IMMS Flashcards
1
Q
What is the protein in tight junctions?
A
Occludins
2
Q
What is the type of protein in adhering junctions?
A
(E-) Cadherins
3
Q
What is the transmembrane protein in desmosomes?
A
Cadherin - e.g. Desmogeins & desmocollins
4
Q
What is the intermediate filament in epithelial desmosomes?
A
Keratin
5
Q
What is the intermediate filament in desmosomes in cardiac cells?
A
Desmin
6
Q
What is the transmembrane protein in hemidesmosomes?
A
Integrin
7
Q
What is the name of the channel between gap junctions?
A
Connexon - formed from connexins
8
Q
What is gametogenesis?
A
Formation of mature haploid gametes.
This is either through meitotic division of diploid cells or mitotic division of haploid cells
9
Q
What is Mendel’s second law?
A
Law of Independent assortment:
Biological selection of an allele has no affect on the selection of another allele
10
Q
What is the definition of homeostasis?
A
The state of equilibrium (balance between opposing pressures) in the body with respect to various functions and to chemical compositions of the fluids and tissues.
Essentially, the mechanism in which the body maintains a regulated and stable internal environment
11
Q
What is the total water content of the body in litres for an average 70kg man?
A
42L
12
Q
What is the average water content in litres of the intracellular fluid?
A
28L
13
Q
What is the average water content of extra cellular fluid in litres?
A
14L
14
Q
What are the two types of extra cellular fluid?
A
1) interstitial fluid
2) blood plasma
15
Q
What is the definition of penetrance?
A
The proportion of people with a gene/genotype which show the expected phenotype.
Can be:
Complete - expresses by all in that genetic population
Incomplete - expressed by only parts of that population
16
Q
What is an allele?
A
One of several alternative forms of a gene at a specific locus
17
Q
What is variable expression?
A
Variation in clinical features (type & severity) of a genetic disorder between individuals with the same gene alteration
18
Q
What is sex limitation?
A
Where the expression of a particular characteristic is limited to one of the sexes
19
Q
What is meant by genotype?
A
The genetic constitution of an individual
20
Q
What is meant by phenotype?
A
The appearance of an individual which is down to a combination of environmental & genetic factors
21
Q
What is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder?
A
A disease that can manifest in a heterozygous state - only one allele needed as it is dominant.
22
Q
If one parent has an autosomal dominant condition what are the chances the offspring have the condition?
A
50%
23
Q
What is a common example of an autosomal dominant condition?
A
Huntigtons
24
Q
What is meant by an autosomal recessive disease?
A
A disease that can only manifest in a homozygous state - two of the alleles are needed
25
What percentage of offspring would have the recessive condition if the parents were both carriers?
25%
26
What percentage of offspring would be carriers of the recessive allele if both parents were carriers?
50%
27
What is meant by X-linked (sex-linked) genetic diseases?
Diseases that are a result of a mutation of the X chromosome
28
Can there be male to make transmission of X-linked genetic diseases? Why?
No. This is because if a man has a son he will have passed a Y chromosome onto the son, not an X chromosome.
29
Can males be carriers of X-linked genetic diseases?
No. It would manifest as they only have one X chromosome, there's no other chromosome to counteract.
30
What percentage of daughters would be affected if the father had an X-linked genetic disease?
100% would be affected in some way.
If recessive - they would be carriers
If dominant - they would have the condition
31
What is meant by the term lyonization?
It is where one of the X-chromosome in a female are inactivated. The inactive form is known as a Barr body
32
What is Kudson's 2-hit hypothesis?
The idea about genetic mutations being inherited or acquired.
Sporadic cancer - 2 acquired mutations
Hereditary cancer - 1 inherited & 1 acquired
33
What enzyme converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
Hexokinase
34
What stages of glycolysis use ATP?
1 and 3
35
What stages of glycolysis release ATP?
1,3-biphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphglycerate
And
Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
36
What is the overall yield of glycolysis
2 ATP, 2 NADH and 2 pyruvate molecules
37
Where does glycolysis occur?
In the cytosol of the cell
38
Glycolysis requires oxygen. True or false?
False - it is an oxygen independent process
39
How many enzyme catalysed reactions are their in glycolysis?
10
40
What are the molecules in the Krebs cycle starting with pyruvate?
