ILA Flashcards

1
Q

Which artery most frequently supplies the Atrio Ventricular Node?

A

Right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which sentence best describes the relationships of BP & SVR with the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Parasympathetic nerves do not have a major influence on peripheral blood vessel diameter as blood vessels do not have parasympathetic innervation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the purpose of the Ductus Arteriosus in the foetal cardiovascular system?

A

allow blood to bypass the foetal lungs by shunting it from the Pulmonary Artery to the Aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which nerve innervates the pericardium?

A

Phrenic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which sentence best describes the relationships of SVR & BP with the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic nerves decrease peripheral blood vessel diameter thereby increasing systemic vascular resistance and increasing blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Occlusion is most likely to result in a fatal heart attack

A

Left main coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the term used to describe a malignant tumour of the pleural membranes?

A

Mesothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of these cells provides cilia for the mucociliary escalator?

A

Columnar Epithelial Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of these factors will contribute to causing bronchodilation?

A

Adrenaline causes bronchodilation, by binding to β 2 -receptors in the smooth muscle of the bronchioles and causing their relaxation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond to:

A

CSF pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of these substances is secreted by Enterochromaffin (ECL) Cells

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT present in the Porta Hepatis?

A

Hepatic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the action of the proton pump in the parietal cells of the stomach?

A

K+ into cell, H+ out of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following structures is classified in embryology as part of the ‘foregut’

A
Gallbladder
Lower third of oesophagus
Proximal half of the Duodenum
Pancreas
Gallbladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You are trying to design a drug to act on histamine receptors on parietal cells to help patients with reflux disease. What would be the mechanism of this drug?

A

Inhibits Histamine 2 receptors to reduce acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of these is not a function of the liver?

A

Glycogen storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following statements is True?

A

Cholecystokinin is released in response to the presence of amino acids in the gut.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following statements is False?

A

The hepatic blood supply is 35-40% of the cardiac output.

19
Q

Obstructive jaundice is commonly caused by gall stones within what structure?

A

Common bile duct

20
Q

A 42-year-old female suffers a violent headache followed by sudden collapse. You notice that her left pupil is fixed and dilated and her left eye is deviated laterally and downwards. Which artery is likely to have been affected?

A

Posterior communicating artery

Posterior communicating artery
• This is most likely due to rupture of a posterior communicating aneurysm leading to a sub arachnoid haemorrhage.
• This has caused an ipsilateral third nerve palsy causing her pupil to dilate and the eye to deviate laterally and downwards.
• Paralysis of the third cranial nerve affects the medial, superior, and inferior recti, and inferior oblique muscles.
• The eye is incapable of movement upwards, downwards or inwards, and at rest the eye looks laterally and downwards owing to the overriding influence of the lateral rectus and superior oblique muscles respectively.

21
Q

A 53-year-old man with hypertension presents with sudden collapse; unable to move any part of his body except for eye movements, he appears to understand your questions but is unable to answer. Where is the likely lesion?

A

Brainstem

Brainstem lesions
• This is locked-in syndrome.
• Patients cannot move or communicate verbally due to paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles.
• Blinking and vertical gaze may be preserved depending on the extent and level of the lesion within the brainstem
• They are conscious and aware.
• Complete recovery is rare.

22
Q

A 69-year-old lady was slurring her words at a church coffee morning. At the same time, her right arm began to feel heavy and weak. 24 hours later all her symptoms had resolved. Which of these is the likely cause?

A

Stroke/TIA

  • Acute stroke is characterised by sudden onset of focal neurological deficit e.g. hemiplegia
  • Can be ischaemic or haemorrhagic
  • If function recovers within 24 hours then it is termed a transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
23
Q

A 40-year-old removal man felt immediate back pain and a popping sensation after lifting a heavy box. The next day he noticed he was tripping over his right foot as it was dragging along the floor. Where is the cause most likely to be located?

A

Nerve root

  • This is a case of foot drop
  • It is caused by paralysis of the muscles that lift the foot
  • Given the history the most likely cause of damage is compression of the nerve root by a prolapsed vertebral disc.
24
Q

An elderly patient with a stiff flexed arm, and a stiff extended leg (both on the left) which the patient finds difficult to bend. Where is the cause most likely to be located?

A

Upper motor neurone

25
Q

A 30-year-old woman noticed both her eyelids becoming progressively more droopy with time (ptosis). Weeks later she began to experience double vision and found it progressively more tiring and difficult to chew while eating. Which of these is the likely cause?

