Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 > IM > Flashcards

IM Flashcards

1
Q

EPISODIC headache, palpitations, sweating (diaphoresis)

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In HIV/AIDS –> solitary esophageal ulcer, retinitis (floaters in eye), colitis

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Myeloproliferative disorder –> increased RBCs, WBCs, platelets

Predisposes to Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

Polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of aorta

Short female, webbed neck (cystic hygromas), XO karyotype

A

Turner syndrome (heart defects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Endocrine disorder w/ high correlation w/ pernicious anemia (megaloblastic anemia)

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cold-agglutinin hemolytic anemia

“Squeaks” on ausc.

A

Mycoplasma/Chlamydia pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Common in women shortly after childbirth from position of holding/lifting baby

Inflammation of abductor pollicus longus & extensor pollicus brevis

A

de Quervain’s tenosynovitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Inflammation and thrombosis in superficial veins (usually legs) that feel like palpable cords

Associated w/ pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

Migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Microcytic anemia w/ normal RBC count & normal RDW

MCV very low; hematocrit slightly reduced

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Refractory epigastric pain despite PPI treatment

Diarrhea & epigastric pain

Solitary ulcer in duodenum

A

Gastrinoma/ZE syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Onset of hypertension in females under 35 yo

Activates RAAS (hypokalemia)

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Rhinorrhea, sneezing, allergic conjuctivitis

Classification:
    Intermittent (s/s  4 days/week or > 4 weeks)
    Mild
    Moderate-severe (1+ of following present):
        Impaired school work/performance
        Impaired daily/sport activities
        Sleep disturbance
        Troublesome s/s

Complications: sinusitis, asthma, nasal polyps

A

Allergic rhinosinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes of reversible agranulocytosis

A

Hyperthyroidism drugs –> propylthiouracil & methimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inflammatory disorder of small/medium blood vessels & nerves of extremities.

Look for:
MALE SMOKER
Normal proximal pulses; decreased-absent distal pulses
Ischemic ulcerations
Rest pain in distal extremities
Corkscrew pattern seen on angiogram (tortuous)

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

RTA Type ____

Pathophys: No distal tubular acid secretion
Nephrocalcinosis & nephrolithiasis
U/A: alkalotic urine (high pH) w/ low serum H+ (low pH)
Hypokalmeia
Dx: acid load test
Tx: oral HCO3

A

RTA Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

RTA Type ___

Pathophys: No proximal tubular HCO3 absorption
Osteomalacia & rickets
U/A: alkalotic urine w/ deceased urine output
Hypokalmeia
Dx: HCO3 load test (levels stay low)
Tx: volume restriction first; may use HCO3/thiazides

A

RTA Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RTA Type ___

Pathophys: Adrenal/aldosterone deficiency
*Hyperkalemia
U/A: Na excretion (high in urine) w/ K-H retention
Dx: Na restriction (high urinary sodium)
Tx: fludrocortisone

A

RTA Type 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adults w/ mild GI s/s and may have unexplained nutritional deficiencies

*Unresponsive Fe-deficiency anemia (repeated anemia refractory to tx)

Anti-endomysial Ab & Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies

A

Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Anatomical variation that predisposes to AAA & aortic dissection

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Large stone impacted in cystic duct that externally compresses & obstructs the adjacent common hepatic duct. Results in intrahepatic bile duct dilation w/ obstructive cholestasis (jaundice)

A

Mirizzi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prone to arterial/venous thrombus formation b/c of hyper-coaguable state –> can manifest as flank pain & hematuria

A

Nephrotic syndrome (membranous nephropathy w/ decreased antithrombin III)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bone marrow failure w/ TdT (+) cells; “meningeal leukemia” if relapsed

Tx w/ intrathecal methotrexate

A

ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Scleroderma is associated w/ esophageal dysfunction secondary to fibrosis. This defect in either 1) peristalsis or 2) LES function can lead to:

A

Chronic acid reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drug that interrupts the interpretation of EKG during a presentation of ACS b/c it causes non-specific EKG changes

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

New onset ascites in elderly woman

A

Ovarian cancer (peritoneal carcinomatosis - ovarian mets to peritoneal cavity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fever, ALTERED MENTAL STATUS, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, acute renal failure (not severe), thrombocytopenia, PURPURA

The drug Quinine associated w/ this

A

TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Seen mainly in children/teens after a GI infection w/ E.coli

UREMIA (elevated BUN/ammonia), post-infection, SEVERE RENAL FAILURE (high creatinine)

A

HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dopamine INHIBITS what hormone?

A

Prolactin

High prolactin/low dopamine (usually drugs) causes decreased GnRH, LH, FSH
Oligomenorrhea, gynecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Autoimmune disease of cartilage-containing structures (ear, nose, laryngotracheal tree)

Laryngotracheal inflammation & destruction leads to tracheal luminal narrowing and peritracheal inflammation, destroying the supportive matrix around the trachea –> COLLAPSE of trachea on expiration is exaggerated (decreased expiratory volume)

A

Polychondritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Kaposi sarcoma associated with which virus and disease?

How does it appear and where?

A

Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
AIDS defining disease

Multiple violaceous papules on LE, face, oral mucosa, and genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hypoglycemia that eventually causes nocturnal release of GH & cortisol –> causes nocturnal hyperglycemia that causes the increased morning glucose levels

Normal physiologic phenomenon

A

Dawn phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2 causes of acute renal failure (immediate)

A 
IV contrast (direct toxicity to renal tubules)
IV Acyclovir (causes crystaluria)

*Make sure you pre-treat w/ IV fluids before and after these 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Abs that causes delayed renal failure (3 days after starting)

A

Vancomycin (long volume of distribution if PO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Common causes of pancreatitis

A 
Gallstones (female, fat, forty, fertile)
EtOH
Drugs (sulfas, HCTZ, HIV drugs - look if recently started)
ERCP
Hypertriglyceridemia (>1000)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Situations where MUST give IV fluids

A

Pancreatitis, sepsis, DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Causes of increased LFTs

A 
TYLENOL OD (values in thousands)
Acute viral hepatitis (values in hundreds)
Shock liver (hypotension and decreased perfusion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Contraindicated in ARF, EXCEPT in sclerodermal renal crisis (intra-renal B/L stenosis)

A

ACEi/ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Heparin bridging to Coumadin protocol

A

INR needs to be b/w 2-3 for 2 consecutive days

Need at least 4 days of heparin before D/C it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Coumadin-like drugs (Dabigatran, Apixaban, Rivaroxaban) and their effects

A

Pros:
Fewer strokes
Fewer major bleeds (joints, brain, eye cavity, spinal)
No INR monitoring

Cons:
More GI bleeds
No antidote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sulfa drugs

A

Disrupt folate pathway –> cause megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cocaine-related MI –> contraindication for what drug tx

A

B-blocker (results in hypertensive crisis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica association

A

Temporal arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Transient monocular blindness from ischemia to retinal artery

A

Amaurosis fugax (associated w/ TIA)

Hollenhorst plaques: cholesterol emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

2 common causes of painless, bright red rectal bleeding

A

Diverticulosis

Angiodysplasia (dilated, slow filling veins in colon wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

6 P’s of vascular assessment

A

Pain, Pallor, Pulseless, Paralysis, Paresthesias, Poikloithermia (cold)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Drug causing fibrotic changes in lungs that can mimic cancer nodules & can also cause hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Drugs that increase the QT interval

A 
Anti-arrhythmics (Class I & III)
Haloperidol, thioridazine
Methadone, oxycodone
Macrolides
Ondansetron
Quinolones, metronidazole, HIV drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pneumonia w/ diarrhea & hyponatremia

A

Legionnaires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pneumonia w/ hepatitis

A

Q fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Asthma (allergic rhinitis), eosinophilia, vasculitis

A

Churgg-Strauss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Important formulas

A

Corrected Na = (Na) + [0.016 x (glucose - 100)]
Corrected Ca = measured Ca + [0.8 x (4 - Alb)]
Serum Osm = 2(Na) + [Glu/18] + [BUN/2.8]
Cockcroft-Gault (Cr clearance) = ([140-age] x wt) / (Cr x 72)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Classic Multiple Sclerosis onset of symptoms

A

Eye/visual problems (ophthalmoplegia) followed by foot/hand paralysis or numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Metoclopramide s/e

A

Parkinsonism-like s/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Someone w/ WPW that presents w/ new onset AFib - DOC?

A

Procainamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Anti-arrhythmic that interacts w/ Coumadin to increase INR?

A

Amiodarone - must decrease the Coumadin levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Charcot’s triad?

A

3 signs with obstructive ascending CHOLANGITIS

1) fever
2) jaundice (total bilirubin >3)
3) RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Reynold’s pentad?

A

Severe obstructive ascending cholangitis

Charcot’s triad + hypotension (shock) & altered mental status (confusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Side effect of concern w/ nitroprusside?

Antidote?

A

Methemoglobinemia (b/c nitroprusside contains cyanide)

Amyl nitrite
sodium nitrite, thiosulfate, hydroxycobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Todd’s paralysis?

A

Transient focal neurological deficits that occur immediately AFTER a seizure (convulsions w/ intra-oral lesions & in continence) in the post-ictal phase and resolve after this phase

NOT a stroke!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Why glucagon for B-blocker OD?

A

Glucagon stimulates the production of cAMP via a pathway that is separate from the pathway that B-receptor activation causes increased cAMP production

Excessive B-blockers = decreased cAMP (hypoglycemia, bradycardia, hypotension, hyperkalemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Type of eating disorder where patient is a “perfectionist”

“Young patient who is extremely competitive and high-achieving with a low BMI (< 18.5)

A

Anorexia Nervosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Only time to use benzo’s for delirium?

A

DT’s!

Benzo withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Signs of lead poisoning?

A

*Purple lines on gingiva (gums)

Foot/wrist drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Antidote for methemoglobinemia?

A

Methylene Blue

*Different than CYANIDE poisoning (also from nitroprusside). The methylene blue converts Fe+3 –> Fe+2 where cyanide you need amyl nitrite to convert the remaining RBC to methemoglobin to bind the CN then give thiosulfate to regenerate the reducing power of glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Patient develops dyspnea 2 days after beginning course of antibiotics for pyelonephritis. What is the diagnosis and why?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) –> 1-2 days after Abx are given, if the organism is gram NEGATIVE, the lysis of the bacteria release the endotoxins –> these endotoxins cause pulmonary injury, leading to capillary leakage of fluid into pulmonary interstitial space (“capillary leakage”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What CMP component will be increased w/ a GI bleed and why?

A

BUN –> digested blood in the GI tract is a source of urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Most common cause of testicular torsion?

A

Bell-Clapper deformity: the anterior portion of testicle is not anchored to the scrotum, allowing for testicle movement

Another common cause of torsion is during sleep when the cremaster muscle is active during REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Prehyn’s test?

A

Support the base of testicles and elevate them - if this relieves the testicular pain –> think epididymitis

Helps to differentiate between testicular torsion (no pain relief) vs. epididymitis (relief of pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Highest risk for diabetic foot ulcers?

A

Diabetic Peripheral Neuropathy

MOA: multifactorial and is thought to result from vascular disease occluding the vasa nervorum; endothelial dysfunction; deficiency of myoinositol-altering myelin synthesis and diminishing sodium-potassium adenine triphosphatase (ATPase) activity; chronic hyperosmolarity, causing edema of nerve trunks; and effects of increased sorbitol and fructose. Other etiologies of diabetic ulceration include arterial disease, pressure, and foot deformity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cushing’s triad?

A

1) Irregular breathing/apnea
2) Increased MAP
3) Bradycardia

Suggests marked increase in ICP and impending brain herniation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Earliest indicator of hypovolemia?

A

Decreased renal output

The renal blood flow is decreased as a compensatory mechanism to make blood volume available to the body.

Timeline of changes in hypotension:
Lower urine output –> + tilt test –> tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What to worry about when treating G(-) infections?

A

Endotoxins released from lysis of bacteria can cause damage throughout the body

E.g. –> endotoxins cause endothelial damage & pulmonary injury –> capillary leakage –> fluid moves from intravascular space into alveolar spaces –> ARDS!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What 2 compounds affect iron absorption in duodenum?

A

Vitamin C = increases iron absorption

Calcium = decreases iron absorption (have to be careful with women taking supplements during pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Seizures vs Pseudoseizures?

A

Seizures

 - Eyes are OPEN
 - Post-ictal period: confusion & altered mental status
 - "Floppy" appearance during event

Pseudoseizures

 - Not true seizures, but they are real!
 - Eyes are CLOSED
 - No confusion or altered mental status
 - Immediately after, coherent and alert
 - During event, "tight" and rigid appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Low vs High doses of Epinephrine?

