Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BHS Stage 5 > Illness > Flashcards

Illness Flashcards

1
Q

Elevations of CK (Creatinine Kinase) are seen in

A

extertional rhabdomyolysis
atypical myopathy
myositis
trauma
HKPP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does EOTRH stand for

A

Equine Odontoclastic Tooth Resorption and Hypercementosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

As teeth narrow gaps are created which are called

A

Diastema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Immature immune system

A

more susceptible to worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Immature Lungs/Digestion

A

easily damanged by migrating worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Large Round Worm primarily effect

A

horses under 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

EIA is transfered by

A

infected blood or blood products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

EIA is diagnosied via

A

Coggins Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Horses that have come into contact with horse infected with EIA which is suspected of being infected must be quarantined for a

A

minimum of 90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Best treatment for EOTRH

A

Tooth removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PPID

A

Pituitary pars Intermedia dysfunction aka cushings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

80% horse with lami have

A

Underlying endocrine disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Horses teeth naturally wear

A

Away at 2-3 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fungal skin condition

A

Ringworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Allergic reactions include

A

Urticaria Sweet Itch , Photosensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bacterial skin conditions Includes

A

Mud Fever Rain Scald

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Parastic Skin Conditions Include

A

Lice, Warbles, Mange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sarcoid is a type of

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Skin Layers from Deepest to Shallowest

A

Subcutaneious Layer, Dermis, Epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Arrector Pili Muscle

A

makes hair stand on end when the horse is cold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Virsus skin conditions include

A

Viral Warts, Aural Plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cancer Skin Conditions

A

Melanoma and Sarcoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Imaverol is a treatment for

A

ringworm (Topical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Griseofulvin Powder is for

A

putting in feed for horses with ringworm (to get into blood stream to treat source)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Example of treatment for Urticaria

A

Corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Circles of Urticaria

A

are usual dietry caused (often Barley)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sweet Itch is when the horse is allergic to the bite from a

A

culicoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Insol Vaccine

A

x2 2 weeks apart for Sweet Itch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Oral Prednisilone

A

1 mg day for sweet itch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Depo medrone is an IM injection for

A

sweet itch and can give 1 month relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Photosensitization is a reaction to

A

UV and St Johns Wart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment for photosentization

A

Steriod Injections , Management (dust padock, turn out at night)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Atopic Dermantitis

A

Need to do blood test ( IDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SAT

A

Serum Allergy Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gold standard test for allergies

A

IDA (Intra Dermal Allergen Tests) looks for elevated IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Lavage equals

A

Spray /Suck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dermatophilus Bacteria

A

is when Mud Fever starts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Treatement for Mud Fever

A

Clean (Hibiscrub), Soften Scabs, Dry , Antiseptic, Antibacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Vaseline

A

Water proof (not healing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dermatophilus Bacteria

A

Rain Scald

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Invermectin and Deosect can be used for

A

Lice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Risk Factors for Mud Fever

A

-Wet/Mud
-Dirty Bedding
Washing and not drying
-Damaged due to mites/wounds
-non-pigmented skins
think skinned horses
cushing disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hibiscrub is

A

chlorhexidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Barrier creams can be used prior to turnout to create a protective layer between the skin and the mud. However, these should only be used

A

preventatively, not for treatment, as they can worsen mud fever by allowing bacteria to grow between the skin and the cream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bots can live inside a horse for

A

8-10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Flys can lay up to

A

500 eggs in the 7 to 10 day lifespan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bots can damage the

A

stomach wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Gastroscopy

A

Fibre optic tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Warbles is

A

Bot Larvae immerging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Mange can cause

A

Pruritis (aka abnormal itching)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Chorioptic

A

Heels - Mange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Psoroptic

A

Mane and Tails - Mange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Demodectic

A

Face Neck - Mange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Sercoptic

A

Scabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Treatment for Mange

A

Deosect
Imaverol (Topical Anti Fungal)
Ivermectin x 2 injection 10 days apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Mallenders found on the

A

front of hocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Sallenders found on the

A

back of knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Mallenders and Sallenders are caused by

