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MRCS Other > IGNORE - General EMRCS Questions From MOCKS > Flashcards

IGNORE - General EMRCS Questions From MOCKS Flashcards

1
Q

what is subclavian Steele syndrome

A

this is where there is proximal stenosis of the sub clavian artery and so you get retrograde flow.

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2
Q

Define a carcinoid tumour

A

these are neuroendocrine tumours which secrete serotonin. They originate in the neuroendocrine cells in the intestine

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3
Q

Define syringomyelia

A

a disorder where a cystic cavity forms within the spinal cord.

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4
Q

What muscles of the forearm and hand does the median nerve supply

A

the flexors + pronator teres +pronator quadratas
LOAF muscles in the hand
- lateral 2 lumbricles
- Opponens pollicis
- Abductor pollicis brevis
- Flexor pollicis brevis

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5
Q

At what site is most dietary iron absorbed?

A

duodenum

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6
Q

which nerve lies within the carotid sheath

A

vagus nerve

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7
Q

what is the rule of 2 of meckles

A

2% of the population
2 years old
2 foot proximal to the ileocecal valve
2 inches long
2 years of ages
2 x as likely in females
2 types of ectopic tissue (Gastric and pancreatic)

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8
Q

define a pleomorphic adenoma

A

a benign tumour of the salivary gland

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9
Q

what are the contents of the femoral canal

A

Lymphatic vessels
Cloquet’s lymph node

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10
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms of sub Flavian Steele syndrome

A

occurs when increased blood flow to the arm
pre syncope and syncope
neurological insufficiency
BP difference between the arms

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11
Q

at what anatomical level can the renal arteries be found

A

L2

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12
Q

What hormone decreases appetite?

A

Leptin

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13
Q

where are you likely to see diverticular disease

A

common in colon - most common in sigmoid
almost never seen in the rectum

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14
Q

what is the correct invesitation for a suspected lymphoma (clinically enlarged lymph nodes)

A

Excision biopsy lymph node

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15
Q

What is the treatment of a extra capsular NOF?

A

intertrochanteric: Dynamic Hip screw

Subtrochanteric: Intramedellary Nail

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16
Q

describe the webber classification

A

used for fibular fracture:
A: stable and treat with a cast
B: either stable or unstable. If unstable there is taler shift and you need fixation.
C: unstable and needs fixing

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17
Q

what is the Origen of the superior gluteal artery?

A

aorta –> Common iliac –> Internal iliac –> Superior gluteal

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18
Q

what are the features of a subdural haematoma?

A
  • most commonly occur around the frontal and parietal lobes
  • risks include old age and alcoholism
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19
Q

which nerve innervates the head of the triceps

A

radial

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20
Q

Where are the reticulo-endothelial cells concentrated within the spleen?

A

white pulp

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21
Q

what is the lymphatic drainage of the testicles

A

para aortic

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22
Q

what is the tumour marker for breast cancer

A

CA15-3

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23
Q

what cells are first identified after a splenectomy

A

reticulocites, target cells and siderocytes

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24
Q

what is the mechanism of action of carbimazole

A

inhibition of the thyroid peroxidase enzyme

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25
Q

what is diversion proctus

A

inactive use of bowel e.g. rectal stump after Hartmans
can ulcerate and bleed

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26
Q

T tube is removed and five hours after removal a small amount of bile is noted to be draining from the T tube site. What is the best course of action?

A

allow to resolve spontaneously

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27
Q

what does a valgus stress test measure

A

the strength of the medial collateral ligament

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28
Q

what is McMurreys test

A

this is a test used to evaluate for meniscal injuries

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29
Q

what is the level of the inferior mesenteric artery?

A

L3

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30
Q

what is the blood supply to the oesophagus

A

upper third - inferior thyroid
mid third - aortic branches
lower third - left gastric

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31
Q

Which main group of receptors does dobutamine bind to?

A

B-1

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32
Q

What is meiges disease

A

a primary lymphedema in the lower limbs (genetic) swelling often begins at the feet and ankles and progresses up the leg.

Onset 1-35 years

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33
Q

what is the treamtent of hypercalcemia

A

fluids + IV Pamidronate

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34
Q

which cancers are you likely to get if you have a BRCA gene mutation

A

breast and ovarian cancer

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35
Q

what are morgani hernias

A

rare congenital hernia
commonly contains the transverse colon

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36
Q

A 55 year old man with a long history of achalasia is successfully treated by a Hellers Cardiomyotomy. Several years later he develops an oesophageal malignancy. Which of the following lesions is most likely to be present?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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37
Q

A 4 year old boy has an atalgic gate and an associated recent viral illness. what is the likely diagnosis

A

transient synovitis (it is associated with viral illness)

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38
Q

where do the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of the coagulation cascade meet?

A

at the activation of factor 10

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39
Q

what is a hadfields procedure

A

total duct excision

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40
Q

what are the components of the rockall score

A

A: Age
B: Blood pressure drop (Shock)
C: Co-morbidity
D: Diagnosis
E: Evidence of bleeding

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41
Q

Which nerves conveys sensory information from the laryngeal mucosa?

A

laryngeal branches of the vagus

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42
Q

what nerve is responsible for pronation of the hand

A

median nerve

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43
Q

During short saphenous vein surgery for varicose veins which of the following nerves is particularly at risk

A

sural nerve

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44
Q

define minute ventilation

A

Minute ventilation is the total volume of gas ventilated per minute.

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45
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the motor fibres of styloglossus?

A

hypoglossal

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46
Q

which coagulation factors does heparin inhibit?

A

2,9,10 and 11

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47
Q

what are some of the symptoms associated with Klippel - trenaunay syndrome

A
  • Port wine stains
  • hypertrophy of the limbs
  • varicose veins
  • low flow rates through vascular anomalies
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48
Q

What are the features of Folicular carcinoma and who is it most common in

A

Most common in Middle Aged people
1. Painless
2. Slow growing
3. single nodule
4. common to have bone metastasis

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49
Q

where is calcium absorbed

A

small bowel

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50
Q

what hepatobiliary disorders are most classically associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

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51
Q

Which virus is a cause of cervical carcinoma

A

Hpv 16 and 18

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52
Q

how would you diagnose a scaphoid fracture?

A

MRI (does not initially show up on x rays)

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53
Q

what decreases secretions in the pancreas

A

somatostatin

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54
Q

what is abdominal pain + constipation + blue lines on gums + leg weakness a sign of?

