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Ch. 20 Angiography and Interventional Procedures > Image Procedures > Flashcards

Image Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except:
A. the right lung has three lobes
B. the inferior portion of the lung is the apex
C. each lung is enclosed in serous membrane
D. the main stem bronchi enter the lung hilum

A

B. the inferior portion of the lung is the apex

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2
Q

All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except:
A. the orbitmeatal line is perpendicular to the IR
B. The petrous pyramids fill the orbits
C. the midsagittal plane is parallel to the IR

A

C. the midsagittal plane is parallel to the IR

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3
Q 
The term varus refers to:
A. turned outward
B. turned inward
C. rotated medially
D. rotated laterally
A

B. turned inward

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4
Q 
The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
A. scapular Y
B. AP scapula
C. Medial oblique elbow
D. Lateral oblique
A

C. Medial oblique elbow

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5
Q 
Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the
A. left atrium
B. right atrium
C. left ventricle
D. right ventricle
A

D. right ventricle

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6
Q 
Widening of the intercostal spaces is characteristic of which of the following conditions:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Emphysema
C. Pleural effusion
D. Pneumonia
A

B. Emphysema

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7
Q 
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
1. Hepatic flexure
2. Gallbladder
3. Ilocecal valve
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3
A

B. 1 and 2 only

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8
Q 
During an upper gastrointestinal examination, a stomatch of average shape demonstrates a barium filled fundus and double contrast of the pylrous and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely:
A. AP erect 
B. PA
C. RAO
D. LPO
A

D. LPO

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9
Q 
Which of the following articulations participates in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3
A

B. 1 and 3

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10
Q 
Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?
A. Mediolateral
B. Lateromedial
C. Lateral weight bearing
D. 30- degree medial oblique
A

C. Lateral weight bearing

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11
Q 
To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made 
A. on normal inspiration 
B. on inspiration, second breath
C. on expiration
D. during shallow breathing
A

C. on expiration

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12
Q 
In the AP axial projection of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
A. Occipital bone
B. Frontal bone
C. Facial bone
D. Basal foramina
A

A. Occipital bone

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13
Q 
The right posterior oblique position of the right acetabulum will best demonstrate
1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum
2. right iliac wing
3. right anterior iliopubic column
A. 1 
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D.1,2,3
A

B. 1 and 2

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14
Q 
A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following position?
A. AP
B. PA
C. RAO
D. LAO
A

C. RAO

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15
Q 
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?
A. spondylitis
B. Spondylolysis
C. Spondylolisthesis
D. Spondylosis
A

C. Spondylolisthesis

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16
Q 
During atrial systole, blood flows into the 
1. right ventricle via mitral valve
2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve
3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
A. 1 
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3
A

C. 2 and 3

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17
Q

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?
A. oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees
B. Use a support sponge for the carpals closer to the IR
C. Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR
D. Ulnar flexion

A

A. oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees

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18
Q 
All of the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except:
A. weight bearing
B. RAO
C. LAO
D. PA
A

A. weight bearing

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19
Q 
Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?
A. AP
b. PA
C. RPO
D. LPO
A

D. LPO

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20
Q

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?
1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process
A. 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D 1,2,3

A

B. 1 and 2

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21
Q 
Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity
A. Lateral decubitus, affected side up
B. Lateral decubitus, affected side down
C. AP trendelenburg
D. AP supine
A

A. Lateral decubitus, affected side up

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22
Q 
Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection:
A. Esophagus
B. Trachea
C. Cardiac apex
D. Superimposed scapular borders
A

C. Cardiac ape

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23
Q 
For an AP projections of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint
A. 5 caudad
B. 10 caudad
C. 5 cephalad
D. 0
A

D. 0

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24
Q 
In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?
1. Supine flexion 45 (merchant)
2. Prone flexion 90 (settegast)
3. Prone flexion 55 (Hughston) 
A.1
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3
A

A.1

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25
Q

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional open mouth projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated
A. AP of Pa through the foramen magnum
B. AP oblique with right and left rotation
C. Horizontal beam lateral
D. AP axial

A

A. AP of Pa through the foramen magnum

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26
Q 
The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except:
A. temporal
B. occipital
C. ethmoid 
D. sphenoid
A

B. occipital

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27
Q 
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
1. a fracture
2. foreign body
3. soft tissue
A. 1 
b. 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
A