A

hyper keratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

No cure for Mallenders/Sallenders treat as per

A

mud fever

60
Q

Herpes 1

A

Pappiloma Virsus (Viral Warts)

61
Q

Incubation period for Viral Warts

A

60 days ( Go away in 1 - 9 months)

62
Q

Flys can spread

A

Pappiloma virsus

63
Q

Imiquimod 5% POM

A

can be used for Viral Warts as it is a immune response modifer (2 - 3 days a week non consecutive days)

64
Q

Nodular Skin Disease

A

Melanoma

65
Q

You can have two types of Melanoma

A

Malignant and Non Malignant

66
Q

80% greys of 15 yrs have

A

melanoma

67
Q

80% of melanoma’s

A

become malignant

68
Q

Key areas for Melanoma’s

A

Guttural Pouch, Parotid Melanomas

69
Q

Melanomas on the spinal cord

A

can cause soundness issues

70
Q

Oncept Injection

A

Trains the horse mmune system to target the enzeme enzyme concentrated in melanoma cells so the system will attack and kill those cells.- is their enough evidence

71
Q

Types of Sacroids

6 Options

A

Occult, Verrucous, Nodular , Fibroblastic, Mixed , Malignant

72
Q

Bacillus Camette Guerin (BCG) vaccine:

A

Can be used for Sarcoids

73
Q

CO2 Laser

A

Remove Sarcoids

74
Q

Sarcoids are caused by

A

bovine papilloma virus (BPV)

75
Q

AW4 LUDES

A

Liverpool cream

76
Q

Sitfast

A

area become necrotic due to pressure

77
Q

Folliculitis can be

A

bacterial or fungal

78
Q

Grease Bumps

A

can be an issue clipping

79
Q

Line Firing is not

A

banned in Ireland

80
Q

Cellutitis is a

A

bacteria infection

81
Q

Treatements of cellulities

A

Bute, Steriods ,Diurectics , Hydrotherapy

82
Q

Lymphangitis is inflammation of the

A

lymphatic system

83
Q

Skin assists in the sythesis of

A

Vit D

84
Q

Uses of CT scan

A

Head teeth sinus etc . Headshaking. Maybe lower limb

85
Q

Anthroscopy

A

Treatment or diagnosis within synovial structure

86
Q

Gastrostomy uses a

A

3 metre tube

87
Q

Extracorperal shock wave therapy

A

Should increase blood flow and activation oestogenic factors.

Acts as pain relieve

88
Q

Adequan can be used for

A

Djd

89
Q

Usa travel must be tested for

A

Eia , dourine, gland3rs , equine piroplasmosis

90
Q

Horses transported can loose weight at rate

A

Of 2 -3 kg per hour

91
Q

Examples of drugs for nerve block

A

Mepivacaine or lidocaine

92
Q

Clinical signs of flu

A

High fever up to 41 c cougging . Nasal discharge . Mild swelling under jaw

93
Q

Strangles is cause by

A

Streptococcus equi

94
Q

Atypical myopathy in horses is particularly prevalent in

A

autumn and spring

95
Q

Sycamore is high in HGA causes

A

atypical myopathy

96
Q

Tetanus is a bacterial infection, where the toxins produced by the

A

bacteria attack the horse’s nervous system

97
Q

Signs to watch for if a horse is suffering from tetanus include:

A

Abnormal sensitivity to sound or touch
A stiff gait
Prolapse of the third eyelid, which may cover half the eye
Very rigid ears that stick up
The top of the tail sticks out
A worried expression, with retraction of the eyelids and flared nostrils due to muscle spasm
Inability to open the mouth due to spasm of the masseter (powerful chewing) muscles
Regurgitation of food and water from the nostrils and drooling of saliva from the mouth as swallowing becomes more difficult
Partially chewed hay may be held in the mouth
Colic

98
Q

Tetanus Boosters

A

every 2/4 years

99
Q

Vaccinated pregnant mares should have a tetanus toxoid booster

A

4 to 6 weeks prior to foaling.

100
Q

Polysaccharide storage myopathy results in an

A

abnormal accumulation of glycogen, the form of sugar stored in muscle.