Pyruvate > acetyl CoA > Citrate > Isocitrate > alpha-ketoglutarate > Succinyl CoA > Succinate > Fumarate > L-Malate > Oxaloacetate
41
What enzyme converts Citrate to Isocitrate?
Aconitase
42
What enzyme converts Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate?
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
43
What enzyme converts alpha-ketoglutarate to Succinyl CoA?
Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
44
What enzyme converts Succinyl CoA to Succinate?
Succinyl CoA synthase
45
What enzyme converts Succinate to Fumarate?
Succinic dehydrogenase
46
What enzyme converts Fumarate to L-Malate?
Fumarase
47
What enzyme converts L-malate to Oxaloacetate?
Malate dehydrogenase
48
What is the yield of the Krebs cycle in one round?
1 ATP's, 3 NADH's and 1 FADH2 per glucose molecule
49
What is the maximum potential ATP yield from aerobic respiration?
38
50
Where does the Krebs cycle occur?
In the matrix of the mitochondria
51
Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?
Across the inner membrane of the mitochondria
52
How many protein complexes are there in the electron transport chain?
5
53
What is the energy released from the electrons used to do as they pass along the electron transport chain?
Pump hydrogen ions into the inter-membrane space
54
What is chemiosmosis?
Where the hydrogen ions that have been pumped into the inter membrane space pass down their concentration gradient through ATP synthase (ATPase). This movement is used to generate the ATP
55
When does ketogenesis occur?
Where there is an unavailability of blood glucose. E.g. During fasting
56
What can happen if ketogenesis is insufficient?
Hypoglycaemia
57
What can happen if ketogenesis is excessive?
Ketoacidosis
58
What is beta oxidation of fatty acids?
The process of which fatty acids are broken to form acetyl CoA
59
Where does beta oxidation of fatty acids occur?
In the mitochondria
60
What is the process of beta oxidation of fatty acids?
1) Fatty acids are activated and transported across the membrane by binding to coenzyme A
2) Oxidation of the beta carbon to a carbonyl group occurs
3) Cleavage of two carbon segments results in the production of acetyl-CoA
4) Acetyl-CoA feeds into the Krebs cycle
5) Cycle repeats until full fatty acid breakdown
61
What is a buffer?
A compound that resists a change in pH, by preventing an increase or decrease in hydrogen ion concentration, when a small amount of acid or alkali is added
62
What are the main sources of hydrogen ions?
1) Oxidation of amino acids
2) anaerobic respiration
3) Aerobic respiration through formation of CO2
63
What does ROS stand for?
Reactive Oxygen Species
64
What is a reactive oxygen species?
A chemically reactive molecule containing oxygen
65
What are the two types of Reactive oxygen species?
1) Endogenous - Generated in the body e.g. In oxidative phosphorylation
2) Exogenous - Produced from external sources e.g. Pollutants, tobacco, smoke, drugs, xenobiotics or radiation
66
What is an endogenous source of superoxide (.O2)
Oxidative phosphorylation (0.1-2% of electrons that pass down the electron transport chain and incompletely reducing oxygen to superoxide)
Note: oxygen is supposed to be reduced to water
67
What is a respiratory burst?
The rapid release of reactive oxygen species (superoxide and hydrogen peroxide) from cells.
Forms hydroxyl radical and HOCl
68
What role do respiratory bursts play?
They are important in the immune response. They are important in phagocytosis to degrade internalised particles and bacteria.
E.g. Immune cells use NADPH oxidase to reduce O2 to an oxygen free radical and then to hydrogen peroxide. This is combined with chloride (hypochlorite) and this is used to destroy bacteria.
69
What is the rate determining step in glycolysis?
Step 3 - phosphofructokinase reaction
70
What is the normal pH of the blood?
pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)
71
What cells have a lifespan of a persons entire life?
Nerves, cardiac muscle, germ cells
72
What cells have a lifespan of nearly a whole life, they have limited regeneration?
Skeletal muscle
73
What cells survive for years but are regenrated?
Bones and tendons
74
What cells have a turnover of a few months?
Blood, skin, connective tissues
75
What cells have a turn over of days or less?
White blood cells
| Cells lining the gut
76
Euchromatin is found in the nucleus, what is it?
Lightly packed chromatin that is usually under active transcription
77
Heterochromatin is found in the nucleus, what is it?