C. 2 and 3

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28
Q 
The condition that results from a persistent fetal foramen ovale is 
A. an atrial septal defect
B. a ventricular septal defect
C. a patent ductus arteriosus
D. coarctation of the aorta
A

A. an atrial septal defect

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29
Q 
Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subcromial or subcoracoid dislocation
A. Tangential 
B. AP axial
C. Transthoracic lateral
D. PA oblique scapulary Y
A

D. PA oblique scapulary Y

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30
Q 
Which of the following projections can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax?
1. RAO
2. LAO
3. RPO
A. 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3
A

C. 2 and 3

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31
Q 
In which projection of the foot are the interior spaces b/w the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?
A. lateral oblique
B. Medial oblique
C. Lateral
D. Weight bearing foot
A

A. lateral oblique

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32
Q 
The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the:
A. T2-3 
B. T9-10
C. T5
D. costal margin
A

C. T5

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33
Q 
Which of the following structures is (are located in the right upper quadrant?
1. spleen
2. gallbladder
3. hepatic flexure
A. 1
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3
A

C. 2 and 3

34
Q 
To demonstrate esphageal varices, the patient must be examined in 
A. recumbent position
B. erect
C. anatomic position
D. Fowler position
A

A. recumbent position

35
Q 
The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is
A. red marrow
B. yellow marrow
C. cortical tissue
D. cancellous tissue
A

B. yellow marrow

36
Q 
All of the following structures are associated with the femur except 
A. popliteal surface
B. intercondyloid fossa
C. intertrochanteric line
D. lineas aspera
A

C. intertrochanteric line

37
Q 
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?
A. Medial oblique 15-20
B. Lateral oblique 15-20
C. Medial oblique 45
D. Lateral oblique 45
A

A. Medial oblique 15-20

38
Q

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
A. Ishial tuberosity
B. Prominenece of the greater trochanter
C. Anterosuperior iliac spine
D. Anteroinferior iliac spine

A

B. Prominenece of the greater trochanter

39
Q 
Which position of the shoulder would demonstrate the lesser tubercle in profile medially?
A. AP
B. external rotation
C. Internal rotation
D. Neutral
A

C. Internal rotation

40
Q 
With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?
A. 5-10 degrees caudad
B. 5-15 degrees cephalad
C. 15-30 cephalad
D. 15-30 caudad
A

D. 15-30 caudad

41
Q 
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
A. Avulsion fracture
B. Torus
C. Comminuted
D. Compound
A

A. Avulsion fracture

42
Q 
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help for the elbow joint?
A. semilunar/trochlear notch
B. Radial head
C. Capitulum
D. Trochlea
A

D. Trochlea

43
Q 
Movement of a part toward the mid line of the body is termed:
A. eversion
B. inversion
C. abduction
D. adduction
A

D. adduction

44
Q 
During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the 
A. subdural space
B. subarachnoid
C. epidural
D. epidermal space
A

B. subarachnoid

45
Q 
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the:
A. diploe
B. lambda
C. bregma
D. pterion
46
Q 
The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the Scotty dog seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar?
A. eye
B. nose
C. body 
D. ear
47
Q 
An injury to s structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as 
A. blowout
B. le fort
C. contracture
D. contrecoup
A

D. contrecoup

48
Q 
In which of the following position can the seasmoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
A. Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
B. Tangential metatarsals/ toes
C. 30 degress medial oblique
D. 30 degree lateral oblique
A

B. Tangential metatarsals/ toes

49
Q 
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?
A. Ewing sarcoma
B. Osgood Schlatter disease
C. Gout
D. Exostosis
A

B. Osgood Schlatter disease

50
Q 
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
1. manubrium
2. clavicles
3. 24 ribs
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1 and 3 
D. 1,2,3
A

C. 1 and 3

51
Q 
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
A. right main stem bronchus
B. left main stem bronchus
C. esophagus
D. proximal stomatch
A

A. right main stem bronchus

52
Q 
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
A. Radial head
B. Ulnar head
C. Coronoid process
D. Olecranon process
A

C. Coronoid process

53
Q 
The structures forming the brain stem include
1. pons
2. medulla oblongata
3. midbrain
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3
54
Q 
The Cr will parallel the intervetebral foramina in which of the following projections
1. lateral cervical spine
2. lateral thoracic spine
3.lateral lumbar spine
A. 1 
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3
A

C. 2 and 3

55
Q 
What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine ASIS and pubic symphysis?
A. Dome the acetabulum
B. femoral neck
C. greater trochanter
D. iliac crest
A

A. Dome the acetabulum

56
Q 
The articular facets L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)
A. AP projections
B. 30 degree oblique
C. 45 degree oblique
D. AP axial
A

B. 30 degree oblique

57
Q

The patient’s chin should be elevated during chest radiography to
A. permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position
B. avoid superimposition on the apices
C. assist in maintaining an upright position
D. keep the MSP parallel

A

B. avoid superimposition on the apices

58
Q 
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the 
A. diaphysis
B. epiphysis
C. metaphysis 
D. apophysis
A

B. epiphysis

59
Q 
Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would best demonstrated in the 
A. AP projection
B. lateral projection
C. medial oblique
D. lateral oblique
A

A. AP projection

60
Q 
The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the scotty dog seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
A. eye
B. nose
C. body
D. neck
61
Q 
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
A. AP
B. 90 degrees internal rotation
C. 45 degree internal rotation
D. 45 degree external rotation
A

C. 45 degree internal rotation

62
Q 
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
A. Foramen magnum
B. Trachea
C. Pharynx
D. C4
63
Q 
During a double contrast BE which of the following positions would afford the best double contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?
A. AP or PA erect
B. Right lateral decubitus 
C. Left lateral decubitus
D. Ventral decubitus
A

B. Right lateral decubitus

64
Q 
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
A. Pyelonephrosis
B. Nephroptosis
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Cystourethritis
A

C. Hydronephrosis

65
Q 
Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through uterine cannula?
A. retrograde pyleogram
B. Voiding cystourethrogram
C. Hysterosalpingogram
D. Myelogram
A

C. Hysterosalpingogram

66
Q

All of the following statements regarding large bowel radiography is true except
A. the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination
B. retained fecal material can obscure pathology
C. single contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions
D. double contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions

A

C. single contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions

67
Q

In a lateral projection of the knee, the
1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia
2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized
3. femoral condyles should be superimposed
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3

A

D. 1, 2, 3

68
Q 
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which postion?
A. AP
B. Lateral 
C. Acute flexion
D. AP partial flexion
A

B. Lateral

69
Q 
The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is 
A. hempotysis
B. hematemesis
C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. bronchitis
A

A. hempotysis

70
Q 
Double contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
A. position of the organ
B. size and shape of the organ
C. diverticula
D. gastric or bowel mucosa
A

D. gastric or bowel mucosa

71
Q 
Which of the following are mediastinal structures
1. heart
2. trachea
3. esophagus
A. 1 
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3 
D. 1,2,3
72
Q 
In which of the following positions of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?
A. AP
B. External rotation
C. Internal rotation 
D. Neutral rotation
A

C. Internal rotation

73
Q 
With the patient in the Camp conventry position, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?
A. Patella
B. Patellofemoral articulation
C. Intercondyloid fossa
D. Tibial tuberosity
A

C. Intercondyloid fossa

74
Q 
Ulnar flexion will best demonstrate which carpal(s)
1. Medial
2. lateral
3. Scaphoid
A. 1 
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3
A

C. 2 and 3

75
Q 
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
A. closed
B. compound
C. compression
D. depressed
A

B. compound

76
Q

The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated with the
A. coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR
B. midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR
C. coronal plane 20 degrees to the IR
D. midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

A

D. midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

77
Q 
The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the 
A. transverse process
B. vertebral arches
C. laminae
D. pedicles
A

C. laminae

78
Q

The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed

a. mechanical
b. paralytic
c. asypmtomatic
d. sterile

A

b. paralytic

79
Q 
The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach is the 
A. asthenic
B. hyposthenic
C. sthenic
D. hypersthenic
A

A. asthenic

80
Q

A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?

  1. sacral vertebrae
  2. thoracic vertebrae
  3. lumbar vertebrae
81
Q 
That ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the 
A. diaphysis
B. epiphysis
C. metaphysis
D. apophysis
A

C. metaphysis

Ch. 20 Angiography and Interventional Procedures (13 decks)

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