A

lead poisoning

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55
Q

what hormones are increased in stress response I.e. surgery

A

Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Aldosterone
Prolactin
Antidiuretic hormone
Glucagon
renin
cortisol
growth hormone

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56
Q

how would you treat an ileo-illial intussusception?

A

laparotomy

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57
Q

what is bushings triad

A

Widening of the pulse pressure
Respiratory changes
Bradycardia

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58
Q

what is comedo necrosis

A

a sign of DCIS

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59
Q

What is the anatomical level of the transplyloric plane

A

L1

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60
Q

During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the lower third of the oesophagus which structure is divided to allow mobilisation of the oesophagus?

A

azygos vein

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61
Q

what is the treatment of a splenic vein thrombosis

A

Splenectomy

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62
Q

What is warthins tumours

A

a benign tumours of the protid gland

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63
Q

What scan would you do if you were concerned about renal scaring

A

DMSA scan

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64
Q

what structures pass through the supraorbital fissure

A

LASST:

Lacrimal nerve
Abducens nerve
superior opthalmic vein
Superior and inferior Division of Oculomotor
Trochlear Nerve

Recurrant meningeal artery

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65
Q

A 3 day old baby develops dyspneoa. A chest x-ray is performed and shows a radio-opaque shadow with an air-fluid level in the chest. It is located immediately anterior to the 6th hemivertebrae. what is the likely diagnosis

A

bronchogenic cyst

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66
Q

A 23 year old man who plays rugby for a hobby presents with recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present to account for this?

A

benkarts lesion

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67
Q

What is TURP syndrome

A

this is where you get absorbtion of the fluid used to irrigate. you get a decrease in sodium

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68
Q

what is a common complication of splenectomy

A

the tail of the pancreas can be damaged and lead to the leakage of amylase

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69
Q

What proportion of salivary gland secretions is contributed by the parotid gland?

A

25%

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70
Q

what is the diagnostic scan unsed to diagnose meckles diverticulum

A

technetium scan

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71
Q

What is the main event involved in the neovascularization of the immature wound bed following surgery

A

Endothelial cell proliferation

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72
Q

what the most common type of urethral cancers

A

90% TCC

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73
Q

why are churns patients more likely to get gall stones?

A

bile salts are reabsorbed in the terminal ileum

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74
Q

at what level does the spinal cord terminate

A

L1

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75
Q

at what anatomical location is the ampulla of vata found

A

medial aspect of the 2nd part of the duodenum

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76
Q

what are the contents of the carotid sheath

A

Common carotid artery
Internal carotid artery
Internal jugular vein
Vagus nerve

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77
Q

what nerve is at risk of damage during a gastric fundoplication and what are the subsequent effects

A

Vagus nerve

can lead to delayed gastric emptying

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78
Q

aortic dissection with arotic valve regurgitation signifies a direction where in the aorta

A

proximal portion

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79
Q

where is the location of the femoral artery

A

1-2cm inferiorally from the mid inguinal point

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80
Q

define and state the normal value for anatomical dead space with regards to ventilation

A

Anatomical dead space: 150mls
Volume of gas in the respiratory tree not involved in gaseous exchange: mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi up to terminal bronchioles

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81
Q

why do meckles diverticulum bleed

A

they contain ectopic gastric tissue which commonly ulcerates / perforates

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82
Q

In HIT what blood results would you expect

A

low platelets

treat with stopping heparin

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83
Q

define adrenaloma

A

incidental swelling in adrenal gland - treat with

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84
Q

what are some of the tumour markers of non seminomatous germ cell tumours

A
  • AFP elevated in up to 70% of cases
  • HCG elevated in 40%
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85
Q

what are curlings ulcers?

A

acute gastric ulcers associated with severe burns. Causes haematemisis / GI bleeds

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86
Q

what is Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome

A

a rare disorder when pelvic inflammatory disease causes swelling around your liver and adhesions to the abdominal wall

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87
Q

what is Perthes disease and how do people present with it

A

avascular necrosis of the femoral epiphysis of the femoral head
- common I children 2-12 years old
- flattened femoral head
- hip pain
- limp

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88
Q

what is pes anserinus bursitis

A

swelling over the proximal medial aspect of tibia at the site of insertion of the gracilis, sartorius and semi-tendenous tendons. This is common in young athletes with overuse

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89
Q

A 30 year old male presents with gynaecomastia. Clinically, he is noted to have a nodule in the left testis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

leidig cell tumour

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90
Q

What does the glossopharyngeal nerve supply?

A

Motor: stylopharyngess muscle, parotid gland

sensory: posterior third of the tongue, pharynx, tympanic cavity

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91
Q

which cell type proliferation causes graft vs host disease

A

lymphocyte

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92
Q

in a patient who has developed diplopia with raised ICP which nerve is most likely to be affected

A

abducens

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93
Q

which areas of the body are the highest levels of potassium found

A

the rectum

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94
Q

what nerve is commonly injured in a hernia repair which was cause sensation loss to the inner thigh

A

ilioinguinal nerve

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95
Q

what is the treatment of a thyroglossal cyst?

A

excision of cyst + resection of tract + wedge of hyoid + wedge of tongue muscle behind hyoid

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96
Q

Which nutritional deficiency is most likely to be implicated in poor collagen formation as the wound heals?

A

vitamin C
Vitamin C is involved in the cross linkage of collagen and impaired wound healing is well described in cases of vitamin C deficiency.

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97
Q

what is osteomalacia and what blood results are diagnostic

A

low bone mineralisation due to low vitamin D

  1. low calcium
  2. low vitamin D
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98
Q

what is a xenograft

A

tissue transplanted from another species

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99
Q

what clotting factors does DIC affect

A

Factors 1,2,5,8,11

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100
Q

what structures are found in the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

Muscles:
- Inferior belly of omohyoid
- Scalene

Nerves:
- Accessory nerve
- Phrenic nerve
- Three trunks of the brachial plexus
- Branches of the cervical plexus: Supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, lesser occipital nerve

Vessels:
- External jugular vein
- Subclavian artery

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101
Q

A 32 year old male is receiving a blood transfusion after being involved in a road traffic accident. A few minutes after the transfusion he complains of loin pain. His observations show temperature 39 oC, HR 130bpm and blood pressure is 95/40mmHg. what is the diagnosis and what is the test used to confirm this

A

ABO Incompatability

Coombes test

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102
Q

which cells release gastric acid

A

parietal cells

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103
Q

what are some of the features of nephroblastomas

A

Renal cancers that occur in the first 4 years of life
associated with haematuria
metastasise early

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104
Q

what would pain in the anatomical snuff box indicate

A

scaphoid fractures

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105
Q

what is the treatment f bile duct injury as an operative complications

A

If the operating surgeon does not regularly practise this type of surgery then the area should be drained and the patient transferred to an HPB unit.