101
Q

A genetic mutation in the glycogen synthase 1 (GYS1) gene causes

A

PSSM1

102
Q

PSSM1 is more commonly observed in

A

Quarter Horses, related breeds such as Paints and Appaloosas, and draft breeds, although cases have been reported in more than 20 breeds.

103
Q

. The cause of PSSM2 remains unknown; there may actually

A

multiple causes

104
Q

Clinical signs of PSSM

A

weating, lameness, sore muscles, undiagnosed lameness, poor performance, and muscle tremors (“tying up”). These may occur with or without exercise. Under saddle, affected horses may be reluctant to go forward or collect. Some affected horses, however, do not exhibit any clinical signs.

105
Q

Testing for PSSM1

A

genetic test for the GYS1 variant. This can be performed on hair or blood samples.

106
Q

Approximately 50% of affected horses with PSSM1 show improvement under

A

dietary management

107
Q

most important finding in this study was that serum selenium concentration was significantly lower in

A

cribbing horses than in controls, with the lowest levels measured while horses were actually cribbing,

108
Q

Beet pulp is an energy-rich source of digestible fiber that

A

helps promote a healthy microbial population in the hindgut.”

109
Q

Recurrent equine rhabdomyolysis (RER)
RER is the form of recurrent tying up seen

A

in Thoroughbreds, Standardbreds and Arabians. RER is thought to involve an abnormality, or increased sensitivity, when a muscle cell contracts. There is no clear genetic predisposition yet, but one may be identified in the future. These types of contractility abnormalities cannot be seen on a muscle biopsy. More commonly, a presumptive diagnosis is made, especially if they are considered higher risk (young TB, female, nervous nature).

110
Q

Management issues which can cause tying up

A

Over-exercised for the level of fitness
Inappropriate diet (too much starch and too little fibre)
Insufficient electrolyte supplementation
Heat exhaustion

111
Q

A FEC is a diagnostic test performed by a lab to determine how many

A

dult egg-laying worms your horse has currently.

112
Q

FECs only detect adult (egg laying) worms and therefore it does not tell you about the number of

A

immature worms (larvae) in the horse’s gut. or the tapeworm infection as these eggs are shed intermittently

113
Q

Which wormers can kill tapeworm

A

praziquantel or double dose pyrantel

114
Q

Incubation period of strangles

A

3 to 14 days

115
Q

How much would you feed for maintence

A

1.5% of bodyweight of which 95-100% would be roughage

116
Q

Three types of equine herpes disease syndromes

A

upper respiratory disease, abortion, neurological

117
Q

Less than 70% improvement after nerve block equal

A

another issue

118
Q

Of horses with DDFT lesions, about 15% have

A

low heels/broken back hoof pastern axis

119
Q

current gold standard for EHV-1 testing is for veterinarians to use a swab to take a sample from the

A

nasal tract

120
Q

Equine herpesvirus type 1 has no cure. In fact, the virus can never be eliminated from a horse’s body entirely. It stays nestled in

A

lymphocytes and or centeral nervous system for life

121
Q

Cryptorchids are intact males with

A

hidden testes

122
Q

Approximately 3-4% of colts are

A

cryptochids

123
Q

Horses can be either unilateral (one testicle not descended) or bilateral (both testicles not descended)

A

cryptochids

124
Q

Owners shouldn’t become concerned that a colt is a true cryptorchid until he’s reached

A

18 months

125
Q

How to diagnosis crypochids

A

palpation, blood for HcG testing

126
Q

A CT image is a computerised imaging procedure produced by a

A

narrow beam of x-rays which are quickly rotated around the point of interest. This produces signals that are then processed by the computer to generate cross-sectional images or ‘slices’ of the body. These slices contain considerably more detail than conventional x-rays and can be stacked together to produce three dimensional images.

127
Q

CT imaging is used when we suspect conditions of:

A

· Sinus cavities

· Nasal passages

· The Skull – masses or fractures

· Cervical vertebrae

· Brain and neck lesions

· Headshaking

· Dental conditions

· Bony changes in the legs

128
Q

Choke -

A

horses swallowing whole large pieces of carrots or apples, eating un-soaked sugar beet, horses with poor teeth that are not able to chew their food normally, excited or greedy horses that swallow without chewing properly, horses post exercise that have a dry oesophagus and choke if given a haynet and very rarely, it can be due to tumours or strictures in the oesophagus.

129
Q

Treatment of choke:

A

Sedation/Muscle relaxants
Stomach Tube
Low Warm water
Anti-biotics

130
Q

Stage 2 Vetting

A

Stage 1: Preliminary Examination: Identification of the horse including the presence of a microchip. A clinical examination of the horse including assessment of the eyes, heart, lungs, teeth, skin, feet, limb and body palpation.
Stage 2: Trot Up: Walk and trot in-hand in a straight line and flexion tests, possible lunging, turning and backing.

131
Q

Stage 5

A

Stage 1: Preliminary Examination: Identification of the horse including the presence of a microchip. A clinical examination of the horse including assessment of the eyes, heart, lungs, teeth, skin, feet, limb and body palpation.
Stage 2: Trot Up: Walk and trot in-hand in a straight line and flexion tests, possible lunging, turning and backing.
Stage 3: Strenuous ridden exercise: Unbroken horses may be lunged. The horse is assessed whilst ridden, where possible in all paces. This enables the horse to be assessed orthopaedically, as well as undergoing a useful cardiac and respiratory evaluation whilst being ridden. Seeing a horse under saddle is also a good way to evaluate the back.
Stage 4: Period of rest to monitor recovery: This may elicit any stiffness when the horse is re-examined at the 5th stage. The horse is examined loose in the stable to assess behaviour. This is a good opportunity to check all the documentation, such as the horse’s passport.
Stage 5: Final trot up: This may include repeat flexion tests and possible lunging on firm and soft surface where appropriate.

132
Q

Arti-Cell® FORTE

A

Used to treat mild to moderate lameness linked to non-infective joint inflammation in horses. It contains stem cells which are obtained from equine blood. Stem cells can develop into other types of cells. The stem cells in the active substance (mesenchymal stem cells) are treated so that they develop into cartilage cells.

133
Q

Arti cell forte should treat

A

Reduction of mild to moderate recurrent lameness associated with non-septic joint inflammation in horses

134
Q

Bog spavin is a swelling of the upper joint – called the

A

tarsocrural joint - leak of synovial fluid - either synovities or djd

135
Q

Bone spavin is a degenerative joint disease in the

A

lower joints of the hock that has progressed to osteoarthritis. There are three lower hock joints: the tarsometatarsal and the distal intertarsal are most often affected. The third joint, the proximal intertarsal, is less likely to develop bone spavin.

136
Q

Serratus Ventralis has a

A

cervical and thoratic portion

137
Q

Anti Cell Forte is

A

ready to use stem cell

138
Q

10 ml Desect to

A

500 ml water

139
Q

There are two varietis of lice:

A

bloodsucking (Haematopinus asini) and biting (Damalinia equi). Both species are six-legged, tiny, wingless and usually light brown in colour.

140
Q

Lice have a life cycle of between

A

10 - 21 days

141
Q

Dilaterol

A

Treatment of respiratory disease in horses where it is considered that airway obstruction due to bronchospasm and or accumulation of mucus is a contributing factor, and improved mucociliary clearance is desirable.

142
Q

Ventipulmin is a drug used to open

A

the respiratory passages of horses and to help clear them of mucus. This can be beneficial in some allergic respiratory diseases, often associated with a cough, due to mould spores in hay and straw (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or COPD). Ventipulmin is also useful in cases where infection of the respiratory tract is involved, such as equine influenza. Where bacterial infection is present, antibiotics can be used as well. Ventipulmin is available as Ventipulmin Granules or Ventipulmin Syrup to add to food. There is also a Ventipulmin Injection available.

143
Q

Domosedan at least

A

50 pounds

144
Q

Oestrogen suplhate

A

Rig over 3

145
Q

Rig below 3 test before and

A

Aftee HCG injection

BHS Stage 5 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions