary retention

134
Q

What is epididymitis? Cause? Symptoms? Treatment?

A

1 cause is E. coli

Infection of epididymis that spread from urethra, bladder, or prostate

May be r/t UTI, STI, high-risk sexual practices

Symptoms are tender and swollen area behind testicle
Confirmed with urinalysis and urethral culture

Treatment is with oral antibiotic therapy
May take a month to fully recover
Passage of sperm may be obstructed in chronic cases which may progress to infertility (if bilateral)
Not r/t cancer at all

135
Q

What is orchitis? Cause? Symptoms? Treatment?

A

Infection/inflammation of the testes
Can be associated with epididymitis

Most associated with the mumps virus (prevented by the MMR)

Symptoms
Testicular enlargement and swelling
Pain and tenderness
Fever
Headache
Myalgias
May result in future sterility

Treatment
Treat symptoms
Ice packs to reduce scrotal edema
Anti-inflammatories and analgesics

136
Q

What is testicular torsion? Symptoms? Treatment?

A

Spermatic cord twists, cutting off the testicle’s blood supply
Leads to ischemia of the testicle

Rapid onset of severe testicular pain
Testicle is high-riding in the scrotum

Confirmed with doppler ultrasound of scrotum
Attempt can be made to manually rotate the testicle to normal
Needs an emergency surgical detorsion
Both testicles are stabilized in the scrotum

137
Q

What is the patho of testicular cancer? Risk factors? Manifestations? Treatment?

A

Most common cancer in men ages 15 to 35
Highly treatable and curable
95% cure rate (ATI, 2023)

Risk factors
Undescended testicles
Positive family history
Personal history of testicular cancer
Caucasian American race
HIV-positive

painless mass in testes

Orchiectomy- removal of testis
Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (open or lap)
Performed after orchiectomy to diagnose & prevent lymphatic spread
Chemotherapy
Radiation therapy- only to affected testicle

138
Q
A