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106
Q

what nerve is responsible for voluntary control of the bladder

A

pudendal nerve

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107
Q

in healing of a fractured bone, when would you expect to be bale to see fracture callus on an xray

A

3 weeks

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108
Q

what are the key features of SCC of the oesophagus

A

History of progressive dysphagia. Often signs of weight loss. Usually little or no history of previous GORD type symptoms.

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109
Q

what are Desmond tumours

A

tumours of connective tissue

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110
Q

Through which of the foramina does the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve exit the abdominal cavity

A

deep inguinal ring

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111
Q

what is poorly reabsorbed following gastrectomy

A

B12

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112
Q

what is the cause of osteopetrosis

A

defective osteoclast function resulting in failure of normal bone resorption

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113
Q

what vascular structure lies inferior to the trunk of the facial nerve

A

retromandibular vein (formed by the joining of the maxillary and superficial temporal vein)

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114
Q

what causes secretions of water and electrolytes in the pancreas

A

secretin

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115
Q

what would a pulitile mass be in an IDVU

A

false aneurysm

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116
Q

is the intrinsic or the extrinsic pathway in coagulation the main pathway?

A

extrinsic is the main pathway

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117
Q

what is commonly the case of confusion in a patient with breast cancer

A

hypercalcaemia (boney metastasis)

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118
Q

what are some of the features of ACL rupture

A
  • caused by large twisting force applied to bent knee
  • Rapid knee swelling
  • load crack heard
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119
Q

What are the treatment options for pancreatic cancer?

A

Head of Pancreas: Whipples resection.
Carcinoma of body / tail: poor prognosis, distal pancreatectomy if operable

Likely to have adjacent chemotherapy

ERCP and stent for jaundice and palliation.

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120
Q

What is pagets disease and what blood tests are diagnostic

A

bone density is low followed by sclerosis + laying down of weak bone

(BOWED LEGS)

  1. increased ALP is diagnostic.
  2. Calcium and Phosphate are normal
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121
Q

when would you stop unfractionated heparin pre operatively

A

it should be out of the system in 2 hours so stopping 6 hours before should be fine

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122
Q

What pressures are diagnostic of compartment syndroe?

A

> 40mmHg

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123
Q

where does the trachea bifurcate

A

T5

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124
Q

what are the pre requisites for bariatric surgery

A

All non-surgical measures have failed to achieve or maintain adequate clinically beneficial weight loss for at least 6 months.

Will receive intensive specialist management

They are generally fit for anaesthesia and surgery

They commit to the need for long-term follow-up

First-line option for adults with a BMI > 40 kg/m2 in whom surgical intervention is considered appropriate; consider orlistat if there is a long waiting list. OR 35-40 with other significant disease

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125
Q

what nerve innovate the gluteus Maximus

A

inferior gluteal nerve

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126
Q

what score is used for the histological grading of prostate cancer?

A

Gleason score

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127
Q

what structures pass through the infraorbital fissure

A

inferior opthalmic vein
maxillary nerve
zygomatic nerve

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128
Q

Which virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Herpes virus 8

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129
Q

What are the structures in the porta hepatis

A

Portal vein
Hepatic artery
Common hepatic duct

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130
Q

what is Courvoisiers law

A

The development of jaundice in association with a smooth right upper quadrant mass is typical of distal biliary obstruction secondary to pancreatic malignancy

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131
Q

where is the musculocutaneous nerve located

A

between the biceps brachii and the brachialis

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132
Q

what are the common features of intersussception

A

The child often has a history of being unwell for one to three days prior to presentation. The child may pass bloody mucus stool, which is a late sign. Examination of the abdomen is often normal as the sausage mass in the right upper quadrant is difficult to feel

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133
Q

What is the Pathological significance of the femoral canal

A

As a potential space, it is the site of femoral hernias. The relatively tight neck places these at high risk of strangulation.

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134
Q

what are key features of peptic strictures

A

Longer history of dysphagia, often not progressive. Usually symptoms of GORD. Often lack systemic features seen with malignancy

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135
Q

what are the two sub types of germ cell tumours in testicular cancer

A
  • seminoma
  • non seminomatoes germ cell tumours (Teratoma, yolk sac tumour, mixed germ cell, choriocarcinoma
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136
Q

What is the treatment of a pleomorphic adenoma

A

superficial paraotidectomy

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137
Q

what is the treatment of hepatocelular adenomas

A

surgical resection as they have a high chance of malignant trasnformation

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138
Q

what is the cellular change in barats oesophagus

A

squamous to columnar

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139
Q

What is filariasis

A

a secondary lymphedema.

this is a disease where adult worms live in the lymphatic system spread by mosquitoes. You get lymphedema and elephantiasis and hydroceles in men

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140
Q

In which conditions is a Ghon complex most likely to be found?

A

TB

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141
Q

what structure is inclose proximity to the deep ring

A

inferior epigastric artery (laterally) and vein (medially)

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142
Q

Which nerve supplies the lateral aspect of the palm

A

The median nerve

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143
Q

what are the borders of the femoral canal

A

Laterally: Femoral vein
Medially: Lacunar ligament
Anteriorly: Inguinal ligament
Posteriorly: Pectineal ligament

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144
Q

what is the function of the obtuator nerve

A

sensation to medial aspect of the thigh
adduction and internal rotation of thigh

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145
Q

what muscles does the median nerve supply in the forearm

A

Pronator teres
Pronator quadratus
Flexor carpi radialis
Palmaris longus
Flexor digitorum superficialis
Flexor pollicis longus
Flexor digitorum profundus (only the radial half)

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146
Q

what is the blood supply to the lacrimal apparatus

A

ophthalmic artery

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147
Q

who does the Monroe-Kelly Doctrine not apply to

A

children with unfused fontanelles

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148
Q

what would damage to the superior laryngeal nerve cause and what muscle would also be affected?