A

Low doses: B+ effects (increased HR/force; vasodilate & decreased TPR or diastolic pressure)

High doses: a+ effects (vasoconstrict & increase TPR or diastolic pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

CO monoxide poisoning - what do you see?

A
  • Suspect more in winter time
  • Pt has POOR O2 SATURATION, but physical exam is normal (clear airway, no increased breathing effort, no abnormal breath sounds, no discoloration of skin)

Tx: 100% O2 continuously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Recurrent thromboembolic events (DVT/PE) & recurrent miscarriages?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)

  • Recurrent small PE’s can result in pulmonary HTN –> progressive dyspnea
  • Anti-phospholipid antibodies present (test w/ Lupus anticoagulant or anticardiolipin ELISA)
  • Criteria
    1) thrombosis in any organ/tissue or pregnancy (miscarriage)
    2) persistently positive aPL levels (> 12 weeks apart in testing)
  • Dermatologic effects: digital cyanosis, livedo reticularis, digital gangrene, leg ulcers
  • Tx:
    • Aspirin (inhibit platelet aggregation)
    • Warfarin (inhibit clotting cascade)
    • LMWH/aspirin used in pregnancy b/c of teratogenic effects of warfarin
    • Maintain INR b/w 2-3 FOR LIFE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

3 types of holosystolic murmurs?

A 
Tricuspid regurgitation (radiate to back)
Mitral regurgitation (radiate to axilla)
VSD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Cellulitis vs Stasis Dermatitis vs DVT?

A

Cellulitis: commonly asymmetrical (one leg)

 * very PAINFUL
 - hot to touch, pattern of redness is uniform (same height on leg)
 - increased WBC
 - Tx: Abx (Keflex - cefalexin)

Stasis Dermatitis: result of venous insufficiency (blood pools in lower leg veins & fluid/RBC leak out into surrounding tissues)

* ITCHY
- Skin looks like cobblestone (bumpy), dry/cracked
- Skin sores can appear
- Tx: topical steroid cream & ointment

DVT

* ALWAYS r/o in U/L leg swelling and pain!
- Tx: Lovenox and Ultrasound of leg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Why is blood ammonia increased during GI bleed?

A

RBC digestion in the GI tract results in excess hemoglobin breakdown to basic proteins –> this increased nitrogen load is absorbed into bloodstream –> can lead to encephalopathy (confusion, altered mental status, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Person presents w/ facial palsy (Bell’s palsy) & hearing loss on the same side along with vesicular-like lesions in/around the ear?

A

Ramsey-Hunt Syndrome

  • VZV residing in geniculate ganglion (of CN7 & runs next to CN8 in internal acoustic meatus)
  • Look for vesicles on the outer ear looking like zoster
  • CN 7-8 involved (facial deficits + hearing loss all on one side)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Atypical presentation of MI?

A

U/L neck pain, nausea, vomiting –> esp in women/diabetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

U/L headache that is daily & continuous w/ pain-free periods w/ at least 1 of the following:

 - conjunctival injection
 - lacrimation
 - nasal congestion
 - rhinorrhea
 - ptosis 
 - miosis
A

Hemicrania Continuum

*Tx: indomethacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

PAINFUL goiter following a URI (viral illness)?

A

Subacute thryoidits (De Quervain’s)

Progression: hyperthyroid –> hypothyroid –> euthyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Characteristics of Papillary thyroid cancer?

Characteristics of Medullary thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary

 - Psammoma bodies (concentric calcifications)
 - Orphan Annie bodies (cells appear empty)

Medullary
- Produce Calcitonin (marker for monitoring)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Person with tachycardia, high BP, sweating, anxiety and recently got over an infection or a stressor in their life?

A

Thyroid storm

  • Usually follows a precipitating factor –> infection, stress, DKA
  • Tx: aggressive fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Purpura is the hallmark of what process?

A

Leukocytoclastic vasculitis (small vessel vasculitis)

Caused by inflammation of small cutaneous vessels –> wall damage and extravasation of RBC into surrounding tissue –> seen as purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Palpable purpura is hallmark of what 2 infectious processes?

A

Neisseria meningitis & Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Why do you get alkalosis w/ taking loop diuretics?

A

Loops cause excretion of Na (& H2O), K, and Cl in the urine and lower the blood levels –> decreased K+ levels cause the K/H cellular pumps to transport H+ INTO cells and K+ OUT of cells to normalize blood K levels –> the drop in blood H+ levels causes alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What happens to cerebral blood flow with hypercapnia (increased blood CO2) and acidosis?

A

INCREASED cerebral blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Effect on cerebral blood flow w/ hypocapnia (decreased blood CO2) and alkalosis?

A

DECREASED cerebral blood flow

**This is why you hyperventilate to reduce ICP via decreased intracranial blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Disease where you have aneurysms (from loss of vaso vasorum) and either oral, ocular, or genital ulcers?

A

Behcet’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

2 main causes of gout and what test can differentiate the 2 causes?

A

Overproducer of uric acid
Underexcreter of uric acid

24hr urine collection for uric acid levels:
If high = overproducer
If low = underexcreter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is treatment of choice for acute gout attack?

A

NSAIDs (indomethacin) or colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is treatment for overproducers of uric acid?

A

Allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is treatment for underexcreters of uric acid?

A

Probenecid (blocks kidney organic anion transporter in PCT –> decreases uric acid reabsorption and increases excretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is a concern for probenecid?

A

Blocks tubular secretion of penicillins, cephalosporins, sulfonamides, indomethacin –> levels will remain increased over longer period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Painless jaundice w/ non-painful palpable gallbladder. What is it until proven otherwise?

A

Pancreatic cancer (Courvoisier’s sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Red & tender spots (cords) in superficial veins that come and go in different areas of the body? What association?

A

Migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau syndrome)

Pancreatic cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What antibiotics are NEVER to be used with Coumadin? Why?

A

Sulfa drugs (Bactrim), Macrolides (except azithromycin)

They (-) CYP450 protein and cause an increase in drug levels in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What conventional treatment helps eliminate restless leg syndrome?

A

Tonic water (quinine) –> quinine in it will (-) Mg & Ca flux across the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Autoimmune condition that attacks the skin?

A

Scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

CREST syndrome manifestation of what disease?

A

Scleroderma

Calcinosis (hard calcium deposits in fingers)
Raynaud’s disease
Esophageal dysmotility (will see air-filled esophagus on CT scan)
Sclerodactyly (hardening of digits)
Telangectasias (capillaries near skin surface causing discoloration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Explain graft vs host disease?

A

Immunologically-driven reaction from transplant of one person’s immunologically-active (immune cells are present in that tissue) tissue (bone marrow) into someone who is immunosuppressed b/c of treatment to prevent host from rejecting the graft. However, the graft’s immune cells proliferate and attack host cells. Mortality around 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Sclerosing cholangitis has higher incidence of what cancer?

What is Klatskin tumor?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma (bile duct cancer)

Klatskin: subtype of cholangiocarcinoma that forms at confluence of R & L hepatic bile ducts and causes obstruction of bile outflow, leading to contracted gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Before Rx-ing erectile dysfunction meds (Sildenafil, etc), what other drug must you ask about and is a contraindication?

A

Nitrates!! (blood pressure or angina)

*Cause large drop in blood pressures!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Progressive neurological disease involving upper and lower motor neurons - usually gradual onset of asymmetric weakness of distal limb?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Middle age woman on several medications for blood pressure control presents to ER w/ gradually increasing blood pressure readings. Her normal pressures are around 115/75. Current BP is 210/115. CT shows narrowing of renal arteries. What is the cause?

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Causes of new-onset atrial fibrillation?

A 
HEMP
Hyperthyroidism
EtOH (chronic EtOH or acute EtOH intoxication)
Mitral stenosis (rheumatic fever)
PE

CAD, CHF, MI, pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Pearly pink nodules/papules related to sun exposure often seen on hands, face, neck?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

 - spreads laterally then vertically
 - rarely spreads beyond primary site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Precursor lesion for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Actinic keratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

5 characteristics of melanoma?

A 
ABCDE
Asymmetrical shape
Border irregularity
Color variation
Diameter >6mm
Elevation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What iatrogenic condition can result in locked-in syndrome?

A

Central pontine myelinolysis from rapid correction of hyponatremia –> want around 10 mEq/24hrs

Compete paralysis of voluntary muscles in all parts of the body EXCEPT for those that control eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Male patient has increasing weakness of his urine stream and in last 24 hrs has not urinated at all. He is very uncomfortable and when a catheter is attempted, it meets resistance w/ no urine discharge. Blood starts oozing from the catheter. What do you do next?

A

Suprapubic tube placement –> percutaneous bedside technique under ultrasound guidance

Used to relieve urinary retention w/ bladder outlet obstruction & possible hydronephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What test should always be done to male w/ acute onset testicular pain? Why?

A

Doppler ultrasound to r/o testicular torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

45 yo male w/ low back pain radiating to scrotum, dysuria, and pain of defecation. Tried several courses of Abx, w/ symptoms recurring 1 week after stopping each therapy. On rectal exam, prostate is enlarged w/ areas of tenderness and fluctuance. What is it?

A

Prostatic abscess

*Suspect when a man develops repeated UTI’s w/ improve w/ Abx, but recur after therapy ends.

***Presence of fluctuant mass in prostate = prostatic abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is Morton neuroma?

A

Enlarged nerve located in foot’s 3rd interspace b/w 3rd & 4th toes –> diagnosis made by eliciting extreme pain on palpation in that area.

Look for woman w/ high-heeled shoes, standing in them all day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

88 yo male w/ findings consistent w/ localized prostate cancer, but has multiple overlying comordibities. What is next best step in mgmt?

A

NO intervention –> no PSA, no biopsy, nothing

Disease-specific survival rates for localized prostate cancer at 10 years was 83% for those who did NOT receive therapy –> with his multiple other comorbidities, he may die from those instead of prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Vague RUQ discomfort w/ recent wt loss in a 60 yo alcoholic woman w/ cirrhosis from Hep C. What are you thinking? What blood marker is most helpful?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma –> increased aFP (correlates w/ tumor size)

*Solitary tumor in liver w/ RUQ discomfort + wt loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

In someone with bladder cancer, what is a feared complication?

A

B/L hydronephrosis

*Think bladder cancer in pts w/ hx of smoking, urinary obstruction (leading to hydronephrosis), and/or hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Treatment for temporal arteritis? What is a common association?

A

Corticosteroids

Polymyalgia rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Why does serum Na drop during prolonged vomiting or diarrhea?

A

GI tract fluids have Na concentration similar to plasma; as these fluids are lost (vomiting or diarrhea), the Na levels will drop due to lack of absorption from GI tract –> these fluids should be replaced w/ isotonic, Na-containing fluids. However, most people drink water (hypotonic) –> the body retains this water b/c of its volume depletion –> results in dilutional hyponatremia

Dilutional hyponatremia –> when isotonic fluids are lost (vomiting/diarrhea) and replaced by hypotonic (water) fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

81 yo found on living room floor. Last seen 3 days ago. Obtunded but breathing spontaneously and hemodynamically stable. Temp 100.7 w/ tender, tense R calf. K 5.9, BUN 88, Cr 3.5, lactic acid 2.6, CK 7,200, WBC 17,000. What does he have? What is appropriate mgmt?

A

Rhabdomyolysis (immobilized position, elevated CK): from pressure injury & can cause ARF

  • CK and hyperkalemia –> from crush injury leading to leakage of K, CK, & myoglobin out of cells into blood –> myoglobin precipitated in kidney tubules & changes into acid hematin leading to renal failure
  • Urgent hemodialysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Indications for urgent hemodialysis?

A

AEIOU

A: acidosis (severe)
E: electrolytes (hyperkalemia)
I: intoxication w/ nephrotoxic substances (ethylene glycol)
O: overload (fluid in renal/CHF patients)
U: uremia (mental status changes or pericardial effusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How do you prevent rhabdomyolysis-induced renal failure?

A

IV fluids + Alkalization of urine w/ NaHCO3 (sodium bicarb) –> facilitates excretion of myoglobin, preventing tubular injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

24 yo suffered subarachnoid bleed from ruptured aneurysm 4 days ago and is now recovering. He Na level is gradually decreasing despite being on fluid restriction. He is clinically euvolemic, but has high urine osmolality & specific gravity w/ salt wasting, elevated fractional excreted Na and total urinary sodium level. What is the cause? What is appropriate tx?

A

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH release (SIADH)

 - Occur in patients w/ recent head trauma or major CNS procedure 
 - Assn w/ small-cell carcinoma of lung (ectopic ADH production)
 - Clinical euvolemic
 - High urine osmolality (concentrated)
 - Fractional excretion of Na is high (water w/o salt is retained)

Tx: ADH (-) –> demeclocycline, lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

58 yo woman found to have elevated serum Ca and parathyroid hormone. She is asymptomatic and does NOT want elective surgery but rather close medical f/u. What therapy should she start?

A

Most likely parathyroid adenoma –> only cure is surgery

Tx: Estrogen-progestin tx helps in post-menopausal women w/ primary hyperparathyroidism
- Estrogen-progestin helps reduce bone resorption & thus increase bone density and possibly decrease serum Ca levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Painless sore on glans of penis –> rough surface that began to enlarge to develop into painless ulcer. 2 new sexual partners in past year w/ no protection. Small, palpable lymph nodes felt in his inguinal area B/L. VDRL (-). What is it?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of penis

*First symptom of penile cancer = painless, exophytic growth –> ulcerated nodule or a flat ulcer that does not heal but enlarges progressively.

If not response to conservative tx, need to confirm w/ biopsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Describe Menetrier’s disease. What 4 side effects are often seen?

A

Excess mucus production in the stomach

1) Protein-losing enteropathy (low albumin, edema)
2) Hypertrophy of gastric rugae
3) No gastric acid production
4) Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Patient presents w/ watery diarrhea of sudden onset. Colonoscopy is normal and histopathology of colon biopsy reveals significant lymphocytes. What is the diagnosis?

A

Microscopic colitis –> normal appearance but inflammatory cells on histology

Assn w/ autoimmune diseases, drugs (PPI, H2(-), NSAIDs)

Tx: corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is Marjolin’s ulcer?

A

Aggressive ulcerating SCC that results from long-term, continuous mitotic activity as epidermal cells attempt to resurface the open deficit –> becomes a malignant transformation of a chronic wound

Slow growing, painless, and no lymphatic spread due to destruction of local lymphatics

**Seen in BURNS, osteomyelitis ulcer, venous stasis ulcer, chronic inflammation, scarred skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Describe characteristics of seborrheic keratosis

A 
Benign
Painless
Yellow/brown and greasy in appearance
Warty-like
"Stuck-on" appearance

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What medication can help reduce the systemic response of hyper metabolism and increased catecholamine release due to SIRS/sepsis?

A

Propranolol –> B-adrenoreceptors responsible for increased catabolism and reaction to stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Which laboratory sign is an indicator of severe sepsis?

A

Hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is a ganglion cyst?

What is treatment?

If removing it, what part is crucial to removal or it will reappear?

A

Non-neoplastic soft tissue lump most often on/near joints and tendons of hands or feet. Formed from sheaths of collagen from joint space and communicates w/ joint space via pedicle

Tx: 50% resolve spontaneously

If surgically removing it, need to remove the pedicle!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is a carcinoma?

What are its 2 subtypes?

A

Malignant neoplasm of epithelial origin or internal/external lining of body

1) Adenocarcinoma –> glandular origin
2) Squamous cell –> squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is sarcoma?

Treatment of choice?

A

Cancer originating from mesoderm (bones, tendons, cartilage, muscle, fat - the supportive & connective tissue)

Tx: Wide-margined excisions w/ keeping patients functional reserve in mind (using that area after removal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Diagnostic of choice for any soft tissue mass?

A

MRI –> analyze surrounding tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What are most common EKG findings for PE?

A

Non-specific ST-segment & T-wave changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What EKG finding is pathognomonic for R-heart failure, usually from large PE?

A

S1Q3T3
S waves in Lead 1
Q waves in Lead 3
Inverted T waves in Lead 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Common side effect of steroids that are often overlooked?

A

Steroid-induced Psychosis!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Why are chronic steroids such an issue, especially during surgery?

A

Chronic steroid use causes (-) of HPA axis by (-) CRH & ACTH secretion –> (-) cortisol made by adrenals –> adrenals shrink due to low production –> during times of stress (surgery), they can’t produce the high quantity of steroids needed

Results in shock (low BP, tachycardia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Pt presents w/ chronic history of intermittent episodes of severe, crushing chest pain radiating to back and jaw lasting from seconds to minutes. Pain accompanied w/ dysphagia triggered by ingestion of certain foods. Cardiac workups have been negative. What 2 diagnoses are clinically indistinguishable and what further test will differentiate them?

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm & Nutcracker esophagus

Manometry

DES: high-intensity disorganized contractions w/ NORMAL resting LES pressure

Nutcracker: INCREASED resting LES pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Young female (20-30’s) smoker is wanting protection from getting pregnant. She receives a course of oral contraceptive pills from her OBGYN. Several days/months later, she develops one-sided leg pain and swelling. It hurts to touch her leg & when she lifts her foot up towards the sky. What is it?

A

DVT!!!!

This presentation is pathognomonic for USMLE

Young female
Smoker
OCP’s

*One-sided calf pain, tenderness, (+) Homans sign
(+/- leg edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What pathogen causes infection in lymphatics leading to chronic fibrosis w/ non-pitting lymphedema?

A

Wuchereria bancrofti –> filariasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Bruit heard near groin (one side) & patient has a high resting HR. Progressive one-sided leg swelling has occurred over several months. What is it? What medical history component is a common preceding incident?

A

Femoral arteriovenous malformation

  • Hx of penetrating trauma –> leads to AV malformation
  • Groin bruit + high resting HR = femoral AVM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is overflow/stress incontinence?

What is best initial treatment?

Why not 5a-reductase (-)?

A

Large prostate causes outlet obstruction and traps a large amount of urine in the bladder. The involuntary urine loss (during cough, sneeze) occurs when bladder pressure > urethral pressure.

Tx: alpha-blocker (doxazosin, terazosin, tamsulosin) –> these RELAX the sphincter, allowing easier voiding

5a-reductase (-) –> takes a LONG TIME to act (up to FULL YEAR) so not appropriate for immediate relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is urge incontinence?

Appropriate initial tx?

A

Bladder hyperactivity causing frequent bladder emptying –> NO warning w/ sudden urge to urinate & can’t hold it

Tx: anti-spasmodics (oxybutynin & tolterodine) –> help relax the detrusor muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Same day after surgery, a smoker develops fever. What is most likely cause? What is treatment?

A

Day 1 Post-Op Fever = Atelectasis!

Incentive spirometry to improve ventilation via deep breathing, coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Man presents to ER after being struck by a car. He has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and has to be intubated. The next day develops bradycardia, BP of 130/80, and is not over breathing the ventilator. What is next appropriate step in mgmt?

A

*Reduce intracranial pressure

Least invasive first:

 - Raise head of the bed
 - Sedation w/ propofol
 - Hyperventilation (PaCO2 30-35)
 - Mannitol (osmotic diuretic)

*Cushing triad: bradycardia, hypertension, irregular respiratory pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is Cushing’s triad & when is it seen?

A

1) Bradycardia
2) Hypertension (relative)
3) Irregular breathing pattern

*Seen w/ increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids w/ a massively dilated proximal esophagus & narrowed, tapered distal esophagus on barium swallow. What is it? What is pathophys? What are 3 other associations w/ it?

A

Achalasia: failure of LES to relax due to loss of inhibitory neurons (nitrous oxide releasing neurons) in LES

Most idiopathic, but other associations:

- Chagas disease (reduviid bug)
- Lymphoma
- Gastric carcinoma
  • NO progression pattern to solids then liquids (seen in esophageal carcinoma)
  • Barium swallow –> “bird’s beak” (proximal dilation of esophagus w/ narrowed lower esophagus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What 3 tests are performed for workup of a prostate nodule?

A

1) DRE
2) PSA levels
3) Biopsy (want histologic diagnosis & Gleason score)

Do biopsy when:

 - Can't distinguish b/w a cyst
 - Can't distinguish b/w benign or cancerous condition
 - Staging
  • Gleason score - grading system determined by cellular features of prostate cancer cells that correlates w/ clinical behavior)
    • Higher score = greater likelihood of spread outside of prostate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is initial drug choice for treatment of BPH? What is next step in therapy if the first choice drug fails?

A

1st choice: a-adrenergic (-)
- tamsulosin, doxazosin

2nd choice: 5a-reductase (-)

 - finasteride, dutasteride
 - blocks intracellular conversion of testosterone to DHT and shrinks hyperplastic prostate tissue & helps reduce progression of BPH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Unmonitored use of blood thinners can cause coagulopathy & worsen a GI bleed. What is the first & second steps in management?

A

1st step: hemodynamic stability –> transfusing blood pdts
2nd step: reversal of elevated INR
*Acute setting = FFP
*Prolonged effects on clotting cascade = Vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Patient presents w/ blood in the stool, high ALP, high total bilirubin, and anemia. What should you consider? Next best step(s)?

A

Duodenal tumor obstructing common bile duct (Ampulla of Vater)

1) Upper abd ultrasound –> shows dilated intra & extra hepatic ducts
2) Upper endoscopy to confirm suspicion
3) Biopsy tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Pt with protracted diarrhea recently develops jaundice and has high ALP and total/direct bilirubin levels. RUQ ultrasound shows strictures and dilations of intrahepatic & extra hepatic ducts. What is it? What 2 types of cancer is this patient most at risk for?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

  • Seen w/ Inflammatory Bowel Disease (Ulcerative Colitis)
    • Look for intermittent cramping & bloody diarrhea

Cholangiocarcinoma & colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

66 yo woman who underwent laparotomy 1 week ago recently develops chest pain, shortness of breath, & has head and neck vein distention. Her vitals show tachycardia, tachypnea, and a loud S2. His ABGs find hypoxemia and hypocapnia and EKG is normal. What is next best test?

A

Spiral CT scan
- Heparin is better option before CT scan

Massive PE causes cor pulmonale –> seen by hypotension & neck vein distension.

  • Risk factors for PE:
    • Orthopedic surgeries
    • Hypercoagulable states (OCPs, Factor V Leiden mutation, antithrombin III deficiency)
    • Prolonged immobilization
    • Malignancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What is most appropriate step of someone w/ longstanding GERD?

A

Endoscopy w/ biopsies

  • Anyone w/ epigastric pain, older than 45 yo, (+) stool guaiac, wt loss, or dysphagia/odynophagia –> needs endoscopy and biopsies
    • Mucosal biopsies in stomach for H. pylori
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Man w/ chronic pancreatitis has LUQ pain & has no jaundice or spider angiomata. Abdomen is NT, ND, no caput medusa. The spleen tip is palpable. Upper endoscopy shows profound gastric varices but no esophageal varies. What is diagnosis?

A

Splenic vein thrombosis

Well described complication of chronic pancreatitis –> splenic vein runs along posterior surface of pancreas & adjacent inflammation can eventually induce thrombosis

Gastric varices seen b/c gastric mucosa vessels drain into an obstructed splenic vein

NO esophageal varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Woman presents w/ fever & chills, RUQ pain and jaundice. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 months ago. Her ALP and direct bilirubin are very high. Ultrasound shows extremely dilated intrahepatic ducts but common bile duct can’t be visualized. What is most likely diagnosis?

A

Iatrogenic stricture of common bile duct

Look for biliary colic & obstructive jaundice (high ALP & direct bilirubin)

CBD strictures get infected and cause cholangitis –> look for Charcot triad (fever/chills, RUQ pain, jaundice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

72 yo Norwegian w/ contracted hand that can’t be extended or placed flat on a table. It has developed gradually over many years. Palpable fascial nodules are present. What is it?

A

Dupuytren contracture: palmar fascial disease resulting in shortening & thickening of fibrous bands in hands/fingers

Seen in older men of Scandinavian descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Best treatment for acute prostatitis? What bugs cause it?

A

E. coli, Chlamydia

*Fluoroquinolone (ofloxacin) covers both E. coli & Chlamydia –> need for 4-6 weeks to ensure adequate levels of drug in prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Risk factors for gallstones? Best test to confirm/look for gallstones?

A

5 F’s –> Fat, Fertile (kids), Forty, Female, Fair

Ultrasound of RUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Best initial treatment for hemorrhoids?

A

Conservative: sitz baths, local anesthetics, high-fiber diet, lots of fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

For herniated spinal disc, what is initial imaging study and treatment? Always assess what with disc herniation?

A

Imaging –> MRI

Tx: pain control w/ resolution overtime

**Always assess bowel/bladder function for emergency cauda equina syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

(+) fecal occult blood in adult >40 yo?

A

Cancer until proven otherwise

168
Q

How does L-sided colon cancer present?

A

Obstructive symptoms –> changes in stool caliber, constipation overtime, bright red blood covering stools, wt loss

169
Q

First treatment option for BPH? Second treatment option?

A

1st: a1 blocker (tamsulosin) –> acts on bladder trigone & urinary sphincter
- S/e: orthostatic hypotension

2nd: 5a-recductase (-) (finasteride) –> blocks conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in the prostate –> DHT responsible for hormone-dependent enlargement of the prostate

170
Q

Does Hgb or Hct change during acute blood loss?