A

Myasthenia gravis

  • Condition of the neuromuscular junction
  • Acetylcholine receptors are blocked by an autoimmune reaction between the receptor protein and anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody.
  • Women are more affected than men. Presents between 15 to 50 years.
  • Main symptom is abnormal fatigable weakness of muscles.
  • First symptoms are usually ptosis or diplopia.
  • Weakness of chewing, swallowing, speaking or limb movement can occur.
26
Q

A 51-year-old man has a 2-month history of weakness in both of his hands, he is now unable to open jars. His hands show wasting of the thenar eminence. He has recently developed slurred speech and difficulty swallowing. His tongue appears spastic and he is unable to protrude it. Which of these is the likely cause?

A

Motor Neurone Disease

  • Progressive disorder of unknown aetiology
  • Onset usually after age 50. Males are more likely to be affected.
  • Present with a combination of both UMN and LMN signs without sensory involvement.
  • Symptoms include – limb weakness, cramps, disturbance of speech or swallowing.
  • Signs – wasting and fasciculation of muscles, pyramidal tract involvement causing spasticity and exaggerated tendon reflexes
  • Symptoms can start focally but become widespread with time
27
Q

A 30-year-old pregnant lady complains to the GP of progressive hand weakness. She is unable to open jars and even grip her tea cup. The GP noticed that the muscles around her thumb were wasting. Where is the cause most likely to be located?

A

Peripheral nerve

Carpal tunnel syndrome
• This is due to compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel.
• Wasting of the abductor pollicis brevis can develop with the following distribution of numbness and pain.

28
Q

A sexually active 75 year old gentlemen presents with a stamping gait. He is diagnosed with tabes dorsalis. On examination he has a loss of joint position sense and cannot feel the tuning fork (vibration) when placed on his medial malleolus. Which of the following spinal tracts is affected?

A

Dorsal column medial lemiscus pathway

29
Q

Which group of spinal nerves innervates the ankle reflex?

A

S1/S2

30
Q

The vagus nerve is composed of;

A

Parasympathetic motor and sensory fibres

31
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

The spinothalamic tract decussates within the spinal cord

32
Q

This descending motor tract originates in the cerebral cortex and synapses in the spinal cord

A

Corticospinal

33
Q

Which cell type listed below is NOT found in the central nervous system?
Schwann cells

Ependymal cells
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Schwann cells
Microglia
A

Schwann cells

34
Q

A 75-year-old patient presents to their GP surgery with an intensely itchy vesicular rash in two separate horizontal lines at the level of the nipple and umbilicus respectively. Which dermatomal distribution is this affecting?

A

T4 and T10

35
Q

A 48-year-old obese diabetic man, who smokes 30 a day presents with bilateral “glove and stocking” loss of pain, temperature and pinprick sensation. Which of the following spinal tracts is affected?

A

Spinothalamic

36
Q

A 78-year-old lady presents to her GP surgery with an intensely itchy vesicular rash in a horizontal line at the level of the nipple. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Shingles

  • Caused by Herpes Zoster virus
  • Commonly affects the elderly
  • Produces a rash that is usually unilateral and has a dermatomal distribution
37
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the peripheral nervous system is TRUE?

A

The spinal cord is not part of the peripheral nervous system.

38
Q

If the renal clearance of a substance X is 250ml/min, then which of the following is true?

A

It must be actively secreted by the nephron

Renal clearance of a molecule is ‘the volume of plasma cleared of that molecule per minute’
Clearance of molecule x (mls/min) is expressed as Cx = (Ux X V)/Px
Ux = concentration of x in the urine
Px = concentration of x in the plasma
V = volume of urine formed per minute
A molecule that is filtered and passes unchanged into the urine e.g. inulin has a renal clearance of ~125 mls/min
A molecule that is filtered and reabsorbed will have a lower renal clearance e.g. urea ~ 80 mls/min
A molecule that is filtered and actively secreted will have a higher renal clearance e.g Para-amino hippuric acid (PAH) ~ 650-700 mls/min

39
Q

Which of the following is true of urine production and flow?

A

Urine passes through the ureter by peristalsis

  • Urine is produced at a variable rate and is transported to the bladder by the peristaltic action of the ureters.
  • The collecting duct is formed by the distal convoluted tubules
  • The detrusor is under the control of the autonomic system with some voluntary control
40
Q

Which of the following is true concerning Atrial Natriuretic Peptides (ANPs)

A

They act on the renal collecting tubules to promote Na+ excretion.

41
Q

Which of the following would not cause pre-renal acute kidney injury?

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy

42
Q

Which is of the following is false?

A

Renin converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I by adding a short amino acid chain

43
Q

The ureter is lined by:

A

Transitional epithelium