A

inability to sing high notes
crycothyroid muscle would also be affected

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149
Q

Which syndrome listed below may be present in a patient with multiple intestinal hamartomas and pigmentation spots around the mouth

A

PJS

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150
Q

what eye signs do you get in osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

blue sclera

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151
Q

in appendicitis, at what location in the RIF is the appendix likely to be found

A

retrocecal

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152
Q

where are gastrinomas most commonly found?

A

duodenum, pancreases, stomach

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153
Q

which clotting factors are most sensitive to temperature

A

V and VIII

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154
Q

what are charcots triad

A

jaundice, fever, RUQ pain

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155
Q

what is the name given to a sebum filled lesion surrounded by the outer root sheath of a hair follicle

A

pilar cyst

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156
Q

what are some of the features of chrons disease?

A
  • Mouth to anus
  • Cobblestone appearance macroscopically
  • transmural inflammation
  • patchy distribution (non continuous)
  • granulomas seen histologically
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157
Q

what are some of the symptoms of a prolactinoma?

A

gyncocomastia, visual disturbances, nipple discharge

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158
Q

what type of tumour is a carotid body tumour

A

pvraganglionoma

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159
Q

what is achondroplasia

A

dwarfism (caused by defects in fibroblast growth factor receptor)

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160
Q

which vitamin is involved in the formation of collagen

A

vitamin C

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161
Q

What is the blood supply of the ureters

A

Upper third = renal arteries
Middle third = common iliac
Lower third = gonadal arteries

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162
Q

what is the likely diagnosis for a hyperchoic lesion on liver USS with a normal AFP

A

haemangioma

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163
Q

how do you calculate the anion gap?

A

(sodium + potassium) - (bicarbonate + chloride)

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164
Q

what is a bockdalek hernia?

A

a congenital hernia
commonly involves the left hemidiaphram
commonly contains stomach or kidney

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165
Q

at what age should children with otherwise uncomplicated umbilical hernias be considered for surgery?

A

3 years or older

many close within the first year of life

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166
Q

in a child with a smooth swelling in the RIF, what would the diagnosis be

A

mesenteric cyst

167
Q

what 2 features are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma

A

raised AFP and alcohol use

168
Q

what are the treatment options for oesophageal cancer

A

if non metastatic, proximal lesions - normally oesophagetcomy. distal 1/3 normally Ivor-lewis resection.

169
Q

what is the most common type of cancer of the pancreas?

A

Adenocarcinoma

170
Q

What is median arcuate ligament syndrome?

A

the median arcuate ligament attaches forms at the base of the diaphragm (where aorta perforates the diaphragm) . here it is lower than normal and causes compression of the celiac trunk causing mesenteric ischaemia post prandially

171
Q

in a patient with ITP, when is the ideal time for platelet transfusion

A

after ligation of the splenic artery intraoperatively

172
Q

what muscles are being tested in the trendelenburgs test

A

gluteus medius and minimus

173
Q

where is secretin released from

A

duodenum

174
Q

in an axillary node clearence which nerve is in danger of being damage

A

throacodorsal nerve

175
Q

what cells are involved with the absorption of B12

A

parietal cells

176
Q

what muscles attache to the greater trochanter

A

POGO
Piriformis
Obturator interns
Gemelli
Obturator externus

177
Q

what are the key features of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus

A

Progressive dysphagia, may have previous symptoms of GORD or Barretts oesophagus.

178
Q

which ribs lie posterior to the kidneys

A

11 ans 12

179
Q

what should you give to someone with pseudo colonic obstruction where supportive methods have failed

A

Neostigmine

180
Q

what blood products can be administered to a non ABO matched recipient?

A

platelets

181
Q

what is acalculous cholecystitis

A

infection of gallbladder without stones (useally in T2DM)

182
Q

What is the main component of colloid in the thyroid gland?

A

thyroglobulin

183
Q

what would cause bleeding after deffication and a cherry red lesion at the anal verge in a young child?

A

juvenile polyp

184
Q

what is the tumour marker for ovarian cancer

A

CA125

185
Q

what will lead to the y descent on the waveform trace ?

A

emptying right atrium

186
Q

what does the obturator nerve innovate?

A

sensation - medial aspect of the thigh
Motor - adductors of Lower limb (external obturator muscle, adductor longus, brevis and Magnus, gracilis, pectinius)

187
Q

which organisms commonly cause post splenectomy sepsis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Meningococci

188
Q

describe the salter Harris classification

A

used to describe fractures in growth plates:

1- Slipped
2 - Above
3 - Below
4- through
5- rammed

189
Q

what are some of the signs and symptoms of renal adenocarcinoma

A

mass, loin pain, haematuria, loss of appetite, fatigue, can have haemoptisis

190
Q

what do chief cells secrete

A

pepsinogen

191
Q

what is the lymphatic drainage of the overaries

A

para aortic

192
Q

What is the path physiology of AAA

A

Initially loss of elastic fibres from the media then loss of collagen fibres from the adventitia

193
Q

what are the nerve routes of the long thoracic nerve

A

C5 C6 C7

194
Q

what is grey turners sign and what Is it a sign of

A

this is bruising to the flanks

it is a sign of pancreatitis or retroperitoneal haemorrhage

195
Q

Where is the majority of iron found in the body?

A

Haemaglobin

196
Q

von Willebrand factor is involved in the stabilization of which of the clotting factors

A

VIII

197
Q

Which substance can be used to achieve the most accurate measurement of the glomerular filtration rate

A

inulin

198
Q

What is type 2 statistical error

A

The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false

199
Q

what is an isograft?

A

transfer of tissue between two identical individuals

200
Q

What are the features of a extradural haematoma ?

A
  • often occurs with acceleration / deceleration forces
  • causes raised intercranail pressure
    some people can exhibit a lucid period
201
Q

what does tamoxifen increase the risk of?

A

venous thromboembolisms

202
Q

what is the difference between an anterior and posterior duodenal ulcer?

A

Anterior are more common than posterior

anterior are complicated by perforation whilst posterior bleed

203
Q

what is ewings sarcoma and what are some of the common signs?

A

sarcoma common in children
- weight loss
- temperatures
- palpable mass
- pain

204
Q

what drug can cause epididymitis?

A

amiodarone

205
Q

what are contraindications to cell salvage

A

malignancy and infection

206
Q

if a small round lump is found on the vas following a vasectomy what is the likely diagnosis?

A

Sperm granuloma

207
Q

if a histology report states that there is evidence of granuloma formation and central necrosis, what is the most likely underlying cause?

A

TB

208
Q

which clotting factors are temperature sensitive?

A

5 and 9

209
Q

what is the lymphatic drainage of the scrotum

A

inguinal

210
Q

What are the features of Anaplastic adenoma and who is it most common in

A

most common in the elderly
1. rapid growing
2. Painfull nodule

211
Q

what factors does warfarin affect in the coagulation cascade?

A

2, 7, 9, 10 and protein C

212
Q

A 68 year old man presents with iron deficiency anaemia. Which site is most likely to require a biopsy in order to identify the underlying cause?

A

right colon - colon cancer is a big cause of iron deficiency in the right colon is the most common site of occult blood loss

213
Q

how many compartments are there in the extensor retinaculum of the hand

A

6

214
Q

To what vessels are transplanted kidneys in the LIF connected to

A

external iliac vessels

215
Q

define epididmo-orchitis

A

acute inflammation of the epididymis which often involves the testes and is caused by bacterial infection

infection spreads from the urethra or bladder. If <35 can be caused by STI

216
Q

how would you treat non palpable testes in a baby?

A

wait until 3 months of age and if still not palpable do a laproscopy

217
Q

which structure lies between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle?

A

radial nerve

218
Q

what is a littres hernia

A

this is a hernia continaing a meckles diverticulum

219
Q

what is the most common billary condition in patients with HIV

A

Sclerosing cholangitis due to infections such as CMV, Cryptosporidium and Microsporidia

220
Q

what does the musculocutaneous nerve supply

A

biceps, brachialis and coracobrachialis

221
Q

what are the boarders of the inguinal canal?

A

Superior wall (roof): 2 Muscles:Internal oblique, transversus abdominis
Anterior wall: 2 Aponeuroses: Aponeurosis of external oblique, Aponeurosis of internal oblique
Lower wall (floor): 2 Ligaments: Inguinal Ligament, Lacunar Ligament
Posterior wall: 2Ts: Transversalis fascia, Conjoint Tendon

222
Q

what is the tumour marker for pancreatic cancer?

A

CA19-9

223
Q

which nerve is often damaged in stripping of the long saphenous vein?

A

saphenous nerve

224
Q

what muscles cause pronation of the hand

A

pronator teres, pronator quadratus, and brachioradialis muscles

225
Q

at what level is the left main bronchus found

A

T6

226
Q

what triad of symptoms do you get in leriche syndrome

A
  1. buttock claudication
  2. atrophy of the muscles in the legs.
  3. impotence
227
Q

what hormone increases appetite

A

Ghrelin

228
Q

what are you at risk of developing with hepatitis c

A

cirrhosis and therefore hepatocellular carcinoma (lesion >2cm is highly suggestive of cancer)

229
Q

which hormones are decreased in stress response

A

insulin
tesosterone
oestrogen

230
Q

what is Trousseau’s sign and what is it associated with

A

migratory superficial thrombophlebitis associated with adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

231
Q

A 21 year old man is admitted with a tender mass in the right groin, fevers and sweats. He is on multiple medical therapy for HIV infection. On examination, he has a swelling in his right groin, hip extension exacerbates the pain. What is the most likely cause?

A

psoas abscess

232
Q

What are the 3 branches of the facial nerve?

A

greater petrosal nerve
nerve to stapedius
chordates tympani

233
Q

Which of the following tumour markers is used clinically to screen for recurrence of medullary thyroid cancer

A

calcitonin

234
Q

what condition can be treated with BCG therapy?

A

TCC of the bladder

235
Q

what is the surgical treatment of barrets oesophagus

A

EMR - endoscopic mucosal resection

236
Q

taste loss post mastoid surgery is caused by damage to what nerve?

A

The chorda tympani§

237
Q

at what level does the dural sac end

A

S2

238
Q

A 1 month old baby girl presents with bile stained vomiting. She had an exomphalos and a congenital diaphragmatic hernia. What is the most likely underlying explanation?

A

intestinal malrotation

239
Q

What is the commonest malignant tumour of the anal canal?

A

SCC

240
Q

what are some of the tumours markers of a seminoma

A

AFP normal
HCG elected in 10%
- lactate dehydrogenase raised in 10-20%

241
Q

What is the gold standard for the detection of renal scarring

A

DSMA scan

242
Q

What structures are found in the adductor canal

A

femoral artery
femoral vein
nerve to vastas
saphenous nerve

243
Q

what does the sciatic nerve innovate?

A

sensory: sensation to the skin of the lower leg and foot (apart from inner side)

Motor: via the tibial nerve it supplies the muscles of the posterior compartments of the lower leg. Via the common perineal nerve it supples muscles of the anterior and lateral compartments of the lower leg.

NOTHING IN THE THIGH

244
Q

What is Boas Sign and what is it a sign of

A

hyperaesthesia felt by the patient to light touch in the right lower scapular region
sign of cholecystitis

245
Q

in DIC what would you expect in the blood results

A

Consuptive coagulopathy
- Low platelets
- High fibrin breakdown products

Treated with supportive measures

246
Q

how would you treat an ileo - colic intussusception?

A

pneumatic reduction with air insufflation

247
Q

what is the correct management plan for a patient with acutee cholecycsistis

A

lap chole within 72 hours

248
Q

what is released to initiate the extrinsic pathway?

A

Tissue factor by damaged tissues

249
Q

What is Medullary carcinoma associated with

A

Associated with MEN 2A syndrome

250
Q

what is the tumour marker for colorectal cancer

A

CEA

251
Q

at what level is the IVC formed

A

L5

252
Q

what does a vairus stress test measure

A

the strength of the lateral collateral ligament

253
Q

describe the Gardner classification

A

used to describe intracapsular NOF fractures
1. incomplete
2. complete but no disruption to trabecular lines
3. Complete and displaced

254
Q

what type of cancer is most common in people who have achalasia?

A

SCC

255
Q

if a patient has a left sided SVC, how does the blood return to the heart?

A

0.3% of patients have a persistent SVC

Blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus

256
Q

what would be the cause of billious vommiting a few hours after birth?

A

duodenal atresia

257
Q

What is the commonest type of fistula in ano?

A

intersphinteric

258
Q

What would be the cause of bilateral facial nerve palsy, lethargy and bilateral parotid swelling

A

Sarcoidosis

259
Q

what is the most common subtype of bladder cancer and what are common risk factors

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

risk factors: Smoking

260
Q

other than in appendicitis when would you get a positive rovsigns sign?

A

in any advanced right iliac fossa pathology apart from retroceaecal appendicitis

261
Q

what is the half-life of PTH

A

10 mins

262
Q

what are some of the key features of mesenteric adenitis?

A

high temperature (higher than appendicitis) r
preceding viral illness
abdo pain particularly RIF

263
Q

how would you treat a nephroblastoma

A

nephrectomy

264
Q

describe some of the features of a carotid body tumour

A

They typically present as an asymptomatic neck mass in the anterior triangle of the neck. They are typically slow growing lesions.

265
Q

Which investigation is best for initial assessment of recurrence of follicular carcinoma of the thyroid

A

Serum thyroglobulin

266
Q

what clinical condition is caused by damage to the long thoracic nerve

A

winging of the scapular

267
Q

What nerve innovates the gluteus medius and minimus

A

superior gluteal nerve

268
Q

what does the nerve to obturator internus innervate ?

A

obturator internus and gemellus superior

269
Q

What is the most important urinary acid base buffer?

A

phosphate

270
Q

which nerves are responsible for the innervation of the FDP?

A

Median half (ring and little finger) - ulnar
lateral half (middle and index) - anterior interossius nerve

271
Q

what is the tumour marker for liver cancer

A

AFP

272
Q

undescended tests carries an increased risk of what condition?

A

testicular teratoma

273
Q

what is the most common cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring a transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.

A

Meckles Diverticulum

274
Q

how should DALM lesions in UC be treated

A

panproctocolectomy

275
Q

what is Takyasu’s arteritis and what are some of the symptoms?

A

Inflammatory, obliterative arteritis affecting aorta and branches
Females> Males
Symptoms may include upper limb claudication
Clinical findings include diminished or absent pulses
ESR often affected during the acute phase

276
Q

Which ligament contains the artery supplying the head of femur in children?

A

ligamentum teres

277
Q

what is the preoperative / anaesthetic concern with a patient who has aortic stenosis?

A

Patients with aortic stenosis are a major perioperative concern. They may have ventricular hypertrophy and this can result in relative myocardial ischaemia and increase the risk of arrhymias. However, the main concern is that they cannot increase their cardiac output particularly if vasodilation occurs.

278
Q

where is water reabsorption the highest

A

the jejunum

279
Q

Which structures pass through both the lesser and greater sciatic foramen

A

Pudendal nerve
Internal pudendal artery
Nerve to obturator internus

280
Q

What is Meckles Diverticulum

A

this is a true diverticulum - out pouching of the small bowel commonly containing gastric or pancreatic tissue

281
Q

A 19 year old sportswoman presents with knee pain which is worse on walking down the stairs and when sitting still. On examination, there is wasting of the quadriceps and pseudolocking of the knee. What is the diagnosis?

A

chondromalacia patella

282
Q

what cells need to be present in order for a diagnosis of barats oesophagus to be made

A

goblet cells + oesophageal glands

283
Q

how can perthes be diagnosed?

A

On MRI

284
Q

what is the nervous innervation of the serratus anterior

A

long thoracic nerve

285
Q

what protein is affected in marfans syndrome

A

fibrillin

286
Q

if a patient has otalgia post tonsillectomy which nerve is most likely responsible

A

glosopharengeal nerve

287
Q

what is the treatment of perthes disease?

A

if less than 6 years: observe
if older: surgical management

288
Q

what drug is commonly given in subarachnoid haemorrhages to reduce risk of raised intracranial pressure?

A

nimodipine

289
Q

What structures are found in the anterior triangle of the neck?

A

Muscles:
- sternohyoid
- sternothyroid
- thyrohyoid
- omohyoid muscles

Nerves:
- vagus nerve
- hypoglossal nerve

Vessels:
- facial vessels
- Internal jugular vein
- ansa cervicalis
- common carotid

Glands:
- submandibular glands

290
Q

how is intestinal malrotation treated in neonates

A

Ladds procedure

291
Q

Which of the polyp types has the greatest risk of malignant transformation?

A

Villous adenomas

292
Q

what are the ECG features of hypokalaemia

A

U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT

flattened T wave
long PR
Long QT
U waves

293
Q

if lobular carcinoma in situ is suspected what imaging should be performed

A

MRI

294
Q

What is rovsigns sign

A

this is where palpation in the LLQ produces pain in the RLQ.

It is a sign of appendicitis

295
Q

at what levels is the oesophagus compressed

A

A- Arch of the Aorta
B- Left main Bronchus
C- Cricoid Cartilage
D- Diaphragmatic Hiatus

296
Q

what crystals are present in pseudo-gout and what can be used as a sign

A

calcium pyrophosphate crystals
transferrin levels are a sign

297
Q

what cells are GIST cells derived from

A

inestinal pacemaker cells of cajal

298
Q

how does sodium thiopentone affect cardiac contractility

A

causes myocardial depression

299
Q

What branch of the brachial plexus is injured in a crutch palsy

A

Radial nerve

300
Q

There are two main operations that are termed Lords procedure

A

one is for fissure in ano and the other is a procedure for hydrocele.

301
Q

If someone has bilateral acoustic neuromas what genetic condition are they likely to have

A

Neurofibromatosis type.2

302
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the ureters

A

Left ureter = para-aortic
Right ureter = right paracaval, interaortacaval

303
Q

Which nerve supplies the dorsal aspect of the hand

A

The radial nerve

304
Q

what cell type is likely to be high in CSF from LP of a patient with bacterial meningitis

A

neutrophils

305
Q

what are the common symptoms of duodenal ulcer

A

post prandial epigastric pain

Posterior duodenal - can erode in to the gastro duodenal artery and cause beelding (melaena)

306
Q

what vessel is is close proximity to the brachial plexus trunks

A

sub clavian artery

307
Q

Which blood product is iatrogenic septicaemia most likely and why

A

Platelets because they are stored at room temperature

308
Q

in a young man with knee swelling and no preceding trauma what would be the most likely cause

A

haemophilia a

309
Q

what is a patent urachus

A

a communication between the bladder and umbilicus used to drain the fatal bladder.

310
Q

what is boas sign

A

Boas’ sign refers to hyperaesthesia of the tip of the right scapula and is seen classically in association with acute cholecystitis

311
Q

what is the ptimal operative procedure for testicular cancer? and why?

A

orchadectomy via inguinal approach due to Testicular tumours metastasising to Para aortic nodes

312
Q

what cellular subtype are popcorn cells associated with

A

nodular lymphocyte predominant hodgkin lymphona

313
Q

how would you treat a patient who has metastatic prostate cancer with spinal metastasis?

A

androgen suppressors, bisphosphinates and radiotherapy

314
Q

which cerebral arteries are supplied bu the internal carotid artery

A

Only = Opthalmic
Press = Posterior communicating
Carotid = Choroidal
Arteries = Anterior cerebral
Momentarily = Middle cerebral

315
Q

What is pembertons signs

A

used to evaluate venous obstruction in patients with goiters

316
Q

what is buergers disease?

A
  • occlusions of small and medium size vessels in the lower limbs
  • common in young male smokers
  • proximal pulses usually present but pedal pulses absent
  • corkscrew shaped collateral vessels are often seen on angiography
317
Q

To which vessels are transplanted kidneys anastomosed to

A

external iliac

318
Q

Where do the majority of pancreatic cancers occur?

A

Head of the pancreas (70%)

319
Q

what is the management of rectal varices

A

IV turlepressin is first line

320
Q

why do some patients with renal adenocarcinoma get haemoptasis?

A

renal adenocarcinomas produce cannon ball lesions in the lungs which causes haemoptisis

321
Q

where are inguinal hernias most likely to reoccur post repair

A

medial aspect near pubic tubercle

322
Q

what is the most common type of renal cancer

A

renal adenocarcinoma

323
Q

what are the borders of the femoral canal

A

Borders of the femoral canal
Laterally - Femoral vein (fem-or-aL Lateral)
Medially - Lacunar ligament (Lacuna matata)
Anteriorly - inguinal ligament
Posteriorl - Pectineal ligament (Posterior Pecineal)

324
Q

the distal limit of the adductor canal is found in which muscle

A

the adductor Magnus

325
Q

what is the main risk factor of the development of anal cancer

A

HPV virus

326
Q

In Froment’s test which muscle function is tested?

A

adductor policus

327
Q

Explain what ABPI results imply

A

<0.5 = severe arterial disease
0.5-0.8 = arterial or mixed arterial and venous
0.8 - 1.3 = Venus disease
>1.3 = calcification

328
Q

What is the triad of wernikes encephalopathy

A

Triad of Wernicke encephalopathy:
Acute confusion
Ataxia
Ophthalmoplegia

329
Q

what muscles does the medial nerve innovate in the hand

A

LOAF
Lateral 2 lumbricals
Opponens pollicis
Abductor pollicis brevis
Flexor pollicis brevis

330
Q

what would damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve cause

A

hoarseness or loss of voice
(innervates the intrinsic muscles of the larynx I.e. vocal cords)

331
Q

Which analgesia should be avoided in renal transplants

A

Diclophenac

332
Q

What would the diagnosis be in a young girl, mid way through her period getting right iliac fossa pain

A

Mittleschmirtz

333
Q

what structures pass through the optic foramen

A

optic nerve
ophthalmic artery

334
Q

how would you manage a large pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Elective cystogastrostomy (drain cyst in to stomach)

335
Q

in what condition do you get Aschoff-Rokitansky sinuses

A

in a patient who has had recurrent attacks of cholecustitis (they are the result of hyperplasia and herniation of epithelial cells through the fibromuscular layer of the gallbladder wall.)

336
Q

what is the contents of the inguinal canal:

A

Men: Spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve

Women: Round ligament of uterus and ilioinguinal nerve

337
Q

A 73 year old man undergoes an excision biopsy of a lymph node that is closely applied to sternocleidomastoid. This muscle is mobilized and a nerve that is present is damaged. which nerve has been damaged and Which muscle is most likely to be affected?

A

spinal accessory nerve
trapezius muscle

338
Q

what region does the intercostobrachial nerve supply

A

sensation to the axilla skin - commonly divided in axillary surgery

339
Q

when would you do a laprascopic hernia repair?

A

for bilateral or recurrent cases

340
Q

at what level do you find the hilum of the left kidney

A

L1

341
Q

define and state normal value for physiological dead space with regards to ventilation

A

Physiological dead space: normal 150 mls, increases in ventilation/perfusion mismatch e.g. PE, COPD, hypotension
Volume of gas in the alveoli and anatomical dead space not involved in gaseous exchange.

342
Q

what is goodsalls rule of fistulas

A

Anterior fistulae will tend to have an internal opening opposite the external opening.
Posterior fistulae will tend to have a curved track that passes towards the midline.

343
Q

rom which amino acids are catecholamines primarily derived?

A

Tyrosine

344
Q

what is the most common cancer of the renal pelvis

A

TCC

345
Q

What would be the composition of a renal stone formed by a proteus infection

A

Struviate

346
Q

what would be the cause of billious vomiting a few days after birth

A

malrotation with vulvulus

347
Q

what is the treatment of colorectal liver metastasis?

A

chemo + surgical resection

348
Q

what is Cullens sign and what is it a sign of

A

cullens is peri-umbilical bruising

it is a sign of pancreatitis or intra-abdominal haemorrhage

349
Q

what vessel is in close proximity to the brachial plexus cords

A

axillary artery

350
Q

which lesion is baratts oesophagus most closely associated with

A

adenocarcinoma

351
Q

What proportion of patients presenting for cholecystectomy for treatment of biliary colic due to gallstones will have stones in the common bile duct?

A

10%

352
Q

What is an allograft

A

the transfer of tissue between two individuals of the same species

353
Q

what are the nerve routes of the pudendal nerve

A

S2,3,4

354
Q

how would you investigate a TIA

A

arterial / carotid duplex scan

355
Q

what is the lymphatic drainage of the uterus

A

fundus - para aortic
body - iliac

356
Q

where are hassles corpuscles found

A

medulla of the thymus

357
Q

what is an autograft?

A

transplant of organs or tissues from one part of the body to another in the same individual

358
Q

at what level does the aorta bifurcate

A

L4

359
Q

what type of thrombus does the contraceptive pill induce

A

venous thrombus

360
Q

if you suspect a patient has a NOF but plain films are normal, what other investigation would you do?

A

MRI

361
Q

what type of thyroid cancer is autoimmune thyroiditis associated with?

A

thyroid Lymphoma

362
Q

if a patient has had a splenectomy, they are at risk of infection from what bacteria?

A

encapsulated bacterial e.g. haemophilis influenza, strep pneumonia and nisseria

363
Q

What is rovings sign and what is it a sign of

A

Rovsing’s sign refers to the pain felt in the right lower abdomen upon palpation of the left side of the abdomen.

sign of appendicitis

364
Q

what inveistigation would you do to investigate IBD

A

feral calprotectin

365
Q

if you fracture your humerus which nerve do you need to be concerned about

A

radial nerve (spirals around the humorous in middle third)

366
Q

What are the features of papillary carcinoma and who is it most common in

A

Most common in Young people
1. Painless
2. Slow growing
3. Multi-focal
4. lymphatic spread

367
Q

where are hassles corpuscles found?

A

in the thymus gland

368
Q

what innervates the crycothyoid

A

external laryngeal nerve

369
Q

where is iron absorbed in the gut

A

duodenum

370
Q

what is the blood supply to the small intestine

A

celiac trunk and superior mesenteric artery

371
Q

which nerve can be found in both the greater and lesser sciatic foramen

A

pudendal nerve

372
Q

What are the 3 gluteal muscles

A

Gluteus maximus, Gluteus medius, gluteus minius

373
Q

what clotting factors does liver disease affect

A

Factors 1,2,5,7,9,10,11

374
Q

in froments test which muscle is tested

A

adductor policus

375
Q

what is the treatment of cystic stump leak

A

ERCP , sphincterotomy and stent

376
Q

what is the treatment of a malrotation in a neonate with billious vomiting from malrotation

A

Ladds procedure

377
Q

how should varies be treated?

A
  • turlopressin
  • endoscopic banding
  • TIPs
378
Q

what is the most common cause of filariasis

A

Wucheria Bancrofti

379
Q

what are some of the features of Ulcerative colitis?

A
  • occur in the rectum and colon
  • contact bleeding
  • superficial inflammation
  • distribution is continuous
  • histologically: crypt abscesses and inflammatory cells in the lamina propria
380
Q

if a lung lesion is found to contain connective tissue, mature cartilage and ciliated epithelium what type of lung lesion is it\

A

harmatoma - most common in the lungs

381
Q

If a 2 x 2 cm autologus skin graft is placed on an area of healthy granulation tissue. After about a week, a thin bluish - white margin appears around the graft and spreads at a rate of 1mm per day. What is it?

A

epidermis - the process is called re epithelisation

382
Q

A 2 week infant has foul smelling material discharging from the umbilicus. What is the underlying problem

A

Distal enter-cutaneous fistula

383
Q

for a gastric cancer in the greater curvature of the stomach and no metastasis, how would you treat?

A

subtotal gastrectomy with roux en Y

384
Q

what is fillariasis and what are its common symptoms

A

Filariasis is an infectious tropical disease caused by any one of several thread-like parasitic round worms.

Signs and symptoms: lyphoedema , they are brawny and indurated with marked skin trophic changes

385
Q

what structures attaches periosteum to bone

A

sharpeys fibres

386
Q

what causes secretions of enzymes from the pancreas

A

cholocystokinase

387
Q

What is the commonest malignant tumour of the anal canal?

A

SCC

388
Q

What is a type 1 statistical error

A

The null hypothesis is rejected when it’s true

389
Q

Which ligament keeps the head of the radius connected to the radial notch of the ulna?

A

annular ligament

390
Q

An elderly diabetic male presents with a severe deep seated otalgia and a facial nerve palsy, he has completed a course of amoxycillin with no benefit. What is the most likely diagnosis

A

malignant otitis externa

391
Q

Beta-naphthalamine is associated with which of the malignancies?

A

bladder

392
Q

define millroys disease

A

this is a lymphedema present from birth

onset <1 year

393
Q

how should bleeding duodenal ulcers be treated?

A

with adrenalin injections?

394
Q

A thyroidectomy specimen from a 45 year old man shows a mass with prominent oxyphil cells and scanty thyroid colloid. What is the underlying cause?

A

Follicular Carcinoma

395
Q

what are the contents of the cavernous sinus

A

O TOM CAT

Occulomotor nerve (III)
Trochlear nerve (IV)
Ophthalmic nerve (V1)
Maxillary nerve (V2)
Carotid artery
Abducent nerve (VI)
T

396
Q

what should you give a patient with von willerbrands disease to prevent bleeding

A

Desmopressin

397
Q

what are thebesian veins and where do they drain to

A

they are small vessels that are found on the surface of the heart and drain in to the atrium

398
Q

Define Chondromalacia Patellae and what are they symptoms?

A

this is inflammation of the underside of the patella.

Symptoms include pain on activity and sitting for prolonged periods of time

often affects young athletic individuals

399
Q

what structures does the facial nerve supply?

A

Face, Ear, Taste, Tear
Face - muscles of facial expression
Ear - Nerve to stapedius
Taste - Supples anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Tear - Parasympathetic fibres to lacrimal glands and salivary glands

400
Q

Which nerve passes posterior medially to first rib

A

phrenic nerve

401
Q

What is the treatment of an intracapsular NOF?

A

Displaced: Hemiarthroplasty / THR or if young and fit can have cannulated screws

Undisplaced: Cannulated screws or conservative

402
Q

Which nerve supplies the medial aspect of the palm

A

The ulnar nerve

403
Q

what is the treatment of a hydrocele

A

Treatment in adults is with a Lords or Jabouley procedure.
Treatment in children is with trans inguinal ligation of PPV.

404
Q

what is the blood supply to the breast

A

internal and external mammary arteries
anterior intercostal arteries
thorco-acromial arteries

405
Q

what is the physiological significance of the femoral canal

A

allows the femoral vein to expand for increased venous return

406
Q

What are some of the features of meniscal tears?

A
  • from rotational sports injures
  • delayed knee swelling
  • true locking of the knee
407
Q

What is the treatment of ulcerative colitis

A
  1. Medical management: IV hydrocortisone 100mg QDS
  2. Subtotal collectomy
408
Q

how is achondroplasia inherited

A

autosomal dominant

409
Q

what is richters hernia

A

this is a hernia containing a portion of the anti mesenteric border of the bowel wall

410
Q

What is the typical stroke volume in a resting 70 Kg man

A

70mls (typically between 55 - 100)

411
Q

What is the treatment of binary atresia in young children

A

Roux on y

412
Q

when does graft vs host disease commonly occur

A

4-30 days post transfusion

413
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of testicular torsion

A
  • severe pain and sudden onset
  • loss of cremasteric reflex
  • elevation of the testis does not relieve pain
414
Q

what is the most appropirate investigation for a child with a suspected SUFE

A

hip X ray

MRCS Other (19 decks)

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