A

NO –> Hct or RBC count only decreases as fluid from other body sources (ECF) enters intravascular space in response to a decreased intracapillary blood pressure. This takes about 4-6 hours for normalization to occur

If IV fluids are given, this causes a dilutional effect and Hct may decrease

171
Q

Man w/ intermittent abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhea over past 8 years has a relapse of diarrhea and takes loperamide to control diarrhea. He develops severe abdominal pain in epigastric area over past 12 hours. Xray shows massively distended transverse colon w/ gas in the colon wall w/ no air under the diaphragm. What is the diagnosis?

A

Toxic megacolon –> acute distended colon w/ wall ischemia and pneumatosis intestinal (coli)
- hx of intermittent abdominal cramps w/ bloody diarrhea = ulcerative colitis

*Fever, leukocytosis, and abd distension on imaging

**Toxic megacolon is complication of UC

172
Q

5 triggers that can induce toxic megacolon?

A 
Hypokalemia
Opiates
Anticholinergics 
Loperamide
Barium enema
173
Q

Solitary, painless testicular mass in 20 yo man on histology shows small cells w/ crowded nuclei, high mitotic rate, & necrosis. Enlarged retroperitoneal nodes are seen. aFP is elevated. What type of cancer is it?

A

Embryonal carcinoma

174
Q

What marker is elevated in choriocarcinoma?

What marker is elevated in seminoma?

Yolk-sac tumor?

A
  • b-HCG
    • cytotrophoblastic & syncytiotrophoblastic cells resembling chorionic villi
  • Placental alkaline phoshpatase (PLAP)
    • centrally-placed nuclei & nucleoli resembling primary spermatocytes
  • aFP
    • papillary structures resembling glomeruli (Schiller-Duval bodies)
175
Q

Intense burning pain that occurs after an injury that is not relived w/ analgesics - what is probable diagnosis? If so, what is diagnostic test to confirm?

A

CRPS or reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)

  • Do sympathetic block –> if it relieves the symptoms, RSD is confirmed
  • Surgical sympathectomy will cure RSD
176
Q

Smoking & drinking history are very important for what type of cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

177
Q

Progressively growing, painless lymph node mass in the absence of systemic symptoms must be evaluated for what type of cancer in person w/ smoking and drinking history & poor dental hygiene?

Next best step in diagnosis?

A

Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma –> arising from somewhere in respiratory or digestive tract

Next step: triple endoscopy (laryngoscopy, endoscopy, bronchoscopy) w/ mucosal biopsies to determine primary site of cancer

*Painless neck masses in older patients are considered cancer until proven otherwise!

178
Q

28 yo woman w/ vague RUQ pain suddenly gets much worse and she becomes hypotensive, tachycardic and vomits. Her abdomen is mildly distended and diffusely tender. Hgb is 8.1 and abd x-ray shows no evidence of pneumoperitoneum. She denies pregnancy b/c she takes her OCPs daily and last menstrual period was normal. What is the cause of her acute illness?

A

Ruptured hepatic adenoma

  • OCPs huge risk for hepatic adenoma in women b/w 20-40 yo
    • Risk = dosage & duration of estrogen use
    • Will spontaneously regress when stop taking OCPs

*Sudden RUQ pain + hypotension with OCP use

CT scan is diagnostic

Cold spots on sulfer colloid liver scan

179
Q

Risks for hepatic adenomas?

A 
OCP use
Glycogen storage disease type 1
Anabolic steroids (body builder)
180
Q

Sudden onset erectile dysfunction w/ presence of nocturnal erections?

A

Psychogenic cause of problem

181
Q

Flank pain that radiates to inner thigh and scrotum w/ hematuria. What is diagnosis until proven otherwise? Best initial test?

A

Nephrolithiasis (kidney stone)

Diagnostic test:

 1) plain x-ray (calcified stones will be visible)
 2) If not, CT scan w/o contrast
182
Q

Besides strictures and fistulas, what is another complication of Crohn’s disease? What is mechanism behind this?

A

Nephrolithiasis (kidney stones)

Calcium normally binds oxalate from diet in the intestine –> in Crohn’s, fat malabsorption (disease of terminal ileum - site of fat reabsorption) results in increased intra-luminal fat that binds all the Calcium in the intestine –> oxalate (normally bound by calcium & excreted) is now absorbed by body and precipitates in higher concentrations in the kidneys –> stones

183
Q

Elderly and alcoholics are at risk for what cerebral complication? Why?

A

Subdural hematomas

Brain volume decreases over time in both elderly & alcoholics –> minimal trauma causes brain to “rattle around” & tear bridging veins

*Sudden “senility” in previously health person w/ hx of trauma –> suspect subdural hematoma

184
Q

Name complications of Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (von Recklinghauen disease)?

A

Pheochromocytoma
Pigmented iris hamartomas
“cafe-au-lait” spots

185
Q

Person w/ history of neurofibromatosis type 1 presents w/ LLQ abdominal mass. He is found to have metabolites of epinephrine & norepinephrine in 24-hour urinary collection. What do you suspect? Next best test?

A

Pheochromocytoma

MRI scan of his adrenal glands to confirm pheo

186
Q

How to differentiate b/w extra-adrenal or adrenal focus of pheochromocytoma?

A

If Epinephrine metabolites are present in urine –> adrenal origin

Epi not made outside the adrenal glands

187
Q

Most common cause of double vision in adults over 40 yo?

A

Graves disease

188
Q

Which is more of an emergency - periorbital or orbital cellulitis and why? What are signs to watch for?

A

Orbital cellulitis (post-septal) –> infection behind orbital septum (posterior boundary of eyelids that are directly in front of the corneas)

189
Q

Which is more of an emergency - periorbital or orbital cellulitis and why? What are signs to watch for?

A

Orbital cellulitis (post-septal) –> infection behind orbital septum (posterior boundary of eyelids that are directly in front of the corneas)

*Proptosis, eye pain on movement, vision loss, visual acuity changes, fever

Look for hx of recent sinusitis or tooth infection

190
Q

When using TMP-SMX (Bactrim), aside from Coumadin, what other drug should you NOT use? What side effect do you worry about?

A

Spironolactone

*Increased risk of HYPERKALEMIA when used together

191
Q

What 3 conditions (2 genetic 1 renal) must you consider when dealing w/ subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Ruptured aneurysms

Marfan syndrome
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
ADPKD

192
Q

Describe Paget’s disease of the bone (osteitis deformans)?

What symptoms might you see as initial s/s?

Common lab findings?

A

Initial osteoclast overactivity (bone breaks down) –> accelerated osteoblast activity in effort to rebuilt drastically reduced bone matrix –> results in structurally inferior woven bone –> bone starts to bow & fracture easily

S/S:

  • Pain (from bowing/fracture of long bones secondary from arthritis)
  • Headaches –> see below
  • CN palsies –> see below
  • Hearing loss –> damage of cochlear nerve from enlargement of temporal bone & narrowing of internal auditory meatus

Lab findings
*High ALP, normal Ca, normal Phos

193
Q

Describe respiratory quotient (RQ) & normal values for different sources of fuel?

A

Steady-state ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed per unit time
*Used to make assessments of metabolism

*Normal RQ = 0.8 (mix of carbs, fats, proteins)
Carbohydrate diet only = 1.0
Proteins only = 0.8
Oxidation of fatty acids only = 0.7

194
Q

Acute pain & swelling over coccyx that never happened before?

A

Pilonidal cyst –> infection of midline sacrococcygeal skin & sub-Q tissues

*Dermal sinus tract originating over the coccyx

195
Q

Describe important features of epidural hematoma?

A
  • Rupture of middle meningeal artery as it exits from foramen spinosum
  • Blood in the potential space b/w cranium & dura mater
  • Presents as unconsciousness followed by lucid interval; followed by gradual deterioration of consciousness w/ symptoms of elevated ICP (headaches, N/V)
  • May have dilation of pupil on same side (CN3 compression)
  • May have contralateral hemiparesis
  • Biconvex hematoma that does NOT cross the suture lines
196
Q

What are some common associations with undifferentiated nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

How do patients present?

A

Viral infections (EBV)
Middle East/Far East descent
Smoking
Nitrosamine consumption (salted fish)

S/S:
Recurrent OM
Recurrent epistaxis
Nasal obstruction

197
Q

Man w/ constant & gnawing epigastric pain that is worse at night, anorexia w/ wt loss, & painless jaundice. What do you suspect? What are other signs you may see?

A

Pancreatic cancer

*Smoking big risk factor

S/S:

  • Jaundice (common bile duct blockage)
  • Steatorrhea (inability to secrete fat-digesting enzymes or blockage from main pancreatic duct)
  • Epigastric pain (insidious, gnawing, worse at night)
  • Painless jaundice
  • Wt loss & fatigue
  • Migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign)
198
Q

32 yo woman w/ intermittent blood staining her bra from L breast. No breast masses or axillary lymphadeonpathy noted and ultrasound is normal. What is it?

A

Intraductal papilloma

*Most common form of intermittent bloody discharge from one nipple in PERImenopausal women

199
Q

In a person w/ a joint replacement, a subacute (months after) presentation of joint pain w/ increased WBC most likely points to what bug?

A

Staph epidermidis

200
Q

What are 4 T’s of anterior mediastinal masses?

A

Thymoma
Teratoma (other germ cell tumors)
Thyroid neoplasm
Terrible lymphoma

201
Q

Triad for mononucleosis?
These patients will develop rash w/ what type of Abx?
Best initial tests to confirm?

A

Fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy
B-lactams (-cillins, cephalosporins)
Heterophile antibody test & CBC

202
Q

Drug side effects on respiratory system. What naturally causes bronchodilation?
Propranolol?
Enalapril?

A

Beta stimulation/anti-ACh = bronchodilation
Propranolol –> non-specific B-blocker that causes bronchoconstriction –> WHEEZES
Enalapril –> ACEi causes dry COUGH

203
Q

Patient w/ HIV presents w/ fever and bleeding from site of recent IV drug use. She has confusion and tingling sensation her her arms and legs for past 2 hours. She has scleral icterus and non palpable purport on her chest and arms. Labs showed anemia, low WBC, low platelets, increased bleeding time, proteinuria, hematuria, and fragmented RBC on peripheral smear. What is it?

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

Pentad

1) Fever
2) Thrombocytopenia (low platelets, petechiae, excessive bleeding from punctured site)
3) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
4) Neurologic symptoms (confusion, paresthesias)
5) Renal failure (proteinuria, hematuria)

204
Q

How to differentiate TTP from DIC?

A

TTP –> NO changes in PT or PTT

DIC –> coagulation factors consumed (INCREASED PT/PTT)

205
Q

Best therapy for chemotherapy-induced N/V?

A

If unresponsive to promethazine, try triple therapy:

1) Serotonin blocker –> ondansetron, “-setron”
2) Dexamethasone
3) Substance P/neurokinin 1 receptor blocker –> Fosaprepitant

206
Q

Which ulcer IMPROVES with eating?

Which ulcer WORSENS with eating?

A

IMPROVES = duodenal (HCO3 secreted helps ulcers)

WORSENS = gastric (acid secreted w/ meals irritates ulcers)

207
Q

Testicular tumor causing erectile dysfunction and gynecomastia. Cells show eosinophilic cytoplasm, bland nuclei, and small crystalline cytoplasmic inclusions. What is the type of cancer. What are the crystals called?

A

Leydig cell tumor

 - Produce excess androgens (may be converted to estrogens by peripheral aromatization)
 - This is what causes erectile dysfunction/gynecomastia

Reinke crystals

208
Q

In adrenal mass found on imaging, what are 2 most important steps?

A

1) Benign vs malignant –> radiologic features
2) Functional (secreting hormones) vs nonfunctional
- 24hr urine catecholamine/metanephrine screen
- Serum aldosterone-to-renin ratio
- Low dose dexamethasone suppression test

209
Q

Sources for brain abscess?

A

Sinusitis
Tooth abscess
OM
Mastoiditis

210
Q

20 yo w/ persistent headaches & fever for 1 wk who just had a seizure. He is obtunded. Imaging shows ring-enhancing lesion in R frontal lobe and an air-fluid level in the R frontal sinus. What is most likely organism(s)? What is it?

A

a-hemolytic Streptococcus + mixed anaerobes

Brain abscess in frontal lobe –> associated w/ sinusitis

211
Q

22 yo African American male receives vaccinations and travel meds for trip to India. He became fatigued and has mild jaundice now. Developed severe abd pain after starting prophylactic meds. Urine is darker, jaundiced, new heart murmur, and palpable spleen tip. What is the cause? What is the inheritance pattern?

A 
G6PD deficiency
     *Chloroquine (malaria prophylaxis)
      Certain drugs (Sulfa drugs, antimalarials), foods (fava beans)

X-linked RECESSIVE (also Hemophilia A + B)

212
Q

Someone develops sudden onset LE weakness after recovering from GI infection 5 days ago. Has paresthesias in hands and feet. Becomes obtunded and needs intubation. Why?

A

Guillian-Barre syndrome causes ASCENDING paralysis that can affect muscles of respiration!

213
Q

26 yo man has back pain that is worse at night and began near his sacrum. Pain starting to creep up his back and gets a little better with activity. What must you consider? What is treatment?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis –> “bamboo spine” on imaging

Tx: anti-TNFa agents (etanercept, infliximab)
Can use NSAIDs for some relief

214
Q

Only treatment options for COPD that decrease morbidity and mortality?

A

Smoking Cessation

O2 therapy

215
Q

What drug should be given to someone w/ a history of recent MI?

A

B-blocker (decreases myocardial O2 demand by decreasing HR - this increases diastole and coronary artery perfusion time)

216
Q

What are you thinking in a person w/ EKG changes showing ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF? Symptoms?

A

Inferior wall infarct/R ventricular infarct –> R coronary artery

Symptoms: hypotension, tachycardia, lungs clear, ABSENCE of pulses paradoxus

217
Q

How to distinguish R ventricular infarct vs cardiac tamponade?

A

Pulsus paradoxus

Tamponade: both ventricles already compressed -> during inspiration, venous return increases to R ventricle –> excess filling and expansion of R ventricle that further compresses and displaces the L ventricle –> LV ejection fraction and contraction very low and causes low systolic BP during inspiration

R vent infarct: heart not being compressed and any increase in RV volume is accommodated by pericardial sac

218
Q

Treatment for R ventricle infarction?

A

IV fluids –> volume loading of R ventricle causes it to contract more forcefully (Sterling’s law - more in, more out)

219
Q

How to differentiate b/w central vs nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Dilute urine w/ frequent urination

Central: no ADH release from pituitary –> kidney is fine & will respond to exogenous ADH/vasopressin by increasing H2O reabsorption and concentrating the urine (increased urine osmolality)

Nephrogenic: ADH secreted from pituitary -> kidney INSENSITIVE to its effect –> exogenous ADH/vasopressin does NOT cause significant rise in urinary osmolality (urine remains dilute!)

220
Q

What medication is indicated in mgmt of acute asthma attacks?

A

Steroids (oral or IV)

221
Q

Vomiting w/ upper GI bleeding - suspect what?

A

Mallory-Weiss tear

222
Q

Best mgmt for 2nd degree Moritz Type II or 3rd degree heart block?

A

Permanent transvenous pacemaker

223
Q

Why is anticholinergic overdose so deadly?

A

Any drug w/ anticholinergic effects (e.g. diphenhydramine) can cause multiple effects including tachycardia & seizures

*In high doses, block Na channels –> lead to a prolonged QRS interval, prolonged QT interval, and lethal arrhythmias

Anticholinergic s/e –> cutaneous vasodilation, anhidrosis, hyperthemia, mydriasis, delirium, hallucinations, urinary retention

224
Q

Acute mononucleosis from EBV - what 4 signs do you look for?

What lab finding is key?

What is tx?

Most likely potential FATAL complication?

A

Tonsilar exudates
Pharyngitis
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Fever

Lymphocytosis w/ ATYPICAL lymphocytes

Tx: symptomatic control –> acetaminophen/NSAIDs

Deadly complication = Splenic rupture (no sports for at least 4 weeks)

225
Q

Pt w/ multiple myeloma has B/L leg weakness. Why is bone pain the first sign?

A

Osteoclastic bone lesions result from stimulation of osteoclasts & inhibition of osteoblasts by humoral factors elaborated by malignant plasma cells

Multiple myeloma –> known to compress the spinal cord –> focal neurological deficits

226
Q

What is the caution in using metronidazole?

A

Avoid DRINKING!!

Get a disulfiram-like reaction –> FLUSHING

227
Q

Nail pitting and distal destructive asymmetric arthritis w/ elevated ESR?

What type of drugs to you need to avoid in this condition?

A

Psoriatic arthritis

*Commonly nail bed deformities
Sausage-shaped digits

AVOID anti-malarials if disease-modifying therapy has started b/c they can exacerbate psoriasis

228
Q

Person younger than 45 yo w/ asymptomatic scant hematochezia (blood in stool) should receive what test?
Why?

A

Anoscopy & flexible sigmoidoscopy

Majority of lesions are in distal colon, rectum or anus

229
Q

First line for symptomatic bradycardia?

A

IV atropine

230
Q

What bug characterized by granulomatous-suppurative lesions that become widely disseminated in host is immunocompromised. Lesions may be seen in the brain. Stains weakly acid-fast but is bacteria?

A

Nocardia asteroides

231
Q

Symptoms & Signs of Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis?

Diagnosis?

Treatment?

A

HA, CN palsies, fever, diplopia, altered mental status
*Proptosis, EOM impairment, *papilledema, ptosis, blurry vision

Contrast CT / MRI scan

Tx: parenteral Abx (adjuvant w/ LMWH & steroids)

232
Q

Why do you see pulsus paradoxus is severe asthmatics?

A

During severe asthma attack –> hyper-inflated lungs compress against the heart, decreasing heart’s ability to fill with blood

Needs intubation & mechanical ventilation

233
Q

What is mechanism of action of best initial treatment for Parkinson disease?

A

Levodopa
MOA: dopamine precursor that CAN cross BBB where it’s converted to dopamine
- Combined w/ carbidopa, which blocks peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine

234
Q

Best initial test to evaluate suspected lung cancer that is centrally located?

Best test to evaluate CT scan finding of a solitary lung mass?

A

Bronchoscopy w/ biopsy

Bronchoscopy

235
Q

First line therapy for diabetic patients w/ HTN?

A

ACEi –> prevent progression of diabetic nephropathy

236
Q

Mgmt for post-chemotherapy neutropenia?

A 
Afebrile = observation 
Febrile = Abx therapy
237
Q

Symptomatic mitral regurgitation from ischemic cardiomyopathy treatment?

A

Decrease Preload (loop diuretics) & Afterload (ACEi or B-blocker)

238
Q

33 yo with fever, chills, productive cough. Hx of past cellulitis and tricuspid valve endocarditis. Recent HIV test is pending. Has rhonchi in R mid-posterior lung field. CXR shows lobar consolidation w/ air-fluid level. What bug is responsible? What is best initial treatment?

A

S. aureus (see past hx of cellulitis & tricuspid valve endo)
Very dangerous - necrotizing or cavitary pneumonia

IV vancomycin or linezolid

239
Q

New-onset ascites in 50+ yo woman?

What syndrome is this disease associated?

A

Ovarian malignancy w/ peritoneal metastasis
Do pelvic ultrasound & paracentesis to determine SAAG (1.1 = transudative/portal HTN)

*Meigs syndrome: ovarian tumor, ascites, pleural effusion

240
Q

2 causes of acute torticollis/dystonia?

Tx?

A

Parkinson disease
Drug s/e (antipsychotics)

Tx: dopamine agonists, anti-ACh/H1, muscle relaxants, benzos

241
Q

Man w/ end stage renal failure found to have potassium level of 8.8. What is best initial therapy?

A

IV calcium gluconate

 - Works VERY rapidly to counteract the effect of high potassium on the heart and muscle by stabilizing cardiac membranes
 - Does NOT actually decrease level of potassium
242
Q

What 2 electrolyte abnormalities cause nephrogenic DI?

A

High calcium

Low potassium

243
Q

In pancreatic insufficiency, what vitamins will be deficient?

A

Vit A, D, E, K + Vit B12

*Need pancreatic enzymes to cleave B12 from R-binder (released in saliva) in order to have B12 bind to Intrinsic Factor!

244
Q

Side effect of hydralazine and test to confirm?

A

Drug-induced Lupus

Anti-histone Ab

245
Q

What must you consider in a YOUNG person with a stroke or MI?

A

Polyarteritis Nodosa

246
Q

Most specific findings of multiple myeloma?

A

Increased monoclonal proteins (IgG, IgA) in urine/serum
Clonal plasma cells from bone marrow biopsy
Beta-2-microglobulin

247
Q

38 yo found to have at least 200 polyps on colonoscopy. What is most appropriate initial colon cancer screening strategy for his 2 children?

A

FAP –> autosomal dominant disease w/ mutations in APC gene

1st degree family members –> genetic testing for APC gene mutations

If unavailable –> ANNUAL sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy starting at 12 yo

248
Q

What are the 2 key findings in septic shock?

A

HIGH cardiac output
LOW peripheral resistance

Look for infection, peritoneal bacterial contamination (gut perforation)

249
Q

28 yo woman experiences episodes of passing reddish-brown urine in the morning after getting out of bed. The diagnosis can be confirmed by what finding?

A

*Flow cytometry showing deficient CD55 or CD59 on RBCs (anchor needed for cell membrane proteins to repel complement)

PNH

250
Q

Characteristics of multi-infarct (vascular) dementia?

A

SUDDEN, STEP-WISE deterioration of mental function
*Look for some improvement of symptoms followed by sudden deterioration of mental function after period of time

Prominent gait, motor, or visual abnormalities

MRI: cortical and subcortical infarctions and subcortical ischemic changes

251
Q

65 yo male has 3 yr history of progressive weakness. He has difficulty getting up from chairs, mild muscle cramps in his thighs, and difficulty swallowing. He has elevated CRP and CK. What is it? What is most accurate diagnostic test?

A

Inclusion body myositis

Diagnostic test –> muscle biopsy

252
Q

Hallmark symptom of vertebrobasilar insufficiency (TIA)?

A

Dizziness/vertigo

Other S/S: diplopia, dysphagia, dyarthria, facial numbness/paresthesia, syncope

These TIAs much shorter than internal carotid TIAs

253
Q

Response of normal bone marrow to either infection OR trauma w/ exceedingly high WBC count (>50,000) and HIGH leukocyte alkaline phosphatase?

A

Leukemoid reaction

254
Q

Management of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Warfarin w/ INR b/w 2.0-3.0 FOR LIFE

255
Q

Man presents w/ vomiting bright red blood. No heartburn, dyspepsia, or EtOH consumption. No signs of cirrhosis, portal HTN. Nasogastric lavage returns bright red blood and endoscopy reveals blood in gastric lumen. No evidence of ulcers, gastric wall erosion, or esophageal/gastric varices. What is it?

A

First steps:

1) Nasogastric lavage
2) Volume resuscitation
3) Endoscopy
  • Dieulafoy’s lesion –> dilated submucosal vessel that failed to branch into capillaries, penetrating overlying epithelium and bleeds.
    • Usually located along lesser curvature of stomach near GE junction
256
Q

This herb prolongs the INR in a patient on warfarin?

A

Dong quai

257
Q

Common findings in multiple myeloma?

A
  • Pathologic fractures (doing everyday ordinary movements)
  • Elevated Calcium
  • Elevated total serum protein (hypergammaglobulins)
  • Anemia
258
Q

Person with Type1 DM and low B12, what must you investigate as cause of anemia?

A

Low serum B12 –> if low need to determine etiology:

- Pernicious anemia = dyspepsia, autoimmune conditions –> anti-IF & anti-parietal cell antibodies

259
Q 
Dental extraction bleeding w/ petechiae and ecchymoses. Platelet count normal. PT &amp; PTT normal. Bleeding time prolonged. Platelet aggregation studies showed:
Ristocetin (normal)
ADP (no response)
Epi (no response)
What is the cause?
A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

Deficient platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex
Primary platelet aggregation response to platelet agonists (ADP, epi, collagen) are DECREASED but ristocetin response is normal.

260
Q

Ptosis & mitosis of a single eye in a person with long smoking history. What must you consider?

A

Pancoast tumor –> lung cancer in long time smoker at APEX (superior sulcus) of one lung

- Compresses cervical sympathetic plexus
- May also complain of scapular pain and radiculopathy in ULNAR distribution
261
Q

What physical exam findings are seen with traumatic diaphragmatic rupture?

A

L sided elevation of diaphragm –> abdominal viscera protrude into chest cavity on L side

NG tube may also curl up into the chest

Hemothorax may be only finding

CXR shows bowel in L chest

262
Q

Treatment of herpes zoster (shingles) WITH neuropathic pain?

A

Acyclovir (famciclovir) + TCA (despiramine - neuropathic pain)

263
Q

What s/s suggest sarcoidosis?

What is secreted by the granulomas?

What lab finding is common?