Densely packed chromatin that is not under active transcription
78
What is a nucleolus
It is a ribosome "factor" found in the nucleus of a cell
79
What is chromatin?
It is a complex of DNA and proteins that forms chromosomes within the nucleus of the cell
80
What are two characteristics of mitochondria?
1) Have their own DNA
| 2) Have a double membrane - the inner is highly folded
81
What is the main function of mitochondria?
The site of oxidative phosphoryation
82
What is the function that occurs in the outer membrane of mitochondria?
Lipid synthesis and fatty acid metabolism
83
What is the function that occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria?
Respiratory chain and ATP production
84
What is the function that occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria?
The krebs cycle
85
What is the function that occurs in the intermembraneous space of mitochondria?
Nucleotide phosphorylation (ADP to ATP)
86
What is the function of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
Site of protein synthesis
87
What is the function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Lipid synthesis and processing of synthesised proteins
88
What is the function of Golgi apparatus?
Processes macromolecules synthesised in the ER
89
How does the Golgi apparatus modify macromolecules?
1) Adds sugars
2) Proteolysis of peptides into active forms
3) Sorts macromolecules
90
What function occurs at the cis face of the Golgi apparatus?
Recieves transport vesicles from smooth ER and phosphorylates some proteins
91
What function occurs at the medial part of the Golgi body?
Forms complex oligosaccharides by adding sugars to lipids and peptides
92
What function occurs in the Trans Golgi network?
Proteolysis and the sorting of the macromolecules into vesicles which bud from the surface
93
What are the types of vesicles?
1) Cell-surface derived: Pinocytotic and phagocytotic
2) Golgi-derived transport vesicles
3) ER-derived transport vesicles
4) Lysosomes
5) Peroxisomes
94
What are lysosomes?
Derived from Golgi apparatus
H+ - ATPase on memebrane creates low pH (pH5)
Contains acid hydrolase
95
What are peroxisomes?
Small membrane-bound organells containing enzymes that oxidise long-chain fatty acids
96
What are endolysosomes?
They result when hydrolase vesicles fuse with endosomes with the correct membrane proteins
97
What are the enzymes in peroxisomes?
D-amino acid oxidase
Catalase
Ureate oxidase
98
What is the cytoskeleton?
Filamentous proteins which brace the internal structure of the cell
99
What three types of filamentous proteins compose the cytoskeleton?
1) Microfilaments
2) Intermediate filaments
3) Microtubules
100
What type of filamentous protein is actin?
Microfilament
101
What proteins are microtubules made up of?
Alpha and beta tubulin
102
Microtubules are found in all cells except what?
Erythrocytes
103
Where do the microtubules arise from? what is this structure composed of?
Arise from centrosome which is comprised of 2 centrioles
104
What is the general function of intermediate filaments?
They are anchored to transmembrane proteins and thus spread tensile forces through tissues
105
What type of intermediate filament is found in epithelial cells?
Cytokeratins
106
What type of intermediate filament is found in neurons?
Neurofilament protein
107
What is lipofuscin?
They are membrane-bound with an orange-brown pigment.
| They are involved in the peroxidation of lipids and are common in the heart and liver
108
What is an oligosaccharide?
A carbohydrate polymer comprised of three to twelve monosaccharides
109
What is a polysaccharide?
A carbohydrate polymer comprised of a long chain of monosaccharides
110
Monosaccharides can exist in two optically different forms, why?
They have a chiral center - a carbon with four different chemical groups around it
111
Molecules can exist in both L and D arrangements, which are the majority in living organisms?
D
112
How does a glycosidic bond form?
When a hydroxyl group reacts with an OH or an NH to form glycosides
113
Where are O-glycosidic bonds found?
Diasaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides
114
Where are N-glycosidic bonds found?
In nucleotides and DNA
115
What is starch composed of?
Glucose in two forms.
Amylose (Alpha 1,4 glycosidic bonds)
Amyopectin (Alpha 1,6 glycosidic bonds)
116
What are proteoglycans?
Long, unbranched polysaccharides that radiate from a core protein
117
What is glycogen?
A storage form of glucose.
| A polysaccharide of glucose with alpha 1,4 and alpha 1,6 glycosidic bonds
118
What is a fatty acid?
A chain of carbon atoms with a methyl group at one end and a carboxyl group at the other
119
What are Eicosanoids?
