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Phase 1 Cards > IMMS > Flashcards

IMMS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the protein in tight junctions?

A

Occludins

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2
Q

What is the type of protein in adhering junctions?

A

(E-) Cadherins

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3
Q

What is the transmembrane protein in desmosomes?

A

Cadherin - e.g. Desmogeins & desmocollins

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4
Q

What is the intermediate filament in epithelial desmosomes?

A

Keratin

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5
Q

What is the intermediate filament in desmosomes in cardiac cells?

A

Desmin

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6
Q

What is the transmembrane protein in hemidesmosomes?

A

Integrin

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7
Q

What is the name of the channel between gap junctions?

A

Connexon - formed from connexins

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8
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

Formation of mature haploid gametes.

This is either through meitotic division of diploid cells or mitotic division of haploid cells

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9
Q

What is Mendel’s second law?

A

Law of Independent assortment:

Biological selection of an allele has no affect on the selection of another allele

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10
Q

What is the definition of homeostasis?

A

The state of equilibrium (balance between opposing pressures) in the body with respect to various functions and to chemical compositions of the fluids and tissues.

Essentially, the mechanism in which the body maintains a regulated and stable internal environment

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11
Q

What is the total water content of the body in litres for an average 70kg man?

A

42L

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12
Q

What is the average water content in litres of the intracellular fluid?

A

28L

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13
Q

What is the average water content of extra cellular fluid in litres?

A

14L

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14
Q

What are the two types of extra cellular fluid?

A

1) interstitial fluid

2) blood plasma

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15
Q

What is the definition of penetrance?

A

The proportion of people with a gene/genotype which show the expected phenotype.

Can be:
Complete - expresses by all in that genetic population
Incomplete - expressed by only parts of that population

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16
Q

What is an allele?

A

One of several alternative forms of a gene at a specific locus

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17
Q

What is variable expression?

A

Variation in clinical features (type & severity) of a genetic disorder between individuals with the same gene alteration

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18
Q

What is sex limitation?

A

Where the expression of a particular characteristic is limited to one of the sexes

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19
Q

What is meant by genotype?

A

The genetic constitution of an individual

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20
Q

What is meant by phenotype?

A

The appearance of an individual which is down to a combination of environmental & genetic factors

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21
Q

What is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder?

A

A disease that can manifest in a heterozygous state - only one allele needed as it is dominant.

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22
Q

If one parent has an autosomal dominant condition what are the chances the offspring have the condition?

A

50%

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23
Q

What is a common example of an autosomal dominant condition?

A

Huntigtons

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24
Q

What is meant by an autosomal recessive disease?

A

A disease that can only manifest in a homozygous state - two of the alleles are needed

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25
Q

What percentage of offspring would have the recessive condition if the parents were both carriers?

A

25%

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26
Q

What percentage of offspring would be carriers of the recessive allele if both parents were carriers?

A

50%

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27
Q

What is meant by X-linked (sex-linked) genetic diseases?

A

Diseases that are a result of a mutation of the X chromosome

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28
Q

Can there be male to make transmission of X-linked genetic diseases? Why?

A

No. This is because if a man has a son he will have passed a Y chromosome onto the son, not an X chromosome.

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29
Q

Can males be carriers of X-linked genetic diseases?

A

No. It would manifest as they only have one X chromosome, there’s no other chromosome to counteract.

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30
Q

What percentage of daughters would be affected if the father had an X-linked genetic disease?

A

100% would be affected in some way.
If recessive - they would be carriers
If dominant - they would have the condition

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31
Q

What is meant by the term lyonization?

A

It is where one of the X-chromosome in a female are inactivated. The inactive form is known as a Barr body

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32
Q

What is Kudson’s 2-hit hypothesis?

A

The idea about genetic mutations being inherited or acquired.

Sporadic cancer - 2 acquired mutations
Hereditary cancer - 1 inherited & 1 acquired

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33
Q

What enzyme converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?

A

Hexokinase

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34
Q

What stages of glycolysis use ATP?

A

1 and 3

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35
Q

What stages of glycolysis release ATP?

A

1,3-biphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphglycerate

And

Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate

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36
Q

What is the overall yield of glycolysis

A

2 ATP, 2 NADH and 2 pyruvate molecules

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37
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

In the cytosol of the cell

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38
Q

Glycolysis requires oxygen. True or false?

A

False - it is an oxygen independent process

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39
Q

How many enzyme catalysed reactions are their in glycolysis?

A

10

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40
Q

What are the molecules in the Krebs cycle starting with pyruvate?

A

Pyruvate > acetyl CoA > Citrate > Isocitrate > alpha-ketoglutarate > Succinyl CoA > Succinate > Fumarate > L-Malate > Oxaloacetate

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41
Q

What enzyme converts Citrate to Isocitrate?

A

Aconitase

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42
Q

What enzyme converts Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

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43
Q

What enzyme converts alpha-ketoglutarate to Succinyl CoA?

A

Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

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44
Q

What enzyme converts Succinyl CoA to Succinate?

A

Succinyl CoA synthase

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45
Q

What enzyme converts Succinate to Fumarate?

A

Succinic dehydrogenase

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46
Q

What enzyme converts Fumarate to L-Malate?

A

Fumarase

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47
Q

What enzyme converts L-malate to Oxaloacetate?

A

Malate dehydrogenase

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48
Q

What is the yield of the Krebs cycle in one round?

A

1 ATP’s, 3 NADH’s and 1 FADH2 per glucose molecule

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49
Q

What is the maximum potential ATP yield from aerobic respiration?

A

38

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50
Q

Where does the Krebs cycle occur?

A

In the matrix of the mitochondria

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51
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

Across the inner membrane of the mitochondria

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52
Q

How many protein complexes are there in the electron transport chain?

A

5

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53
Q

What is the energy released from the electrons used to do as they pass along the electron transport chain?

A

Pump hydrogen ions into the inter-membrane space

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54
Q

What is chemiosmosis?

A

Where the hydrogen ions that have been pumped into the inter membrane space pass down their concentration gradient through ATP synthase (ATPase). This movement is used to generate the ATP

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55
Q

When does ketogenesis occur?

A

Where there is an unavailability of blood glucose. E.g. During fasting

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56
Q

What can happen if ketogenesis is insufficient?

A

Hypoglycaemia

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57
Q

What can happen if ketogenesis is excessive?

A

Ketoacidosis

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58
Q

What is beta oxidation of fatty acids?

A

The process of which fatty acids are broken to form acetyl CoA

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59
Q

Where does beta oxidation of fatty acids occur?

A

In the mitochondria

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60
Q

What is the process of beta oxidation of fatty acids?

A

1) Fatty acids are activated and transported across the membrane by binding to coenzyme A
2) Oxidation of the beta carbon to a carbonyl group occurs
3) Cleavage of two carbon segments results in the production of acetyl-CoA
4) Acetyl-CoA feeds into the Krebs cycle
5) Cycle repeats until full fatty acid breakdown

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61
Q

What is a buffer?

A

A compound that resists a change in pH, by preventing an increase or decrease in hydrogen ion concentration, when a small amount of acid or alkali is added

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62
Q

What are the main sources of hydrogen ions?

A

1) Oxidation of amino acids
2) anaerobic respiration
3) Aerobic respiration through formation of CO2

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63
Q

What does ROS stand for?

A

Reactive Oxygen Species

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64
Q

What is a reactive oxygen species?

A

A chemically reactive molecule containing oxygen

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65
Q

What are the two types of Reactive oxygen species?

A

1) Endogenous - Generated in the body e.g. In oxidative phosphorylation
2) Exogenous - Produced from external sources e.g. Pollutants, tobacco, smoke, drugs, xenobiotics or radiation

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66
Q

What is an endogenous source of superoxide (.O2)

A

Oxidative phosphorylation (0.1-2% of electrons that pass down the electron transport chain and incompletely reducing oxygen to superoxide)

Note: oxygen is supposed to be reduced to water

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67
Q

What is a respiratory burst?

A

The rapid release of reactive oxygen species (superoxide and hydrogen peroxide) from cells.

Forms hydroxyl radical and HOCl

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68
Q

What role do respiratory bursts play?

A

They are important in the immune response. They are important in phagocytosis to degrade internalised particles and bacteria.

E.g. Immune cells use NADPH oxidase to reduce O2 to an oxygen free radical and then to hydrogen peroxide. This is combined with chloride (hypochlorite) and this is used to destroy bacteria.

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69
Q

What is the rate determining step in glycolysis?

A

Step 3 - phosphofructokinase reaction

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70
Q

What is the normal pH of the blood?

A

pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)

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71
Q

What cells have a lifespan of a persons entire life?

A

Nerves, cardiac muscle, germ cells

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72
Q

What cells have a lifespan of nearly a whole life, they have limited regeneration?

A

Skeletal muscle

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73
Q

What cells survive for years but are regenrated?

A

Bones and tendons

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74
Q

What cells have a turnover of a few months?

A

Blood, skin, connective tissues

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75
Q

What cells have a turn over of days or less?

A

White blood cells

Cells lining the gut

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76
Q

Euchromatin is found in the nucleus, what is it?

A

Lightly packed chromatin that is usually under active transcription

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77
Q

Heterochromatin is found in the nucleus, what is it?

A

Densely packed chromatin that is not under active transcription

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78
Q

What is a nucleolus

A

It is a ribosome “factor” found in the nucleus of a cell

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79
Q

What is chromatin?

A

It is a complex of DNA and proteins that forms chromosomes within the nucleus of the cell

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80
Q

What are two characteristics of mitochondria?

A

1) Have their own DNA

2) Have a double membrane - the inner is highly folded

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81
Q

What is the main function of mitochondria?

A

The site of oxidative phosphoryation

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82
Q

What is the function that occurs in the outer membrane of mitochondria?

A

Lipid synthesis and fatty acid metabolism

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83
Q

What is the function that occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria?

A

Respiratory chain and ATP production

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84
Q

What is the function that occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria?

A

The krebs cycle

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85
Q

What is the function that occurs in the intermembraneous space of mitochondria?

A

Nucleotide phosphorylation (ADP to ATP)

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86
Q

What is the function of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

Site of protein synthesis

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87
Q

What is the function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Lipid synthesis and processing of synthesised proteins

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88
Q

What is the function of Golgi apparatus?

A

Processes macromolecules synthesised in the ER

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89
Q

How does the Golgi apparatus modify macromolecules?

A

1) Adds sugars
2) Proteolysis of peptides into active forms
3) Sorts macromolecules

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90
Q

What function occurs at the cis face of the Golgi apparatus?

A

Recieves transport vesicles from smooth ER and phosphorylates some proteins

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91
Q

What function occurs at the medial part of the Golgi body?

A

Forms complex oligosaccharides by adding sugars to lipids and peptides

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92
Q

What function occurs in the Trans Golgi network?

A

Proteolysis and the sorting of the macromolecules into vesicles which bud from the surface

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93
Q

What are the types of vesicles?

A

1) Cell-surface derived: Pinocytotic and phagocytotic
2) Golgi-derived transport vesicles
3) ER-derived transport vesicles
4) Lysosomes
5) Peroxisomes

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94
Q

What are lysosomes?

A

Derived from Golgi apparatus
H+ - ATPase on memebrane creates low pH (pH5)
Contains acid hydrolase

95
Q

What are peroxisomes?

A

Small membrane-bound organells containing enzymes that oxidise long-chain fatty acids

96
Q

What are endolysosomes?

A

They result when hydrolase vesicles fuse with endosomes with the correct membrane proteins

97
Q

What are the enzymes in peroxisomes?

A

D-amino acid oxidase
Catalase
Ureate oxidase

98
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

Filamentous proteins which brace the internal structure of the cell

99
Q

What three types of filamentous proteins compose the cytoskeleton?

A

1) Microfilaments
2) Intermediate filaments
3) Microtubules

100
Q

What type of filamentous protein is actin?

A

Microfilament

101
Q

What proteins are microtubules made up of?

A

Alpha and beta tubulin

102
Q

Microtubules are found in all cells except what?

A

Erythrocytes

103
Q

Where do the microtubules arise from? what is this structure composed of?

A

Arise from centrosome which is comprised of 2 centrioles

104
Q

What is the general function of intermediate filaments?

A

They are anchored to transmembrane proteins and thus spread tensile forces through tissues

105
Q

What type of intermediate filament is found in epithelial cells?

A

Cytokeratins

106
Q

What type of intermediate filament is found in neurons?

A

Neurofilament protein

107
Q

What is lipofuscin?

A

They are membrane-bound with an orange-brown pigment.

They are involved in the peroxidation of lipids and are common in the heart and liver

108
Q

What is an oligosaccharide?

A

A carbohydrate polymer comprised of three to twelve monosaccharides

109
Q

What is a polysaccharide?

A

A carbohydrate polymer comprised of a long chain of monosaccharides

110
Q

Monosaccharides can exist in two optically different forms, why?

A

They have a chiral center - a carbon with four different chemical groups around it

111
Q

Molecules can exist in both L and D arrangements, which are the majority in living organisms?

A

D

112
Q

How does a glycosidic bond form?

A

When a hydroxyl group reacts with an OH or an NH to form glycosides

113
Q

Where are O-glycosidic bonds found?

A

Diasaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides

114
Q

Where are N-glycosidic bonds found?

A

In nucleotides and DNA

115
Q

What is starch composed of?

A

Glucose in two forms.

Amylose (Alpha 1,4 glycosidic bonds)
Amyopectin (Alpha 1,6 glycosidic bonds)

116
Q

What are proteoglycans?

A

Long, unbranched polysaccharides that radiate from a core protein

117
Q

What is glycogen?

A

A storage form of glucose.

A polysaccharide of glucose with alpha 1,4 and alpha 1,6 glycosidic bonds

118
Q

What is a fatty acid?

A

A chain of carbon atoms with a methyl group at one end and a carboxyl group at the other

119
Q

What are Eicosanoids?

A

Synthesised from 20 C atom acids with 3,4,5 double bonds

120
Q

What are nucleotides composed of?

A

Nitrogenous base, sugar and phosphate

121
Q

Whta is the name for the part of the nucleotide not containing the phophate

A

Nucleoside

122
Q

Whta type of bond holds amino acids together in a chain?

A

Peptide bond

123
Q

What is a peptide bond?

A

(C=O)N(H)

124
Q

What forces hold proteins together?

A 
Van der Waals
Hydrogen bonds
Hydrophobic forces
Ionic bonds
Disulphide bridges
125
Q

What are Van der Waals forces?

A

Weak attractive interactions between atoms due to fluctuating electrical charges

126
Q

What are hydrogen bonds?

A

The strongest type of Van der Waals force.
Where a Hydrogen atom is bonded to an oxygen/fluorine/nitrogen
Hydrogen becomes partially positively charged, other atom partially negative

127
Q

What are hydrophobic forces?

A

Where uncharged and non-polar side chains are poorly soluble in water and effectively repel water

128
Q

What are ionic bonds?

A

Occur between fully or partially charged groups. these are weakened in solution as shielded by water molecules

129
Q

what are disulphide bridge bonds?

A

Convalent bonding between two sulphur atoms in the side chains of cysteine residues

130
Q

What are isoenzymes?

A

Enzymes that have a different structure and sequence but catalyse the same reaction

131
Q

What are coenzymes?

A

Complex organic structures that help maximize the repertoire of enzymes functional groups - can be metal ions or organic (derived from vitamins)

132
Q

What are activation-transfer coenzymes?

A

Coenzymes that form covalent bonds and a re regenerated at the end of the reaction

133
Q

What are oxidation-reduction coenzymes?

A

Coenzymes that are involved in reactions that involve the transfer of electrons from one compound to another

134
Q

What is the heme part of haemoglobin formed from?

A

Porphyrin ring that contains iron

135
Q

Describe the process in which CO2 is taken into a RBC and O2 is released

A

1) CO2 combines with H2O to form carbonic acid
2) Carbonic acid dissociates to HCO3- and H+
3) H+ binds to Hb
4) Hb releases O2

136
Q

Describe the process in which O2 is taken into RBC and CO2 is released

A

1) O2 binds to protonated Hb
2) Hb releases H+
3) H+ binds to HCO3- to form carbonic acid
4) Carbonic acid is cleaved to H2O and CO2

137
Q

What are 6 enzymes used with human DNA?

A

1) Polymerases
2) Helicase
3) Ligase
4) Nuclease
5) Primase
6) Topoisomerase

138
Q

In what direction does DNA polymerase read?

A

3’ to 5’

139
Q

In what direction does DNA polymerase print?

A

5’ to 3’

140
Q

What are the substrates for DNA polymerase?

A

Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates

141
Q

What is the function of Helicase?

A

Opens the two strands of DNA

142
Q

What is the function of Topoisomerase?

A

Unwinds the DNA - relieves the supercoiling

143
Q

What does 10 e6 mean?

A

10 to the power of 6

144
Q

What does kDa mean?

A

KiloDaltons - 1000 atomic mass units

Note: 1 Dalton is the mass of a H atom

145
Q

What does “S” mean?

A

It stands for Svedberg unit - it refers to the mass and shape of cellular organelles

Note: S values are not additive e.g. ribosome 70S is made up of 50S and 30S

146
Q

Describe the structure of an mRNA molecule

A

A long, linear transcript (thats a copy of DNA) with a 5’ CAP and a 3’ Poly A tail

147
Q

What is the name for the coding regions on mRNA?

A

Exons

148
Q

What is the name for non-coding regions on mRNA?

A

Introns

149
Q

What is the process in which Introns are removed from mRNA called?

A

Splicing

150
Q

At what end is the amino acid on in a tRNA molecule

A

3’ end

151
Q

What does degenerate mean in terms of DNA?

A

That each amino acid can be coded for by more than one codon (but each codon only codes for one amino acid)

152
Q

Whatis the name for the molecules that are able to initiate gene transcription?

A

Transcription factors

153
Q

What do transcription factors do?

A

1) They bind to specific sequence of 5’ end of first exon called promoter region
2) Collection of transcription factors form transcription complex
3) Helix opens, DNA seperation
4) RNA pol II starts building mRNA

154
Q

What factors turn off expression of genes?

A

1) Activation of repressors that inhibit RNA polymerase
2) Prevention of transcription complex formation
3) Enzymes not activated
4) RNA stability

155
Q

What are mutant alleles?

A

Pathogenic mutations

156
Q

What are polymorphyisms?

A

Benign variations in alleles

157
Q

What is an out of frame deletion?

A

Where a one or more nucleotides are deleted but not a whole number of codons

158
Q

What is an in frame deletion?

A

Where a whole number of codons are deleted

159
Q

Which is more serious an in frame or out of frame deletion?

A

Out of frame as this can affect all codons after the deletion whereas in frame will only affect those deleted

160
Q

What is a non-sense mutation?

A

Where the mutation results in the formation of a stop codon which means a gene is not fully transcribed

161
Q

What is a mis-sense mutation?

A

This is a single base substitution.

This means it may or may not change the amino acid and if so may not be pathogenic

162
Q

What is Allelic heterogeneity?

A

Where lots of different mutations in one gene cause a condition e.g. in cystic fibrosis

163
Q

What is locus heterogeneity?

A

Where mutations in different genes give rise to the same clinical condition e.g. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

164
Q

What is an automsome?

A

Any chromosome other than the sex chromomsomes that occur in pairs in diploid cells

165
Q

What is the definition of homozygous?

A

Presence of identical alleles at a given locus

166
Q

What is the definition of heterozygous?

A

Presence of two different alleles at a given locus

167
Q

What is the definition of allele?

A

One or more alternative forms of a gene at a given locus

168
Q

What is the definition of a locus?

A

The position of a gene

169
Q

What is consanguinity?

A

A reproductive union between two relatives

170
Q

What is autozygosity?

A

Homozygosity by descent - the inheritance of the recessive allele through two branches of the same family

171
Q

What is trisomy?

A

Where someone has three of one chromosome e.g three of chromosome 21 instead of just the normal two

172
Q

What is monosomy?

A

Where there is only one copy of a chromosome not the usual two

173
Q

How can chromosomal abnormalities be detected?

A

F.I.S.H

Fluorescence in situ hybridization - this is where DNA probes are used to detect chromosomes

174
Q

hat does hereditability mean?

A

The proportion of the aetiology that can be ascribed to genetic factors as opposed to environmental factors

175
Q

What are the characteristics of multifactorial inheritance?

A

1) Incidence is greatest in the relatives of the most severely affected
2) The risk is greatest for first degree relatives, it decreases with more distant relatives
3) If there is more than one close relative affected then the the risk for the other relatives is increased.

176
Q

What is used to identify what alleles cause conditions or increase risk?

A

Genome wide association studies (GWAS)
These involve doing genetic tests on ill patients and healthy controls and seeing if there are certain alleles that arise more frequently in the ill group

177
Q

How much energy do you get per gram of carbohydrate, protein, alcohol and lipid?

A

Carbohydrate - 4kcal/g
Protein - 4kcal/g
Alcohol - 7kcal/g
Lipid - 9kcal/g

178
Q

What is the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)?

A

The energy required to keep the body alive at rest

179
Q

Roughly what is the BMR worked out to be?

A

1kcal/kg/hour

180
Q

What are the major factors that can decrease BMR?

A

1) Age (increasing)
2) Gender (women are less)
3) Dieting/starvation
4) Hypothyroidism

181
Q

What factors can increase BMR?

A

1) Increased BMI
2) Hyperthyroidsim
3) Low ambient temperature
4) Fever/infection
5) Caffeine/stimulants
6) Pregnancy
7) Lactation

182
Q

What is the Daily Energy Expenditure?

A

It is the energy required to support BMR + physical activities + energy to process food intake

(all the energy you require in a day)

183
Q

What are the three main ways the body stores excess energy?

A

Triglycerides - 15kg
Protein - 6kg
Glycogen - 200g liver, 150g muscle

184
Q

What is meant by essential amino acids?

A

They are the amino acids we need but cannot synthesise in the body - we have to get it from our diet

185
Q

What is the definition of bioenergetics?

A

Part of biochemistry concerned with the energy involved in making and breaking chemical bonds in molecules found in biological organisms

186
Q

If Gibb’s free energy is negative what does this mean?

A

That a reaction could happen spontaneously - doesn’t mean it will however

187
Q

What type of molecule are the bases adenine and guanine?

A

Purines - two carbon nitrogen rings

188
Q

What type of molecule are the bases cytosine and thymine?

A

Pyrimidines - one carbon nitrogen ring

189
Q

What is ATP made up of?

A

Adenine
Ribose
3 Phosphates

190
Q

What are adenine and ribose together known as?

A

Adenosine

191
Q

What is the bond that is broken in ATP hydrolysis?

A

Phosphoanhydride

192
Q

How many phosphoanhydride bonds are there in ATP?

A

Two

193
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase

194
Q

What is the equation for anaerobic glycolysis?

A

Glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi = 2Lactate + 2ATP + 2H2O + 2H+

195
Q

What does AMP do in glycolysis?

A

It is an activator of phosphofructokinase-1

196
Q

What does citrate do in glycolysis?

A

Inhibits phosphofructokinase-1

197
Q

For fatty acids to be used to produce energy they are activated, but by what enzyme?

A

Fatty acyl-CoA ligase

198
Q

What does each round of beta oxidation produce?

A

1 NADH
1 FADH2
1 acetyl-CoA

199
Q

Where in the Krebs cycle is GTP formed that then forms ATP?

A

Between succinyl CoA and Succinate

200
Q

Where is NADH formed in the krebs cycle?

A

Between:
Isocitrate - alpha-ketoglutarate

Alpha-ketoglutarate - Succinyl-CoA

Malate - Oxaloacetate

201
Q

Where in the krebs cycle is FADH2 formed?

A

Between Succinate and Fumarate

202
Q

What is a free radical?

A

A molecule with an unpaired electron in the outer shell making it highly reactive

203
Q

Hydrogen peroxide is a free radical. True or False?

A

False - It is an oxidising agent in the presence of Fe2+ or other transition metals.
It generates hydroxyl radicals and is lipid soluble

204
Q

What is the Fenton Reaction?

A

H2O2 + Fe2+ -> Fe3+ + OH. + OH-

205
Q

What is the Haner-Weiss reaction?

A

O2- + H2O2 -> (H+) -> O2 + H2O + OH.

206
Q

What is the most reactive radical?

A

Hydoxyl

207
Q

What produces an organic radical?

A

When an organic molecule is attacked by a hydoxyl radical

208
Q

When is organic peroxide produced? (RCOO.)

A

During lipid degradation

209
Q

What is the consequence of free radicals?

A

1) Damage to proteins, lipids and carbohydrates
2) Damage to membranes of nucleus, mitochondria, ER and the cells
3) Increased permeability of calcium, water and sodium

210
Q

What defences are there against oxygen toxicity?

A

1) Antioxidant enzymes
2) Cellular compartmentalization
3) Antioxidant vitamins
4) Repair

211
Q

What are examples of antioxidant enzymes?

A

1) Superoxide dismutase
2) Catalase
3) Gluthathione peroxidase

212
Q

What does Superoxide dismutase do?

A

Turns superoxide to hydrogen peroxide

213
Q

What does Catalase do?

A

Converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen

214
Q

What are the antioxidant vitamins?

A

Vitamin E
Vitamin C
Carotenoids

215
Q

What does vitamin E do in terms of free radicals?

A

Terminates free radical propagation in membranes (Lipophilic)

216
Q

What does vitamin C do in terms of free radicals?

A

Reacts with superoxide and hydroxyl anion

Regenerates reduced vitamin E

217
Q

What is the definition of Homeostasis?

A

The maintenance of a constant internal environment

218
Q

In what ways can cells communicate?

A

1) Hormones
2) Electrical
3) Ions

219
Q

What is autocrine cell communication?

A

Cells communicate with themselves

220
Q

What is paracrine cell communication?

A

Cells communicate with nearby cells.

Signal diffuses across gap, inactivated locally so doesn’t enter blood stream

Neurotransmitter is an example

221
Q

What is endocrine cell communication?

A

Where cells communicate with cells anywhere in the body.

This is done through hormones

222
Q

What are the endocrine organs?

A

1) Hypothalamus
2) Pituitary gland
3) Thyroid gland
4) Parathyroid gland
5) Adrenals
6) Pancreas
7) Ovaries
8) Testes

223
Q

What are the 6 hypothalamic hormones?

A

1) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone
2) Growth hormone-releasing hormone
3) Somatostatin
4) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
5) Corticotropin-releasing hormone
6) Dopamine

224
Q

What are the 6 Anterior Pituitary gland hormones?

A

1) Follicle stimulating hormone
2) Lutenising hormone
3) Growth hormone
4) Thyroid stimulating hormone
5) Prolactin
6) Adrendocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

225
Q

What are the 2 posterior pituitary hormones?

A

1) Oxytocin

2) ADH (Vassopressin)

226
Q

What type of hormones are: Adrenaline, thyroid hormone, insulin and growth hormone?

A

Peptide hormones

227
Q

What type of hormones are testosterone, oestrogen and cortisol?

A

Steroid hormones

228
Q

Are peptide hormones fast or slow acting?

A

Fast

229
Q

Are steroid hormones fast or slow acting?

A

Slow

230
Q

What is an oedema?

A

Excess water in the intercellular tissue spaces

231
Q

What is a serous effusion?

A

Excess water in a body cavity

232
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasslebalch equation?

A

pH = pK + log([HCO3-]/[CO2])

233
Q

What are the main groups of buffers in the body?

A

1) Intracellular proteins
2) Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
3) Red blood cells
4) Plasma proteins

Phase 1 Cards (13 decks)

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