A

Hilar lymphadenopathy
NON-caseating (no necrosis) granulomas

ACE produced
1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (ACTIVE Vit D)

Hypercalcemia seen from increased Vit D

264
Q

Person with anemia (normal MCV) and no reticulocytes or erythroid precursors in the bone marrow. What organ must you investigate as cause?

What condition has high incidence of co-existing?

A

Thymoma (thymus) –> PURE RBC APLASIA seen

Myasthenia Gravis

265
Q

Signs of anticholinergic overdose?

A 
Red as a beet = cutaneous vasodilation
Dry as a bone = no sweating (anhidrosis)
Hot as a hare = hyperthermia
Blind as a bat = NONreactive mydriasis (dilated pupil)
Mad as a hatter = delirium
Full as a flask = urinary retention
266
Q

Type of lung cancer seen in nonsmokers, arises in periphery of the lung?

A

Adenocarcinoma

267
Q

What screening test should be done in men aged 65-75 who currently or have previously smoked?

A

Abdominal ultrasound (AAA)

268
Q

Patient is increasingly anxious and jittery. She is disoriented and easily distracted, however she dozes off when talking to you and has to be repeatedly awakened. Her complaints are abdominal pain and constipation. She has dry mucus membranes and orthostatic changes are present. What electrolyte abnormality do you suspect? What EKG changes would be present?

A

Hypercalcemia

- Stuporous mental status changes
- Intravascular volume depletion from osmotic diuresis
- Constipation

**Decreases renal sensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI) = osmotic diuresis

**Hypercalcemia = BONES, STONES, GROANS, and PSYCHIATRIC OVERTONES

EKG = QT segment shortening

269
Q

What are risk factors for stress gastric ulcers?

How to differentiate between stress ulcer and ischemic colitis?

A

Risk factors:

- Complicated hospital course
- Prolonged intubation
- Taking medications that cause coagulopathy (aspirin, heparin, warfarin)
- Burns
- Cranial trauma

Look for upper GI bleed (black tarry stools)
*DAYS after surgery (vs ischemic colitis where usual 1 day post-op)

ALL patients should be given prophylactic H2 receptor or PPI

270
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma risk factors?

Presentation and imaging findings?

A

Sclerosing cholangitis
Recurrent pyogenic cholangitis (RPC)
Chronic liver disease

S/S: jaundice, itching, elevated LFTs & bilirubin

Ultrasound: dilation of R & L hepatic biliary ducts (NO gallbladder or common bile duct involvement)

271
Q

AIDS patient with painful swallowing. What is initial treatment?

What if symptoms persist?

A

Initial prophylactic Candida treatment

CMV: deep large ulcers
HSV: multiple small shallow ulcers

272
Q

S/S, imaging findings, and treatment of neurocysticercosis?

A

Caused by pork tapeworm (Taenia solium)

S/S: SEIZURES, HA, increased intracranial pressure

Imaging: cystic lesions and calcified lesions

Tx: Albendazole

273
Q

What 2 serum markers are elevated in acute Hep B infection?

A

HbsAg (surface antigen)

anti-HBc IgM (core antigen)

274
Q

Complication of pancreatitis where person develops fever, chills, leukocytosis around 4 weeks after acute pancreatitis episode?

What is treatment?

A

Infected pancreatic pseudocyst

Percutaneous drainage

*Look for fluid-filled cyst in pancreas off of pancreatic duct on CT

275
Q

What is classic story for corneal abrasion? What is initial treatment?

A

Foreign body sensation + painful, red eye

Tx: topical anesthetic (tetracaine) to allow adequate physical, fundoscopy and fluorescein slit-lamp exam

276
Q

Person with abnormal behavior and confusion with abdominal pain resents with high calcium and low PTH. What are you thinking? What is next best test?

A

HYPERcalcemia –> bones, stones, groans, psychiatric overtones

If calcium high and PTH is low –> think exogenous production of PTH-rp
- Small cell carcinoma of lung

Chest X-ray

277
Q

Most appropriate treatment for acute spinal cord injury

A

IV steroids after neurologic exam

Brown-Sequard syndrome
Compression from metastatic cancer (prostate, breast, lung)

278
Q

3 common causes of B12 deficiency?

8 signs of B12 deficiency?

What is the name of severe B12 deficiency

A

Pernicious anemia
Strict vegetarian
Small bowel disease

Pallor, Weakness, Paresthesia, Ataxic gait, Loss of vibratory sensation, increased DTRs, extensor plantar reflex, dementia

*Subacute Combined Degeneration –> neurologic s/s of B12 deficiency

279
Q

Asymptomatic jaundice with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia w/o any LFT abnormalities. Also has elevated urine coproporphyrins. What 2 disorders could this be? How to differentiate the 2?

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome OR Rotor syndrome

Black liver = Dubin-Johnson syndrome

280
Q

Confirmatory test for MG?

A

EMG (progressive decrease in amplitude of muscle)

281
Q

Infections, inflammatory autoimmune disorders (RA), and cancers all can cause what blood disorder? What other blood test results are seen?

A

Anemia of chronic disease

Microcytic anemia
HIGH ferritin
LOW TIBC
LOW iron levels

282
Q

Treatment of recurrent calcium oxalate kidney stones?

A

Thiazide diuretics –> cause increased reabsorption of calcium from urine to decrease urinary calcium

283
Q

UTI treatment duration in men vs women?

Tx of choice? Secondary option?

A

7 days for MEN; 3 days for WOMEN

*DOC: quinolone
TMP-SMX second-line

284
Q

Acute brain stem infarction (adult or child) best evaluated with what test?

A

Angiography of neck vessels –> determine sources of bleeding, thrombus, or stenosis.

285
Q

Differentiate between Gilbert syndrome, Criggler Najjar 1 & 2?

A

NO anemia with these!

Gilbert: mild icterus from unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
*Triggered by certain events (fasting, physical exertion, illness, stress, fatigue)

CN 1: severe jaundice and neurologic impairment due to kernicteris in infants

- Indirect bili very high
- Tx: phototherapy and plasmapheresis

CN 2: lower serum bill levels and survival into adulthood with NO kernicteris/neuro impairment

286
Q

2 common side effects of isoniazid treatment?

A 
B6 deficiency (replace w/ pyroxidine)
INH hepatits (if mild, no worries)
287
Q

What types of nerve fibers are affected by Guillian Barre syndrome?

A

Demyelination of PERIPHERAL motor nerves (sensory and autonomic nerves also)

*Ascending weakness w/ feet tingling

288
Q

Signs of pellagra?

Deficiency of what?

A

Diarrhea (long term)
Dementia (depressed mood, can’t recall things)
Dermatitis (sun-exposed areas w/ rash)

Niacin

289
Q

Most common cause of loss of bile ducts in the liver in adults?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

290
Q

What are some side effects of celiac disease?

What 2 antibodies are specific for celiac?

A

Diarrhea
Fe deficiency anemia –> from malabsorption
Rash = dermatitis herpetiformis

anti-tissue transglutaminase IgA
anti-endomysial IgA

291
Q

1st line tx for animal bites?

A

Amox-clavulanate

292
Q

Persistent rhinorrhea, congestion, asthma, and B/L nasal polyps all side effects of what drug?

A

Aspirin

293
Q

Management kg suspected scaphoid fracture?

A

Initial X-ray –> wrist immobilization for 6-10 weeks

294
Q

Person with MCV 75 and nucleated erythroblasts with red dots around the nuclei on peripheral smear. Also has fatigue and abdominal pain with headache. What is cause of anemia?

A

Lead poisoning

  • Sideroblasts: nucleated erythroblasts
  • Basophilic stippling: red dots (ribosomes) on periphery of erythrocytes

*S/S: abd pain, neuro (HA, memory loss, foot drop)

295
Q

Explain SAAG?

What is the cutoff value?

A

Serum-to-ascities albumin gradient

> 1.1 = portal HTN (cirrhosis, cardiac, budd-chiari)

296
Q

Headaches, dizziness, pruritus (especially after showering), and splenomegaly are indicative of what hematologic disorder?

A

Polycythemia vera

Look for increased RBC (Hb & Hct), WBC, and platelets

HA and dizziness from increased blood viscosity

297
Q

What are the below parameters in septic shock:
CO?
PVR?
PCWP?

A

CO: increased (due to extreme vasodilation - try to maintain BP)
PVR: decreased (due to endotoxin causing vasodilation)
PCWP: decreased (no preload do to third spacing of intravascular fluid)

298
Q

RBCs with single, round, blue inclusions on Wright stain. What are they? What do they indicate?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies (normally removed by the spleen)

Indicate either physical absence of spleen or functional hyposplenism

299
Q

Person with alcoholic cirrhosis - what is the most import at screening test?

If found, what is best prophylactic treatment?

A

Endoscopy - assess presence of varices

If present and NON-bleeding = b-blocker

300
Q

What medications will exacerbate G6PD?

A

TMP-SMX
Dapsone
Primaquine

301
Q

In someone with hypertensive emergency, what is one of the best treatments? If given, what is a potential side effect? What are the signs?

A

Nitroprusside
Cyanide toxicity
Altered mental status, lactic acidosis, seizures, coma

302
Q

What are complications of Chagas disease?

A

Megacolon
Megaesophagus
Dilated cardiomyopathy

303
Q

What vitamin deficiency is seen with cracking of the corners of the lips, swollen tongue and mucus membranes, and red scaly patches on his eyebrows, cheeks, and nose. What is it?

A

Riboflavin (vit B2) deficiency

304
Q

Patient with dysphagia, coughing, halitosis, and a neck mass that varies in size with gurgling or swallowing foods/liquids. What is it? What is the cause behind it?

A

Zenkers diverticulum

Esophageal sphincter dysfunction and esophageal dysmotility

305
Q

Effects of thyrotoxicosis are caused by what physiologic change?

A

T3 causing increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines –> (+) chronotropic and inotropic effects –> myocardial contractility increases

306
Q

Thrombocytopenia (low platelets) are a finding in what chronic infection?

A

HIV

307
Q

Person with celiac sprue has normal Ca levels, low phosphate, elevated PTH and elevated Alk Phos. What is the cause?

A

Osteomalacia –> HIGH Alk Phos, low Ca, low Phos

  • Celiac sprue causes malabsorption of Vit D –> inadequate Ca and Phos reabsorption from the gut –> this triggers PTH release –> bone resorption increases Ca levels and Phos remains decreases
  • Secondary hyperparathyroidism
308
Q

Female with frequent headaches, fatigue and recent wt loss has should muscle stiffness in the mornings. A tender cord is palpated in the R temporal area. What is the most likely complication of this?

A

Giant cell (Temporal) Arteritis

Association w/ Polymyalgia Rheumatica

*Aortic Aneurysm

309
Q

2 week hx of weakness, low-grade fevers, and exertion dyspnea. Also has fingertip pain and his urine has been dark & cloudy recently. Several of his PIP and DIP joints are swollen. What is the cause?

A

Infective endocarditis

Painful fingertips = Osler nodes
Arthritis
Glomerulonephritis
Red non-tender lesions on palms and soles = Janeway lesions
Red and bleeding lesions of retina = Roth spots

310
Q

Person has pain that is worsened after eating and leads to weight loss from no eating foods because of fear of the pain that will follow. What is the most likely cause?

A

Atherosclerosis of mesenteric arteries

311
Q

What describes a severe anemia with low or absent reticulocytes?

A

Aplastic crisis

312
Q

Most effective initial treatment for hypertension?

A

Lifestyle modification –> DASH diet, low Na intake, regular exercise

313
Q

Treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lactulose –> helps draw ammonia out of blood into the gut

314
Q

Person with anemia, elevated BUN and creatinine, and high blood calcium - what is it? Next best test?

A

Multiple Myeloma (CRABBI)

Serum immunoelectrophoresis –> M spike (IgG)

315
Q

How to differentiate between B-thalassemia trait and Fe deficiency anemia?

what is seen on peripheral smear with B-thal?

A

B-thal trait: mild anemia, very high RBC count, Hgb > 10

Fe def anemia: LOW RBC count, microcytic when Hgb

316
Q

Person presents with shock from infection and has BP 70/40. Next day has LFT’s in the thousands. Why?

A

Shock liver

LFTs in thousands with slightly elevated total bilirubin and ALP

317
Q

Why is Graves disease at risk for developing HYPOthyroidism if treated with radioactive iodine?

A

In Graves, the ENTIRE gland is hyper-functional –> radio-iodine is taken up the the entire thyroid gland resulting in complete thyroid ablation

318
Q

What is the source of bleeding in Mallory-Weiss tear?

What can help determine between artery or vein tear?

A

Ruptured submucosal ARTERIES of distal esophagus/proximal stomach

*Prior upper endoscopy will show dilated veins if present (varices)

319
Q

What is a common side effect of dihydropyridine Ca-channel blockers (e.g. amlodipine)?

A

Peripheral edema –> these drugs cause dilation of peripheral blood vessels and leakage of fluid into interstitial space

320
Q

Person has periodic abdominal pain. Endoscopy shows multiple duodenal ulcers and a single jejunal ulcer. What is the cause of his impaired fat absorption? What is this?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
*Jejunal ulcer pathognomonic

Excess gastric acid produced –> inactivates pancreatic enzymes

321
Q

What 2 conditions present with difficulty swallowing solids and liquids, heartburn, and wt loss?
Best initial test?

A

Achalasia and GE cancer

Barium swallow –> shows dilation of upper esophagus with smooth narrowing of distal esophagus in ACHALASIA

Before starting achalasia tx –> do endoscopy to r/o cancer

322
Q

What is the initial finding in Pancoast tumor? What are other s/s?

Best initial test?

A

Shoulder pain

*Horner syndrome (same side as shoulder pain)
Ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis
*Weakness/atrophy of hand muscles

Get CXR

323
Q

Complication of prolonged immobilization (aside from rhabdo)? What is the mechanism and treatment?

A

Hypercalcemia

Increased osteoclastic bone resorption –> starts occurring in week 4 after immobilization

Bisphosphantes prevent bone loss

324
Q

77 yo male recently treated 3 months ago for pyelonephritis. Had cystoscopy done few days ago for persistent dysuria. Now he has new-onset heart murmur with painful red lesions on his fingertips. What bug is responsible for what he has?

A

Infective endocarditis

**Recurrent UTIs and pyelo = ENTEROCOCCUS

325
Q

Difficulty hearing in a crowded or noisy environment - classic for what?

A

Presbycusis –> sensorineural hearing loss occurring with aging
- Begins with symmetrical, high-frequency hearing impairment

326
Q

All patients with cirrhosis should have what screening test done?

A

Esophageal endoscopy –> r/o varices

Also liver biopsy for hepatocellular carcinoma

327
Q

Man has attack of gout in R great toe. Also describes occasional headaches and pruritus that can be “unbearable” after a hot bath. What is the cause of his gout flares?

A

Polycythemia vera (myeloproliferative disorder)

 * Look for splenomegaly and pruritus after baths (histamine release from basophils)
 - Causes overproduction of purines from catabolism of cells
328
Q

Associated symptoms with chronic inflammatory diarrhea?

A

Anemia
Elevated ESR
Reactive thrombocytosis (increased platelets)

*Positive stool blood test

329
Q

Most common cause of sepsis in sickle cell patients?

What is important prophylaxis?

A

S. pneumoniae

Prophylaxis with Penicillin

330
Q

Patient has facial swelling upon waking up as well as b/l LE edema. 4+ proteinuria found as well as palpable kidneys and liver. S4 heard on auscultation. History of recurrent pulmonary infections from bronchiectasis and psoriasis. What is the cause of all this?

A

Secondary Amyloidosis (AA)

*Nephrotic syndrome, palpable kidneys, hepatomegaly, ventricular hypertrophy (S4) w/ chronic inflammatory disease (recurrent pulm infections, bronchiectasis)

331
Q

Describe an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A
  • Develops WITHIN AN HOUR after blood transfusion has begun
  • Caused by ABO incompatibility
  • S/S: FLANK PAIN, fever, chills, hemoglobinuria

May progress to DIC
(+) Direct Coombs test

332
Q

How does cirrhosis affect transport protein levels of various hormones?

Signs of cirrhosis?

A

DECREASES the transport proteins
**TOTAL level of hormones are decreased, but FREE levels are unchanged (most bound to their plasma proteins)

Jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, ascites
Telangectasias, Palmar erythema, testicular atrophy, gynecomastia

333
Q

What is the pathogenesis behind gynecomastia in cirrhosis?

A

Damaged liver can’t metabolize circulating estrogen –> causes excess estrogen in bloodstream and causes:

  • Gynecomastia
  • Palmar erythema
  • Spider angiomas
  • Testicular atrophy & decreased body hair
334
Q

In a person with (+) HBeAg must be monitored with what tests?

A

*ALT (specific for hepatitis)
HBeAg

Every 3-6 months until they achieve viral clearance

335
Q

What are biliary cysts?

What are the findings on exam?

A

Congenital/acquired dilations of the biliary tree

1) Abdominal pain
2) Jaundice
3) Palpable mass in RUQ

336
Q

In Sickle Cell disease, what is a common finding on peripheral smear?

A

*Howell-Jolly bodies (nuclear remnants of RBC normally removed by functional spleen) –> due to recurrent splenic damage and decreased function, can’t remove these from RBCs

337
Q

What is Metoclopramide used to treat?
MOA?
Side effect?

A

Prokinetic agent used for nausea, vomiting, gastroparesis

Dopamine receptor blocker (antagonist - like antipsychotics)

**EPS –> dystonia

338
Q

What is Metoclopramide used to treat?
MOA?
Side effect?

A

Prokinetic agent used for nausea, vomiting, gastroparesis

Dopamine receptor blocker (antagonist - like antipsychotics)

**EPS –> dystonia

339
Q

Besides Barrett’s, what is another complication of GERD?

A

Esophageal strictures –> progressive dysphasia to solids without wt loss

Circumferential narrowing of distal esophagus

340
Q

Person has itching all over her body and when pooping takes forever to flush. Also has jaundice, enlarged liver and spleen. There is also elevated ALP, bilirubin, and (+) anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is it and what other eye finding can be present?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)

*Xanthelasma (eye cholesterol deposits) and xanthomas

341
Q

Person has itching all over her body and when pooping takes forever to flush. Also has jaundice, enlarged liver and spleen. There is also elevated ALP, bilirubin, and (+) anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is it and what other eye finding can be present?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)

*Xanthelasma (eye cholesterol deposits) and xanthomas

342
Q

How to distinguish Fe-def anemia from Thalassemia?

A

Thalassemia: NORMAL RDW, low RBC count
**Peripheral smear: Target cells, Teardrop cells

Fe-def anemia: HIGH RDW, low RBC count

343
Q

What electrolyte deficiency causes weakness, fatigue, muscle cramps in addition to broad flat T waves on EKG?

A

Low potassium

344
Q

Painless jaundice with elevated conjugated bilirubin is what until proven otherwise?

A

Pancreatic cancer or biliary tract cancer

345
Q

Person has TB and is taking isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. He develops red urine. What is the cause?

A

Rifampin –> causes Red coloration of body fluids

346
Q

What is the test of choice to diagnose lactose intolerance?

A

Hydrogen breath test

347
Q

38 yo man has 6 mo history of persistent and progressively worsening knee and shoulder pain. He was recently diagnosed with diabetes. He has mild hepatomegaly on exam and knee joints are swollen and tender. LFTs are normal. Knee and shoulder X-rays show chondrocalcinosis. What do you suspect? Next best step?

A

Hemochromatosis

**Pseudogout associated w/ hemochromatosis
**Recent onset of diabetes
Also can have hyper pigmentation, dilated cardiomyopathy

Next best step –> serum iron studies (increased Fe and transferrin, ferritin)

348
Q

Person found to have MALT lymphoma without any evidence of metastasis. What is the association with this? What is treatment?

A

H. pylori associated with MALT lymphoma

*If you treat the H. pylori –> the MALT lymphoma will usually resolve!

Tx: PPI, clarithromycin, amoxicillin

349
Q

After a bout of pancreatitis, a person develops an epigastric mass that radiates pain to the back. Vitals are stable. Serum amylase is up to 308. What is the likely diagnosis? Tx?

A

Pseudocyst

*Fibrous capsule containing inflammatory enzymes, including amylase, and when it ruptures it releases these into the bloodstream

Tx: most resolve spontaneously

350
Q

What are signs suggestive of Zenker’s diverticulum?

What is a potential complication?

Test of choice?

A

Dysphagia, REGURGITATION of food, HALITOSIS, occasional palpable neck mass

*Aspiration pneumonia (R lower lobe)

Test of choice: contrast esophagram (barium swallow)

351
Q

Man presents with unremitting nose bleeding. He had similar bleeding episodes in the past. He has several ruby-colored papillose on his lips that blanch partially with pressure. Digital clubbing is present. His Hct is elevated and platelet count is normal. What is causing his bleeding?

A

AVM in lungs –> shunt blood from R –> L heart in lungs without oxygenation –> causes chronic hypoxemia and a reactive polycythemia

  • *Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome (hereditary telangiectasia)
    1) Diffuse telangiectasias
    2) Recurrent epistaxis
    3) Widespread AV malformations
352
Q

What deficiency is manifested by hair loss, bullous and pustular lesions around the mouth and eyes, and a strange taste when eating foods?

What other systemic diseases can precipitate this deficiency?

A

Zinc

*Any malabsorption conditions (Crohns) –> zinc is absorbed in the jejunum

353
Q

What common findings are seen in people with anorexia?

A

**Osteoporosis (decreased estrogen from HPA abnormalities)
Elevated cholesterol and carotene levels
Prolonged QT interval (arrhythmias)
Euthyroid sick syndrome
HPA dysfunction –> anovulation, amenorrhea, estrogen deficiency
Hyponatremia from excess water drinking

354
Q

Person in hospital is being treated for DVT. On the 6th day, they develop a cold R upper extremity with no pulse in that arm. The platelets have dropped significantly from admission and aPTT is elevated. What is the cause?

A

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia –> from unfractionated heparin use

**Elevated aPTT and thrombosis

Antibodies to platelet factor 4 + heparin –> IgG binds to this complex –> causes platelet aggregation, thrombocytopenia, THROMBOSIS usually 5-10 days after staring heparin

355
Q

What physical manifestation is seen in malignant hypertension?

A

Papilledema

356
Q

What disease is characterized by recurrent oral ulcers, recurrent genital ulcers, anterior uveitis and skin lesions?

A

Behcet syndrome

357
Q

Common cause of B12 deficiency associated with autoimmune diseases such as thyroid disease and vitiligo, shiny tongue, and shuffling gait?

A

Pernicious anemia

358
Q

What signs are seen in Addison disease?

A

Adrenal failure

**Hyperpigmentation
Low BP
Vitiligo
Hyperkalemia

359
Q

Dark brown discoloration of the colon with lymph follicles shining through as pale patches - what is this?

A

Laxative abuse
(melanosis coli)

*Look for healthcare worker

360
Q

What condition is characterized by PAINLESS blisters (hands), increased skin fragility on the hands, facial hypertrichosis, and hyper pigmentation?

What meds is it associated with?
What medical condition is it associated with?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

Ethanol, OCP –> trigger it

Hep C

361
Q

What vitamin deficiency is commonly seen in alcoholics?

A

Folate!!

362
Q

What signs are seen with Vit D overdose?

A

Hypercalcemia –> abdominal pain, constipation, polydipsia, polyuria

Vit D increases Ca gut absorption

363
Q

What condition can give you Marfan-like body habitus?

How do you differentiate it from Marfans?

A

Homocystinuria

  • Fair skin & eyes
  • Intellectual disability
  • Thrombosis (stroke)
364
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Thin
Smoking
*Alcohol consumption (excessive)
*Steroid use

365
Q

54 yo woman presents with dizziness and palpitations with exertion. Her feet feel “numb” and are less sensitive to cold. She has pale conjunctiva and a shiny tongue. Ankle reflex is decreased b/l. Labs show megaloblastic anemia. What is it? What should be monitored for long-term complications?

A

Pernicious anemia (Vit B12 def)

* *Macrocytic anemia
* *Glossitis (Shiny tongue)
* *Neuro changes

**Gastric cancer

366
Q

Person has fragmented RBCs on peripheral smear with low Hb. They also have low platelets and elevated BUN & creatinine. Headaches and confusion are present. PT is normal. What is it? What is treatment?

A

TTP

1) Hemolytic anemia
2) Low platelets
3) Renal failure
4) Neuro symptoms

Deficincy in ADAMTS-13 (normally cleaves vWF units) or autoantibodies –> have large vWF multimers that cause platelet aggregation

*Tx: Plasmapheresis (removes the autoantibodies)

367
Q

In a person with transient monocular vision loss (amaurosis fugax), what 3 conditions must you assume?

A

Emboli from carotid atherosclerosis (older people)
Emboli from heart (AFib)
Fibromuscular dysplasia (younger women)

368
Q

Anyone, even pregnant women, with a seizure and problems moving an arm?

A

Posterior shoulder dislocation

369
Q

27 yo female presents with very dark yellow urine and her boyfriend believes she is “more moody than usual.” She has yellow sclera, spider nevi, rigidity, and tremor at rest. Slit-lamp shows greenish brown deposits around both corneas. Liver is enlarged with irregular edge. What is it?