Synthesised from 20 C atom acids with 3,4,5 double bonds
120
What are nucleotides composed of?
Nitrogenous base, sugar and phosphate
121
Whta is the name for the part of the nucleotide not containing the phophate
Nucleoside
122
Whta type of bond holds amino acids together in a chain?
Peptide bond
123
What is a peptide bond?
(C=O)N(H)
124
What forces hold proteins together?
```
Van der Waals
Hydrogen bonds
Hydrophobic forces
Ionic bonds
Disulphide bridges
```
125
What are Van der Waals forces?
Weak attractive interactions between atoms due to fluctuating electrical charges
126
What are hydrogen bonds?
The strongest type of Van der Waals force.
Where a Hydrogen atom is bonded to an oxygen/fluorine/nitrogen
Hydrogen becomes partially positively charged, other atom partially negative
127
What are hydrophobic forces?
Where uncharged and non-polar side chains are poorly soluble in water and effectively repel water
128
What are ionic bonds?
Occur between fully or partially charged groups. these are weakened in solution as shielded by water molecules
129
what are disulphide bridge bonds?
Convalent bonding between two sulphur atoms in the side chains of cysteine residues
130
What are isoenzymes?
Enzymes that have a different structure and sequence but catalyse the same reaction
131
What are coenzymes?
Complex organic structures that help maximize the repertoire of enzymes functional groups - can be metal ions or organic (derived from vitamins)
132
What are activation-transfer coenzymes?
Coenzymes that form covalent bonds and a re regenerated at the end of the reaction
133
What are oxidation-reduction coenzymes?
Coenzymes that are involved in reactions that involve the transfer of electrons from one compound to another
134
What is the heme part of haemoglobin formed from?
Porphyrin ring that contains iron
135
Describe the process in which CO2 is taken into a RBC and O2 is released
1) CO2 combines with H2O to form carbonic acid
2) Carbonic acid dissociates to HCO3- and H+
3) H+ binds to Hb
4) Hb releases O2
136
Describe the process in which O2 is taken into RBC and CO2 is released
1) O2 binds to protonated Hb
2) Hb releases H+
3) H+ binds to HCO3- to form carbonic acid
4) Carbonic acid is cleaved to H2O and CO2
137
What are 6 enzymes used with human DNA?
1) Polymerases
2) Helicase
3) Ligase
4) Nuclease
5) Primase
6) Topoisomerase
138
In what direction does DNA polymerase read?
3' to 5'
139
In what direction does DNA polymerase print?
5' to 3'
140
What are the substrates for DNA polymerase?
Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates
141
What is the function of Helicase?
Opens the two strands of DNA
142
What is the function of Topoisomerase?
Unwinds the DNA - relieves the supercoiling
143
What does 10 e6 mean?
10 to the power of 6
144
What does kDa mean?
KiloDaltons - 1000 atomic mass units
Note: 1 Dalton is the mass of a H atom
145
What does "S" mean?
It stands for Svedberg unit - it refers to the mass and shape of cellular organelles
Note: S values are not additive e.g. ribosome 70S is made up of 50S and 30S
146
Describe the structure of an mRNA molecule
A long, linear transcript (thats a copy of DNA) with a 5' CAP and a 3' Poly A tail
147
What is the name for the coding regions on mRNA?
Exons
148
What is the name for non-coding regions on mRNA?
Introns
149
What is the process in which Introns are removed from mRNA called?
Splicing
150
At what end is the amino acid on in a tRNA molecule
3' end
151
What does degenerate mean in terms of DNA?
That each amino acid can be coded for by more than one codon (but each codon only codes for one amino acid)
152
Whatis the name for the molecules that are able to initiate gene transcription?
Transcription factors
153
What do transcription factors do?
1) They bind to specific sequence of 5' end of first exon called promoter region
2) Collection of transcription factors form transcription complex
3) Helix opens, DNA seperation
4) RNA pol II starts building mRNA
154
What factors turn off expression of genes?
1) Activation of repressors that inhibit RNA polymerase
2) Prevention of transcription complex formation
3) Enzymes not activated
4) RNA stability
155
What are mutant alleles?
Pathogenic mutations
156
What are polymorphyisms?
Benign variations in alleles
157
What is an out of frame deletion?
Where a one or more nucleotides are deleted but not a whole number of codons
158
What is an in frame deletion?
Where a whole number of codons are deleted
159
Which is more serious an in frame or out of frame deletion?
Out of frame as this can affect all codons after the deletion whereas in frame will only affect those deleted
160
What is a non-sense mutation?
Where the mutation results in the formation of a stop codon which means a gene is not fully transcribed
161
What is a mis-sense mutation?
This is a single base substitution.
| This means it may or may not change the amino acid and if so may not be pathogenic
162
What is Allelic heterogeneity?
Where lots of different mutations in one gene cause a condition e.g. in cystic fibrosis
163
What is locus heterogeneity?
Where mutations in different genes give rise to the same clinical condition e.g. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
164
What is an automsome?
Any chromosome other than the sex chromomsomes that occur in pairs in diploid cells
165
What is the definition of homozygous?
Presence of identical alleles at a given locus
166
What is the definition of heterozygous?
Presence of two different alleles at a given locus
167
What is the definition of allele?
One or more alternative forms of a gene at a given locus
168
What is the definition of a locus?
The position of a gene
169
What is consanguinity?
A reproductive union between two relatives
170
What is autozygosity?
Homozygosity by descent - the inheritance of the recessive allele through two branches of the same family
171
What is trisomy?
Where someone has three of one chromosome e.g three of chromosome 21 instead of just the normal two
172
What is monosomy?
Where there is only one copy of a chromosome not the usual two
173
How can chromosomal abnormalities be detected?
F.I.S.H
| Fluorescence in situ hybridization - this is where DNA probes are used to detect chromosomes
174
hat does hereditability mean?
The proportion of the aetiology that can be ascribed to genetic factors as opposed to environmental factors
175
What are the characteristics of multifactorial inheritance?
1) Incidence is greatest in the relatives of the most severely affected
2) The risk is greatest for first degree relatives, it decreases with more distant relatives
3) If there is more than one close relative affected then the the risk for the other relatives is increased.
176
What is used to identify what alleles cause conditions or increase risk?
Genome wide association studies (GWAS)
These involve doing genetic tests on ill patients and healthy controls and seeing if there are certain alleles that arise more frequently in the ill group
177
How much energy do you get per gram of carbohydrate, protein, alcohol and lipid?
Carbohydrate - 4kcal/g
Protein - 4kcal/g
Alcohol - 7kcal/g
Lipid - 9kcal/g
178
What is the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)?
The energy required to keep the body alive at rest
179
Roughly what is the BMR worked out to be?
1kcal/kg/hour
180
What are the major factors that can decrease BMR?
1) Age (increasing)
2) Gender (women are less)
3) Dieting/starvation
4) Hypothyroidism
181
What factors can increase BMR?
1) Increased BMI
2) Hyperthyroidsim
3) Low ambient temperature
4) Fever/infection
5) Caffeine/stimulants
6) Pregnancy
7) Lactation
182
What is the Daily Energy Expenditure?
It is the energy required to support BMR + physical activities + energy to process food intake
(all the energy you require in a day)
183
What are the three main ways the body stores excess energy?
Triglycerides - 15kg
Protein - 6kg
Glycogen - 200g liver, 150g muscle
184
What is meant by essential amino acids?
They are the amino acids we need but cannot synthesise in the body - we have to get it from our diet
185
What is the definition of bioenergetics?
Part of biochemistry concerned with the energy involved in making and breaking chemical bonds in molecules found in biological organisms
186
If Gibb's free energy is negative what does this mean?
That a reaction could happen spontaneously - doesn't mean it will however
187
What type of molecule are the bases adenine and guanine?
Purines - two carbon nitrogen rings
188
What type of molecule are the bases cytosine and thymine?
Pyrimidines - one carbon nitrogen ring
189
What is ATP made up of?
Adenine
Ribose
3 Phosphates
190
What are adenine and ribose together known as?
Adenosine
191
What is the bond that is broken in ATP hydrolysis?
Phosphoanhydride
192
How many phosphoanhydride bonds are there in ATP?
Two
193
What is the rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis?
Phosphofructokinase
194
What is the equation for anaerobic glycolysis?
Glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi = 2Lactate + 2ATP + 2H2O + 2H+
195
What does AMP do in glycolysis?
It is an activator of phosphofructokinase-1
196
What does citrate do in glycolysis?
Inhibits phosphofructokinase-1
197
For fatty acids to be used to produce energy they are activated, but by what enzyme?
Fatty acyl-CoA ligase
198
What does each round of beta oxidation produce?
1 NADH
1 FADH2
1 acetyl-CoA
199
Where in the Krebs cycle is GTP formed that then forms ATP?
Between succinyl CoA and Succinate
200
Where is NADH formed in the krebs cycle?
Between:
Isocitrate - alpha-ketoglutarate
Alpha-ketoglutarate - Succinyl-CoA
Malate - Oxaloacetate
201
Where in the krebs cycle is FADH2 formed?
Between Succinate and Fumarate
202
What is a free radical?
A molecule with an unpaired electron in the outer shell making it highly reactive
203
Hydrogen peroxide is a free radical. True or False?
False - It is an oxidising agent in the presence of Fe2+ or other transition metals.
It generates hydroxyl radicals and is lipid soluble
204
What is the Fenton Reaction?
H2O2 + Fe2+ -> Fe3+ + OH. + OH-
205
What is the Haner-Weiss reaction?
O2- + H2O2 -> (H+) -> O2 + H2O + OH.
206
What is the most reactive radical?
Hydoxyl
207
What produces an organic radical?
When an organic molecule is attacked by a hydoxyl radical
208
When is organic peroxide produced? (RCOO.)
During lipid degradation
209
What is the consequence of free radicals?
1) Damage to proteins, lipids and carbohydrates
2) Damage to membranes of nucleus, mitochondria, ER and the cells
3) Increased permeability of calcium, water and sodium
210
What defences are there against oxygen toxicity?
1) Antioxidant enzymes
2) Cellular compartmentalization
3) Antioxidant vitamins
4) Repair
211
What are examples of antioxidant enzymes?
1) Superoxide dismutase
2) Catalase
3) Gluthathione peroxidase
212
What does Superoxide dismutase do?
Turns superoxide to hydrogen peroxide
213
What does Catalase do?
Converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
214
What are the antioxidant vitamins?
Vitamin E
Vitamin C
Carotenoids
215
What does vitamin E do in terms of free radicals?
Terminates free radical propagation in membranes (Lipophilic)
216
What does vitamin C do in terms of free radicals?
Reacts with superoxide and hydroxyl anion
| Regenerates reduced vitamin E
217
What is the definition of Homeostasis?
The maintenance of a constant internal environment
218
In what ways can cells communicate?
1) Hormones
2) Electrical
3) Ions
219
What is autocrine cell communication?
Cells communicate with themselves
220
What is paracrine cell communication?
Cells communicate with nearby cells.
Signal diffuses across gap, inactivated locally so doesn't enter blood stream
Neurotransmitter is an example
221
What is endocrine cell communication?
Where cells communicate with cells anywhere in the body.
This is done through hormones
222
What are the endocrine organs?
1) Hypothalamus
2) Pituitary gland
3) Thyroid gland
4) Parathyroid gland
5) Adrenals
6) Pancreas
7) Ovaries
8) Testes
223
What are the 6 hypothalamic hormones?
1) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone
2) Growth hormone-releasing hormone
3) Somatostatin
4) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
5) Corticotropin-releasing hormone
6) Dopamine
224
What are the 6 Anterior Pituitary gland hormones?
1) Follicle stimulating hormone
2) Lutenising hormone
3) Growth hormone
4) Thyroid stimulating hormone
5) Prolactin
6) Adrendocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
225
What are the 2 posterior pituitary hormones?
1) Oxytocin
| 2) ADH (Vassopressin)
226
What type of hormones are: Adrenaline, thyroid hormone, insulin and growth hormone?
Peptide hormones
227
What type of hormones are testosterone, oestrogen and cortisol?
Steroid hormones
228
Are peptide hormones fast or slow acting?
Fast
229
Are steroid hormones fast or slow acting?
Slow
230
What is an oedema?
Excess water in the intercellular tissue spaces
231
What is a serous effusion?
Excess water in a body cavity
232
What is the Henderson-Hasslebalch equation?
pH = pK + log([HCO3-]/[CO2])
233
What are the main groups of buffers in the body?
1) Intracellular proteins
2) Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
3) Red blood cells
4) Plasma proteins
