IM- Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

Tx for prolactinoma with macroprolactinoma (>1cm) (2)

A

Dopaminergic agonists

Cabergoline & Bromocriptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In primary adrenal insufficiency, the effect on
Cortisol
ACTH
Aldosterone

A

Cortisol- LOW
ACTH- HIGH
Aldosterone- LOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In secondary/pituitary (central) adrenal insufficiency, the effect on
Cortisol
ACTH
Aldosterone

A

Cortisol- LOW
ACTH- LOW
Aldosterone- Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4 presentation of Primary adrenal insufficiency

A
  • Hyperpigmentation
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1 presentation of secondary & tertiary adrenal insufficiency

A
  • possible hyponatremia (mild symptom)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by

A

Pituitary- chronic glucocorticoid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by

A

hypothalamic- chronic glucocorticoid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is

A

Autoimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which MEN types are involved in Parathyroid adenoma?

A

MEN 1 & 2A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fatigue, constipation, abd pain, renal stones, bone pain, neuropsychiatric symoptoms

A

Primary hyperparathyrodism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Labs to take for hyperparathyroidism (3)

A
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Elevated or inappropriately normal PTH
  • Elevated 24hr urinary calcium excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FNA biopsy with large cells with ground glass cytoplasm, and pale nuclei containing inclusion bodies and central grooving consistent with ? Tx?

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

Surgical resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Exogenous thyroid hormone is characterized by

A

Low serum thyroglobulin level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The key pathogenic factor in the development of Type 2 DM and associated abnormalities (hypertension and dyslipidemia )

A

Central-type obesity (insulin resistance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a fall in total and free T3 levels with normal T4 & TSH levels

A

Euthyroid sick syndrome (Low T3 syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The 4 main substrates of gluconeogenesis are

A

alanine (gets converted to pyruvate)
glutamine
lactate
glycerol-3-phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5 causes of osteomalacia

A
malabsorption
intestinal bypass surgery
celiac sprue
chronic liver disease
chronic kidney disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
Diagnose of osteomalacia 
AK & PTH level?
Serum Calcium and Phosphorus level?
Urinary calcium level?
25 OH-D level?
A

AK & PTH level- High
Serum Calcium and Phosphorus level- Low
Urinary calcium level- Low
25 OH-D level- Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the x-ray findings in osteomalacia?

A
  • thinning of cortex with reduced bone density

- bilateral and symmetric pseudofractures (looser zones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tx for unilateral adrenal adenoma (2)

A
  • Surgery

- Aldosterone antagonists (Spironolactone, eplerenone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tx for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

A
  • Aldosterone antagonists (Spironolactone, eplerenone)
22
Q

3 agents used for Diabetic gastroparesis

A
  • Metoclopramide
  • Erythromycin
  • Cisapride
23
Q

Proximal muscle weakness in the setting of clinical features of hyperthyroidism

A

Chronic hyperthyroid myopathy

24
Q

Type of cancer that has increased incidence 60 times greater in patients with preexisting Chronic lymphocytic (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis.

A

Thyroid lymphoma

25
Q

_____ used to predict the risk of future food ulcers in a diabetic neuropathic foot

A

Monofilament testing

26
Q

Level of prolactin that is diagnostic for prolactinoma is

A

> 200ng/mL

27
Q

What are included in MEN2B (3)

A
  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Medullary thyroid cancer (Calcitonin)
  • Mucosal neuromas/Marfanoid habitus
28
Q

What are included in MEN2A (3)

A
  • Medullary thyroid cancer (calcitonin)
  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Mucosal neuromas/marfanoid habitus
29
Q

What gene mutation is involved in MEN2

A

RET-proto-oncogene on chromosome 10

30
Q

The most beneficial therapy to reduce the progression of diabetic nephropathy is

A

Strict blood pressure control (goal <130/80)

31
Q

Postpartum adrenal insufficiency can be due to

A

primary (adrenal ) or secondary (pituitary)

32
Q

40-45% of blood calcium is bound to

A

albumin and other proteins

33
Q

With Primary polydipsia, Sodium level is

A

Low

Hyponatriemia

34
Q

With central DI, Sodium level is

A

High

Hypernatremia

35
Q

With nephrogenic DI, Sodium level is

A

normal

36
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism
Renin-
Aldosterone-

A

Renin- LOW

Aldosterone- HIGH

37
Q

Secondary hyperaldosteronism

A

Renin- HIGH

Aldosterone- HIGH

38
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism causes (2)

A
  • Aldosterone-Producing tumor

- Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

39
Q

Secondary hyperaldosteronism causes (4)

A
  • Renovascular hypertension
  • Malignant hypertension
  • Renin-secreting tumor
  • Diuretic use
40
Q

autonomous production of thyroid hormones from the hyperplastic thyroid follicular cells

A

Hyperthyroidism from toxic adenoma

41
Q

3 ways to diagnoses Cushing syndrome

A
  • 24hr urinary cortisol excretion
  • Late-night salivary cortisol assay
  • Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
42
Q

the 3 osteoclast activities from excess thyroid hormone are

A
  • increased bone resorption
  • decrease bone density
  • increased fracture risk
43
Q

Someone with elevated calcitonin and a lump in the neck, two diseases to consider

A

MEN2

  • Medullary thyroid cancer
  • Pheochromocytoma (Check metanephrine)
44
Q

flushing, watery diarrhea (tea colored), hypochlorhydria, mass on a pancreatic tail

A

VIPoma

Carcinoid is in the small intestine

45
Q

3 treatments for Graves disease

A
  • Antithyroid drugs (methimazole & PTU)
  • Radioiodine ablation
  • Surgery
46
Q

SE for Antihtyroid drugs

A

agranulocytosis

47
Q

SE for Methimazole (2)

A

1st trimester teratogen, cholestasis

48
Q

SE for Propylthoiuracil (PTU)2

A

Hepatic failure, ANCA-associated vasulitis

49
Q

SE for Radioiodine ablation (3)

A
  • Permanent hypothyrodism
  • Worsening of ophthalmopathy
  • Possible radiation side effects
50
Q

Diarrhea with foul-smelling and floating, abd cramp, wt loss, fatigue, diffuse bone pain, hgb 9.8, MCV 72.
Dx?
Ca, Ph, PTH levels?

A

Chronic GI disease (steotorrhea, celiac disease…)- VIt D deficiency
Ca- LOW
Ph- LOW
PTH- HIGH