A

Hepatolenticular degneration (Wilson disease)

*Copper leaks from injured hepatocytes into the blood to be deposited in various tissues (basal ganglia/hepatolenticular and cornea)

370
Q

66 yo has 4 wk hx of increasing back pain and severe constipation. He has also been urinating excessively. He has no weakness or sensory loss. Only meds are Tylenol and metoprolol. Occult blood is (-). Hb is 9.5, BUN 28, Cr 1.9, and ESR is elevated. What is the cause for his constipation?

A
  • Hypercalcemia
    • Causes polyuria, constipation, confusion, anorexia, weakness

**Multiple myeloma –> remember CRABBI
Back pain, anemia, renal dysfxn, elevated ESR

Calcium overload
Renal failure
Anemia
Bone lytic lesions
Infections (less Ig)
371
Q

Person has signs of intravascular hemolysis (low haptoglobin, low Hb, elevated bilirubin) and low platelets and WBCs. They have evidence of enlarged liver from hepatic vein thrombosis. What is the cause?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

**Increased risk of thrombosis (cerebral or abdominal)

Flow cytometry for ABSENCE of CD55/CD59

372
Q

62 yo male has increasing fatigue and weakness for past 4 months. Has a dull pain in back and arms that is worse with walking, but no paresthesias or numbness. There is lumbar spine tenderness. His labs show normal WBC count, low Hb and Hct, and low/normal platelets. What must you consider?

What would you see on peripheral smear?

What would you see in urine?

What about bone marrow exam?

A

Multiple myeloma

Rouleux formation (stacked RBCs)

Bence-Jones proteins (Ig light chains)

Plasma cell over proliferation

  • *Hypercalcemia
  • *Lytic bone lesions (back pain)
  • *Recurrent infections
  • *Anemia
  • *Bence-Jones proteins in urine (light chains)
  • *Renal failure
373
Q

How does aspirin affect acid-base relationships?

A

Mixed acid-base disturbance

Resp alkalosis –> aspirin (+) medullary resp center to INCREASE ventilation = decrease pCO2

Metabolic acidosis –> uncouples oxida phos and causes buildup of organic acids

374
Q

What is classic triad for splenic abscess?

What other s/s can be present?

What cardiac pathology is associated with this?

A

Fever, high WBC count, LUQ abd pain

L-sided pleuritic chest pain, L pleural effusion, splenomegaly

Infective endocarditis

375
Q

What medications are associated with increased risk of pancreatitis?

A

HCTZ, furosemide
metronidazole, tetracycline
valproic acid

376
Q

56 yo develops oliguria 3 days after having a kidney transplant. BP is 160/100 and his serum Na 145, K 5.5, Cr 3.2, BUN 30. Cyclosporine levels are normal. Biopsy of the transplant shows heavy lymphocyte infiltration and vascular involvement with swelling of the intima. What is the best treatment?

A

IV steroids

*Oliguria, HTN, and increased Cr/BUN

377
Q

Most common cause of painless GI bleeding in elderly patients?

What is a risk factor?

A

Diverticulosis

Constipation

378
Q

Best treatment for hemodynamically stable pancreatitis?

A

IV fluids, analgesics, NPO

379
Q

What blood condition results in normocytic anemia, high reticulocyte count, and high MCHC with jaundice and splenomegaly?

Test to confirm?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

Eosin-5-maleimide binding + acidified glycerol lysis test

380
Q

What vitamin deficiency is characterized by diarrhea, nausea, large tongue, hyper pigmented rash and poor concentration, irritability, or dementia?

A

Niacin deficiency

381
Q

Person with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, what is the appropriate course of action?

A

Stop ALL heparin products

Switch to alternative agent (agatroban)

382
Q

What is the step-wise approach for treatment of ascites?

A

1) Fluid/Na restriction
2) Spironolactone
3) Loop diuretics (not more than 1L/day of diuresis)
4) Frequent abdominal paracentesis (2-4 L/day if renal fxn is ok)

383
Q

What other GI disease is associated with UC?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

384
Q

Deficiency in hereditary angioedema?

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency

385
Q

Person on chemotherapy develops peaked T waves on EKG. Ca gluconate is given. What additional tx will help immediately lower his K?

A

Insulin + glucose –> drives K intracellularly

386
Q

Man has R-sided varicocele that does NOT empty when recumbent. What must you consider? What lab findings would be seen?

A

Renal cell carcinoma
*Erythropoietin production

Polycythemia –> increased Hb/Hct, platelets

387
Q

What triad of symptoms is multiple myeloma until proven otherwise?

A 
Bone pain (back/chest pain)
Renal failure (elevated BUN/Cr)
Hypercalcemia

Also have anemia

388
Q

What disorder is characterized by bite cells and RBC inclusions?

Inheritance pattern?

A

G6PD deficiency

No G6PD = no creation of NADPH –> no glutathione which normally prevents oxidation of hemoglobin –> Hb denatures as it’s oxidized into Heinz bodies

*X-linked recessive

389
Q

Common findings in primary biliary cirrhosis?

Lab finding diagnostic for PBC?

Tx?

A

S/S: Pruritus, large liver, xanthomas (eye/skin/tendons), xanthelasmas

  • anti-mitochondrial antibodies
  • Tx: Ursodeoxycholic acid (slows disease progression and relieves symptoms)
390
Q

Man found to have elevated serum protein with normal albumin levels. Further workup showed monoclonal paraprotein band on serum protein electrophoresis. Several days later, repeat urine protein electrophoresis shows NO monoclonal protein. What is the best next step in mgmt?

A

MGUS –> NO anemia, hypercalcemia, or renal insufficiency

391
Q

18 yo African American man has 3 day hx worsening fatigue and exertional dyspnea. He had mononucleosis 2 weeks ago. Spleen is enlarged and mild scleral icterus is present. Labs show anemia with normal MCV and high reticulocytes. What else is likely to be seen on testing?

What other conditions would have this same finding?

A

(+) Direct Coombs test –> COLD agglutinin AIHA
*IgM present

*CLL, EBV mononucleosis, SLE, Mycoplasma (walking pneumonia), penicillin

392
Q

In person with chronic kidney disease, what treatment is needed for anemia?

What else must be given to also prevent anemia?

A

Erythropoietin –> stimulates progenitor cells in the bone marrow to create more RBCs –> surge in iron usage –> can cause rapid depletion in body’s iron stores

Supplement iron

393
Q

Person has chronic diarrhea and fecal fat content that is increased. D-xylose test shows decreased urinary excretion before and after Abx treatment. What is the cause?

A

Celiac disease –> D-xylose is monosaccharide that requires intact mucosa for absorption

394
Q

What is commonly found in the MIDDLE mediastinum?

ANTERIOR mediastinum?

POSTERIOR mediastinum?

A

MIDDLE –> bronchogenic cysts

ANTERIOR –> thymoma

POSTERIOR –> neurogenic tumors

395
Q

43 yo man with hx of allergic rhinitis and childhood eczema has chest pain with ST depression in lateral leads. Treated with aspirin, clopidogrel, LMWH, metoprolol, and lisinopril. On day 2 of hospitalization, has SOB w/ prolonged expiration and b/l wheezes. What is most likely cause of respiratory s/s?

A

Medication side effect from either aspirin or B-blocker

  • Aspirin –> causes bronchoconstriction (asthma) in people with chronic rhinitis and nasal polyps
  • B-blocker –> non-selective can trigger bronchoconstriction (B2 blockade)
396
Q

12 yo girl with L sided ear drainage that has persisted for 3 weeks despite antibiotics. She also has L sided hearing loss. There is peripheral granulation and some skin debris on otoscopic exam. What should be considered?

A

Cholesteatoma

Continued ear drainage for several weeks despite Abx therapy + hearing loss

Chronic middle ear disease leads to formation of retraction pocket in the TM which can fill with granulation tissue and skin debris.

397
Q

Most common cause of death in general population AND dialysis patients?

A

CV disease

398
Q

22 yo male develops resting tremor, muscular rigidity, and clumsy gait in addition to slurred speech. He has mild liver enlargement. He anemia and elevated LFTs. Liver biopsy shows inflammation and portal fibrosis with hepatocellular necrosis. What are you suspecting? How do you verify?

A

Wilson’s disease –> liver, neuropsych (basal ganglia)

*Ceruloplasmin (low) + slit-lamp for Kayser-Fleischer rings

399
Q

Person has episodic abdominal pain that wakes him at night and is relieved with glass of water and piece of bread. He experienced an occasional “dark stool.” Vitals are stable. What is best option for long-term symptoms relief?

A

H. Pylori gastritis

Antibiotics + omeprazole

*(Amoxicillin + clarithromycin) + PPI

400
Q

Other extracolonic findings in UC?

A
  • Erythema nodosum (painful, red nodules over extensor surfaces)
  • Pyoderma gangrenosum
  • Episcleritis
  • Arthritis –> similar to ankylosing spondylitis
  • Cholangitis –> elevated ALP
  • p-ANCA (+)
401
Q

What findings are classic in TTP?

A

Hemolytic anemia –> indirect hyperbilirubinemia, normocytic anemia, high reticulocytes

Renal failure –> elevated BUN + Creatinine

Low platelets

Altered mental status

402
Q

Man has easy fatiguability for several months. He is a vegetarian and drinks alcohol daily. Hb is 10.8 and is given thiamine and folic acid daily. After several months, he reports recurrent falls and increasing forgetfulness. What is the most likely finding at this point?

A

Loss of proprioception in LE

*B12 deficiency –> giving folic acid will correct the megaloblastosis but NOT the neurologic effects

403
Q

What should be suspected in any person with malabsorption and Fe-def anemia?

Why will anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies or anti-endomysial antibodies be absent in some cases?

A

Celiac disease

  • May be concurrent IgA deficiency –> these specific antibodies will be ABSENT
  • If the intestinal biopsy shows villous atrophy = celiac
404
Q

What feature is most characteristic of Crohn’s vs UC?

A

Non-caseating granulomas in Crohn’s

405
Q

Most common causes of folic acid deficiency?

Medication-induced causes of folic acid deficiency?

A

Poor diet OR alcoholism

Phenytoin (impaired absorption of folic acid)
Methotrexate, TMP-SMX (both block folic acid physiologic effects - blocking dihydrofolate reductase)

406
Q

Why is hematuria the most common renal finding in sickle cell patients?

A

Isosthenuria –> sickling of RBCs block the vasa recta to renal papilla, causing impairment of countercurrent exchange mechanism in kidney –> painless hematuria

407
Q

What is common complication of upper endoscopy?

How to verify?

A

Esophageal perforation

*Water-soluble contrast esophagram –> does NOT irritate the pleura (contrast does)

408
Q

25 yo African male has nocturnia over past several months despite increasing fluid intake. Had recurrent OM as a child. Urinalysis shows no proteinuria or sediment abnormalities. What is the nocturnia from?

A

Sickle cell disease –> hyposthenuria (RBC sickling in the vasa rectae from the inner medulla –> impairs countercurrent exchange and free water absorption)

409
Q

47 yo man with several months of lethargy and decreased libido. Has OA and DM diagnosed 1 yr ago. Exam shows mild hepatomegaly and testicular atrophy. What cardiac abnormality is most likely to be present?

A

Hemochromatosis
Conduction abnormalities, restrictive/dilated CM

  • Hypogonadism (testicular atrophy, decreased sexual drive)
  • Arthopathy
  • Diabetes
  • Hepatomegaly

Look for:

  • Hepatic fibrosis/cirrhosis
  • DM
  • Arthopathy (pseudogout)
  • Skin pigmentation
  • ED
410
Q

Best tx for sickle cell disease in the acute setting?

A

Exchange transfusion (decrease % of sickled cells in circulation)

411
Q

Best step in hypothermia?

A

Active rewarming

412
Q

What treatment is given to people who do NOT want elective cholecystectomy?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid –> decreases cholesterol content of bile by reducing hepatic secretion and intestinal reabsorption of cholesterol

413
Q

25 yo female comes for preconception counseling. Her grandparents are from Greece and her husband’s family is Mediterranean descent. Her mother and sister have been diagnosed with anemia. Thalassemia anemia is suspected. What is the most appropriate initial screening test?

A

CBC –> determine hemoglobin concentration

*If anemia is present + reduced MCV = further testing

414
Q

Mechanism behind hemophilia causing joint damage?

A

Iron/hemosiderin deposition in joint space leading to synovitis and fibrosis within the joint

415
Q

Why would a person with RA receiving treatment have a macrocytic anemia?

A

Methotrexate –> folate antimetabolite (blocks utilization of folate in cells)

416
Q

Metformin should NEVER be given in what situations?

A

Acute renal failure, liver failure, sepsis –> risk of lactic acidosis

417
Q

C. difficile, aside from Abx, is associated with what other medications?

A

PPI or H2 blockers

Step 2 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions