IFR Law Flashcards
What are the speed limitations in a holding pattern?
- up to and including FL140
– 230 kt, or
– 170 kt for holding where the approach is limited to Cat A and B aircraft only;
- above FL140 up to and including FL200, 240 kt; and
- above FL200, 265 kt.
NOTE: Above the highest MSA in turbulent conditions speeds may be increased to the lesser of 280 KIAS or Mach 0.8 subject to ATC approval in controlled areas (CTA
When does timing begin in a hold?
Timing begins abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later.
How long must the outbound leg of a hold be?
The outbound leg must be no longer than:
- Up to and including FL140 – 1 minute or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.
- Above FL140 – 1.5 minutes or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.
What angle of bank should be used in a hold?
All turns in nil wind should be at a bank angle of 25 degrees or Rate One, which-ever requires the lesser bank.
To what extent must wind be compensated for in a hold?
Allowance should be made in heading and timing to compensate for the effects of wind to ensure the inbound track is regained before passing the holding fix inbound.
What is the heading flexibility in a sector entry?
The entry into the holding pattern must be according to heading in relation to the three entry sectors shown below, recognizing a zone of flexibility of 5 degrees on either side of the sector boundaries. For holding on a VOR intersection, the entry track is limited to the radials forming the intersection.
How long may an aircraft track outbound on a sector 2 entry for?
Track outbound for the appropriate period of time from the holding fix, where timing is specified, up to a maximum of 1 minute and 30 seconds; or, if earlier
- until the appropriate limiting DME distance is attained, where distance is specified
Describe the privileges of an instrument rating
May pilot an aircraft under the IFR and NVFR for which you have a class rating.
State the limitations of an instrument rating, including proficiency checks and recent experience requirements
May exercise the Privileges of an Instrument Rating if:
The aircraft is equipped for instrument operations
If single pilot, a flight test or IPC was completed in a single pilot aircraft
o Conducting a circling approach, has conducted a flight test or IPC (OPC under the IFR) in the last 12 months which included a circling approach
An IPC for the category & class of aircraft is valid if, in the last 12 months a pilot has passed:
o an IPC (if in last 3 months of validity then new expiry is twelve months from the end of the original month of expiry)
o Flight test for instrument endorsement if >6 months after pass month (IPC)
o Participate in cyclic training (only valid for operations with company {CASR 61.880[4B]}
o A flight test for an initial instrument rating
State limitations for the conduct of a flight under the IFR in a type rated aircraft
Recent IFR experience is satisfied if:
If in the previous 3 months an OPC is carried out; or
3 IAP operations in 90 days
Single pilot IFR requires 1 IFR flight/sim ≥1hr + 1 approach as single pilot every 6 months
For conduct of an Instrument Approach in IMC;
o Have previously conducted an IAP on the navigation system of that kind.
o Have conducted an IAP at least once in the last 90 days of that type;
1 x 2D Approach in 90 days
1 x 3D Approach in 90 days
1 x CDI Approach in 90 days
1 x Azimuth Approach in 90 days
A pilot may pilot an aircraft under the IFR if in the previous 90 days if they have flown at least one instrument approach in that category of aircraft or approved flight simulator
What are the NVFR Recency requirements
NVFR Recency
3 take off and landings in the last 90 days for passenger carrying flights (1 for PVT);
1 hour flown under the NVFR in the last 12 months
If NVFR rating is a condition of an instrument rating then all IFR currency must be met for it to be current
What is the standard holding pattern direction?
Right
List the documents that must be carried on an IFR flight
Aircraft: MR, Cert of airworthiness, AFM, Cert of registration.
Pilot: Licence, medical, charts for operation
What four requirements must navigation aids meet?
Navigation systems have to meet these requirements for aviation:
Accuracy: the aircrafts position can be determined with a sufficient level of precision;
Integrity: timely warnings are provided when the system fails or becomes degraded;
Continuity: the ability of the system to function without unscheduled interruptions;
Availability: the proportion of time that the system can be expected to provide reliable navigation
What is the radio failure procedure under the IFR?
IFR radio failure procedures in any airspace
Squawk 7600
Listen to ATIS
Transmit blind
(Unless strong reasons dictate otherwise):
In VMC:
o Remain in VMC and land at most suitable aerodrome
In IMC:
o Proceed in accordance with latest ATC route clearance acknowledged
If a restriction was acknowledged:
Maintain last assigned level, or MSA if higher, for 3 minutes; &/or
Hold at nominated location for 3 minutes; then
Proceed IAW last route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level
If being vectored
Maintain last vector for 2 minutes; &
Climb to MSA; then
Proceed IAW last route clearance acknowledged
If holding
Fly one more complete holding pattern; then
Proceed IAW last route clearance acknowledged
Track to destination IAW flight plan
o Commence descent as normal to the initial approach altitude for the most suitable approach; &
o Carry out approach to the circling minima
If visual at the circling minima
circle to land; or
If cleared to land on a runway aligned approach, continue approach
If not visual at circling minima
Depart for a suitable aerodrome; or
If aerodrome information indicates runway approach is available, continue to appropriate minima.
If sufficient fuel is carried to divert, pilot may hold or carry out approaches until visual
When must ATC be notified of a change in ETA?
When ETA changes by more than two minutes
What are the reporting requirements for a departure, cruise, descent, approach and landing at an aerodrome outside controlled airspace?
Taxiing
Departure
Reaching cruising level
Position report at prescribed and nominated points
Before changing level
Changing frequency
When a report from an IFR flight is made to ATS via HF, a broadcast on the appropriate CTAF or
area VHF is also required.
Departure:
The pilot of an IFR aircraft operating from a non-controlled airport must attempt to contact ATS on VHF or HF when taxiing. If the pilot is unable to establish contact, the flight may proceed on a broadcast basis provided contact is established as soon as possible after take-off, and:
a. in the case of an RPT, CHTR or AWK flight, the pilot is assured of radio contact with his or her operator, or a representative of his or her operator who has immediate access to a serviceable telephone, until contact is made with ATS; or
b. for flights other than RPT, a SARTIME for departure has been established with a maximum of 30 minutes from EOBT
When established on the departure track, and clear of the circuit traffic, the pilot-in-command must report departure to ATC unless instructed otherwise.
- 4.3 This report must include the following information:
a. departure time;
b. outbound track in degrees magnetic;
c. intended cruising level; and
d. the estimate for the first enroute reporting point. - 4.3.1 The departure time must be reported as follows:
a. current time minus an adjustment for the distance from the airport; or
b. when over or abeam the airport.
NOTE: Outbound track is not required in surveillance environments where identification is expected from ATC on departure.
6.4.4 If the pilot transmits the departure report before intercepting the departure track the report must include advice that the pilot is manoeuvring to intercept departure track.
Cruise:
The pilot-in-command of an IFR flight MUST notify the intention to amend route, deviate from track or change level in sufficient time for ATS to advise traffic.
When a position estimate changes by more than two (2) minutes the pilot MUST advise ATS.
Pilots must give ATS notice of an impending position report by use of the word “position”; e.g., “MELBOURNE CENTER (call sign) POSITION”. Pilots MUST wait for the ATS instruction before reporting position.
Pilots MUST report maintaining an assigned level.
After any enroute frequency change, a pilot-in-command of an IFR flight MUST advise present level. If the aircraft is not at its planned cruising level, the pilot MUST also provide advice of the level to which the aircraft is being climbed.
Descent:
Before descending from controlled into Class G airspace and before separation with any aircraft operating near the base of controlled airspace can be compromised, the pilot in command of an IFR flight MUST report position, level, intentions and estimate for next position/destination to the ATS unit providing services in Class G airspace. If the report is made using HF radio, a broad-cast must be made on the appropriate area VHF frequency
A pilot of an IFR flight must report when changing to the CTAF when the ATS frequency will not, or cannot, be monitored. This report must include the aerodrome location and frequency.
6.6.3 Pilots of IFR flights conducting local training, an instrument approach or a holding pattern, may extend their SAR watch by an “OPERATIONS NORMAL” call at scheduled times.
Approach and Landing:
CTAF calls as necessary and should be by 10nm.
Cancel SARWATCH on Area VHF.
What are the errors associated with altimeters?
Simple altimeters use a single evacuated capsule to determine static pressure. Sensitive altimeters use multiple capsules which gives greater sensitivity for small changes in pressure. Servo altimeters use electrically calibrated signals from an Air Data Computer and have increased accuracy at all levels.
Blockage: when static source is blocked pressure in instrument will remain constant at level blocked.
Instrument Error: Small irregularities in the mechanism which tend to increase in effect in height; unavoidable.
Pressure Error: Air flow over the static head creates a false static pressure. Not significant at low altitude and low speed especially when static vents are on the fuselage. At high speed static pitot systems are at the front so as the bow wave passes at about Mach 1.0 the error decreases to a small value. Air data computers compensate for pressure error.
Time Lag: the response between capsules and linkages is not instantaneous and therefore the altimeter needle lags when height (pressure) rapidly changes. A servo altimeter virtually eliminates time lag.
Hysteresis Error: under stress a capsule does not deflect correctly for a given pressure change. It occurs when an aircraft initiates a large, rapid altitude change or an abrupt level-off from a rapid climb or descent. It takes a period of time for the aneroids to catch up with the new pressure environment.
Barometric Error: the pressure on the subscale does not match that of the actual atmosphere.
Temperature Error: the temperature used to derive QNH setting does not match that of the actual temperature. Plus ISA under reads, Minus ISA over reads. E.g. Lapse rate is not 2⁰ per 1000‟.
Rule of Thumb for correction is 4% of indicated Height AGL on local QNH per 10⁰C of ISA variation; 4% of indicated Altitude AMSL on Area QNH per 10⁰C of ISA variation.
True Altitude worked accurately = PH against OAT to find Calibrated Altitude then minus ELV and read against True Altitude
What is the Difference between the minimum altitude MDA and DA when published on an instrument approach chart and the pilot responsibilities.
Decision altitude (DA) is a specified altitude in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach. Decision altitude is expressed in feet above mean sea level.
Decision height (DH) is a specified height above the ground in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach. Decision height is expressed in feet above ground level.
Minimum descent altitude (MDA) is the lowest altitude specified in an instrument approach procedure, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering until the pilot sees the required visual references for the heliport or runway of intended landing
How long is a flight plan valid for once submitted to ATC?
24 hours from EOBT
What are the pilots responsibilities when cancelling SAR
When cancelling SARWATCH, pilots must include:
a. the aircraft radio call sign;
b. place of arrival or point from which SARWATCH services are no longer required;
c. the words “CANCEL SARWATCH”; and
d. when communicating with a unit other than that nominated, the name of the ATS unit to which the report shall be relayed.
6. 11.1.3 SARWATCH may be cancelled in combination with a pilot report of changing to the CTAF, or in the circuit area, or after landing.
6. 11.1.4 When the pilot of an IFR flight elects not to report in the circuit area to cancel SARWATCH and has not reported within 10 minutes of ETA, ATS will commence communications checks to obtain a landing report or an extension of SARWATCH
When must a pilot conduct a missed approach?
Go around from a visual approach in VMC, the aircraft must initially climb on runway track, remain visual and await instructions from ATC
Missed Approach Procedure in VMC, the aircraft must carry out the published instrument missed approach procedure for the instrument approach being flown, unless ATC directs otherwise.
A missed approach must be executed if:
a. during the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or
b. during an instrument approach and below the MSA (as specified on the approach chart), the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect or the radio aid fails;
b. i. loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix; or
c. visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences; or
d. a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling; or
e. visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.
NOTE 1: For the purpose of this paragraph “visual reference” means the runway threshold or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot, and either:
a. for circling approaches, clear of cloud, in sight of the ground or water and with a flight visibility not less than the minimum specified for circling; or
b. for runway approaches, a flight visibility or runway visual range not less than that specified for the procedure.
NOTE 2: The missed approach is designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 100 ft to an aircraft climbing along the specified missed approach path at a gradient of 2.5% (152 ft/NM) from the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences. If this missed approach climb gradient cannot be achieved, the DA, MDA or RA Height should be increased, or other action taken, to achieve the required obstacle clearance along the specified missed approach flight path.
- 10.2 In executing a missed approach, pilots must follow the missed approach procedure specified for the instrument approach flown. In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAP, pilots must fly the aircraft to the MAP and then follow the missed approach procedure.
- 12.1 If a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix, the pilot must immediately carry out a missed approach in accordance with published procedures.
- 12.2 Provided the RAIM warning ceases when the missed approach is selected on the GPS receiver, the GPS may be used for missed approach guidance.
- 12.3 Should the RAIM warning remain when the missed approach is selected, or should there be any doubt about the accuracy of the GPS, then an alternative means of guidance or dead reckoning must be used to fly the missed approach.
What are the procedures for operating PAL?
- Transmit pulse must be between 1 and 5 SECS.
- Three pulses must be transmitted within 25 SECS. Ensure that the third pulse ends before the 25th second.
- Break between transmissions can be more or less than 1 SEC – (no limit)
Lights to illuminate for a minimum of 30 MINS. If not
– keep transmitting 3 SEC pulses
– check frequency
AFRU PAL
Three pulses within 5 seconds
What are the principles of operation and limitations of runway visual approach slope lighting systems used in Australia?
PAPI
A PAPI installation consists of a set of four light boxes placed in a line at right angles to the runway, abeam the touchdown point and usually on the left hand side. Each box radiates both red and white light. The transition between the white and red will appear instantaneous to the pilot (3 minutes of arc change); however, light changes between adjacent boxes will not occur unless the approach slope changes by about 0.25 deg. A one degree progressive incremental spread from the outermost 3.5* to the innermost 3.5* light unit about the standard approach angle 3*
What are the Pilot responsibilities for compliance with a SID?
SIDs (procedural and radar) are procedures to be followed until the aircraft reaches the LSALT for intercepting the flight planned route.
SIDs may be flown by aircraft already airborne provided that, before commencing a SID, the pilot visually positions the aircraft on the runway centerline so that all tracking and altitude requirements can be met.
SID procedures assume that pilots will not compensate for wind effects when being radar vectored, but will compensate for known or estimated wind effects when flying departure routes which are expressed as tracks.
Standard SID gradient is 3.3% and not designed for OEI performance. An additional gradient, indicated by a figure in brackets may be included. This additional gradient, based on an airspace requirement, should be flown by aircraft required to remain in controlled airspace.
SID diagrams are not drawn to scale, bearings are magnetic and altitude requirements are referenced to QNH
When a departure report is required during a SID, the SID identifier must be included in the report.
For a Radar SID, the direction of turn and assigned heading must be advised in the air-borne report.
Average bank angle is 15* and max turning speed is 290kt
What are the pilot responsibilities for a STAR?
Prior to issuing a STAR clearance, ATC shall advise the pilot that “STAR clearance is availa-ble”, unless the pilot has been advised by the preceding controller to “Expect STAR clearance” on first contact.
STARs will normally be issued prior to commencement of descent to permit pilots to plan for any vertical navigation requirements or speed restrictions.
For flights that have included PBN/T1 in Field 18 of the flight notification form, ATC will auto-matically issue a STAR with an RN PAR termination where available (e.g., LIZZI ONE UNI-FORM), or an expectation of an RNP AR approach where there is no applicable STAR, except as follows:
a. The pilot requests an alternative approach.
b. Traffic sequencing requirements.
c. There is no RNP AR approach published for the particular runway or approach track.
Where there is more than one RNP AR approach for a particular runway, ATC will determine the approach to be used based on traffic sequencing and/or separation requirements.
A STAR may be commenced at any point from a transition fix to the arrival fix.
A pilot must read back to ATC the STAR identifier and any transition runway and termination procedure specified in the STAR clearance.
The pilot-in-command must advise ATC if cleared via a STAR which requires the use of navigation aids not available to the aircraft
Where a STAR incorporates circuit legs to a runway, pilots of aircraft not equipped with a flight management system may have difficulty with navigation on the STAR. Where this is the case, the pilot in command should accept the STAR clearance and request vectors when contact-ing Approach Control; e.g., “REQUEST VECTORS FROM [waypoint or fix]”.
The STAR speed requirement of 250 KIAS maximum below 10,000 ft must be complied with unless amended by ATC. A speed restriction greater than 250 KIAS issued above 10,000 ft does not vary this requirement. A speed less than 250 KIAS imposed above 10,000 ft must be com-plied with throughout the STAR procedure. ATC may cancel STAR speed requirements either by individual instructions; e.g., “CANCEL STAR SPEED RESTRICTIONS”, or by general advice on the ATIS; e.g., “STAR SPEED RESTRICTIONS DO NOT APPLY”.
ATC may hold or vector an aircraft after a STAR clearance has been issued
What are the pilot responsibilities for Noise abatement?
Noise Abatement Procedures shall normally apply to all jet propelled aircraft and other air-craft having a MTOW exceeding 5700kg
SID and STARS comply with noise abatement procedures.
Where noise abatement procedures are prescribed, and ATC traffic management permits, the runway nomination provisions published on NOISE charts will be applied. Not withstanding this, noise abatement will not be a determining factor in runway selection under the following cir-cumstances (unless required by Noise Abatement legislation):
a. In conditions of low cloud, thunderstorms and/or poor visibility;
b. For runway conditions that are completely dry:
1. when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 20 kt;
2. when the downwind component, including gusts, exceeds 5 kt;
c. For runway conditions that are not completely dry:
1. when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 20 kt;
2. when there is a downwind component;
d. When wind shear has been reported;
e. When, in the opinion of the pilot-in-command, safety would be prejudiced by runway condi-tions or any other operational consideration
The power settings to be used subsequent to the failure or shutdown of an engine or any other apparent loss of performance, at any stage in the take-off or noise abatement climb, are at the discretion of the pilot-in-command, and noise abatement considerations no longer apply.
What are the pilot responsibilities for a Missed approach?
In executing a missed approach, pilots must follow the missed approach procedure specified for the instrument approach flown. In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAP, pilots must fly the aircraft to the MAP and then follow the missed approach procedure. The MAP in a procedure may be:
a. the point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA; or
b. a navigation facility; or
c. a fix; or
d. a specified distance from the Final Approach Fix (FAF)
A published missed approach procedure must not be flown unless commenced at the MAP. If a missed approach climb is initiated before the MAP, the aircraft must track to the MAP before commencing the missed approach procedure
When the instrument procedure is based on a radio navaid but the missed approach does not specify lateral guidance the expectation is that the pilot will use DR to achieve the nomi-nated track. Allowance for wind must be made to make-good this nominated track
A missed Approach Provides obstacle clearance of 100’ at a gradient of 2.5%. If this missed approach climb gradient cannot be achieved, the DA, MDA or RA Height should be increased, or other action taken, to achieve the required obstacle clearance along the specified missed approach flight path.
Obstacle Clearance Altitude is the lowest altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with obstacle clearance criteria.
Must be executed if:
Aircraft exceeds navigation tolerance during the final approach segment
o Jeppessen do not specify the tolerance. Tolerances are applied in a test or SOP
o GNSS, VOR, ILS/LOC or GLS - half scale deflection
o NDB - 5°; or
During the approach and below MSA the navigation aid becomes suspect or fails
o GNSS – loss of RAIM/RAIM warning after the IAF
GPS may be used for guidance in the missed approach if warning stops after selecting it, otherwise use DR; or
Visual reference is not established at or before MAP/DA/RH; or
A landing cannot be effected; or
Visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach
Missed Approach is complete once reaching the Published altitude
What are the pilot responsibilities for transponder operation?
The Aircraft Identification entered into the Mode S Transponder, or ADS–B Transmitter, must match the Aircraft Identification entered into Item 7 of the Flight Notification or, when no flight notification has been filed, the aircraft registration. Hyphens or symbols may not be used within the identification.
Pilots wishing to receive a SIS must be in direct VHF communications with ATC and equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder or ADS–B transmitter.
Aircraft may continue to operate with unserviceable DME and GNSS equipment in Class G. In controlled airspace, where ATC uses radar as the primary means of separating aircraft, operation with unserviceable DME and GNSS is permitted if the aircraft is fitted with a serviceable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Transponder.
VFR CLASS G: 1200
IFR CLASS G: 2000
IFR & VFR CTA: 3000
MAYDAY: 7700
RADIO OUT: 7600
Hijacking: 7500
Must be set to ON/ALT at all times.
What are the requirements for obtaining meteorological information to conduct a flight under the IFR?
flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome, flights over water and all IFR flights, must make a careful study of current weather reports and forecasts for the route to be flown and the aerodromes to be used.
A forecast must be either:
a. a flight forecast;
b. an area forecast (below FL200); or
c. SIGWX forecast (above A100).
An aerodrome forecast for the destination is also needed and, when required, the alternate aerodrome. For a flight to a destination for which a prescribed instrument approach procedure does not exist, the minimum requirement is an Area Forecast.
For flights for which a forecast is required and cannot be obtained, the flight is permitted to depart provided the pilot is satisfied that the weather at the departure point will permit the safe return of the flight within one hour of departure. The flight is permitted to continue provided a suit-able forecast is obtained for the intended destination within 30 minutes after departure.
For flights to a destination for which an aerodrome forecast is required and cannot be obtained or is “provisional”, the flight is permitted to depart, provided an alternate aerodrome meeting all the requirements specified in Alternate Aerodromes paragraph is provided
Charter, Airwork and Private operations under VFR at night must not be conducted unless the forecast indicates that the flight can be conducted in VMC at not less than 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 10 NM either side of track.
A pilot-in-command must ensure that the forecasts cover the period of the flight and that the aerodrome forecasts for the destination and alternate aerodromes, to be nominated in the flight plan, are valid for a period of not less than 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA.
When a flight is delayed so that the meteorological and operational information does not cover the period of flight, updates must be obtained, as necessary, to allow the flight to be concluded safely
When preflight briefing is obtained more than one hour prior to EOBT, pilots should obtain an update before each departure to ensure that the latest information available can be used for the flight.
Given air temperature in clear air or in cloud, determine approximate height of freezing level, using a temperature lapse rate of 3°C per 1,000 ft in clear air and 1.5°C in cloud.
Elv 1500’
ISA -3
Cloud base 2000 AGL
5500 AMSL
Given pilot observations, either in clear air or in cloud, of the following phenomena — turbulence, precipitation, temperature, cloud type predict the probability and likely duration of the following:
(a) airframe icing;
(b) hail;
(c) micro bursts and wind shear;
(d) turbulence (including CAT
(a) airframe icing;
Rime ice - small droplets in stratiform (except nimbo) clouds between -10 & -20 C
Clear ice - large droplets in cumuliform and alto/nimbostratus between 0 & -15C
(b) hail; found in large Cb. Requires strong up draughts, ergo turbulence. Likely in TS at higher altitude.
(c) micro bursts; within the vicinity of TS, squalls and virga. Strong winds lasting about 15 minutes affecting aircraft low to the ground.
Wind shear; a change in wind velocity may occur when passing through an inversion.
Low level jet stream; when air circulating off a high hits a mountain range and is accelerated into a narrow stream along the range. A surface inversion must be present to eliminate surface friction.
(d) turbulence; Convective turbulence, caused by rising air, as found below cumuliform clouds.
Mechanical turbulence is created from wind blowing over surface obstructions. Worst in the rotor zone (beneath wave crests) in a stable atmosphere with fast wind and large features.
Frontal turbulence is wind shear at the boundary of two air masses at different temperature (density)
What sources are available for obtaining a forecast in flight?
AERIS, VOLMET, AWIS, ATIS, AVFAX, METBRIEF, HF, Area VHF,
What is Volmet?
Automated HF broadcast of METAR and TTF when available. Advice on SIGMET availability.
What are the minimum meteorological conditions required for take off?
6.3.2 The take-off minima for a qualifying multi-engine airplane are:
a. a ceiling of zero feet; and
b. visibility of:
1. 550m – but only if the following conditions are complied with:
– the runway must have illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60m, and centreline lighting or centreline markings; and
– if the airport is a non-controlled airport, or a controlled airport without ATC in operation – the take-off must be conducted by day only, and the airport must be one at which carriage of radio is mandatory; or
2. 800m.
6.4
TAKE-OFF MINIMA FOR OTHER IFR AEROPLANES
- 4.2 The take-off minima for the airplane are:
a. a ceiling of 300 ft; and
b. visibility of 2000m.
It is a condition of the use of the take-off minima in this section that the pilot in command of the airplane must ensure that:
a. if a return to land at the departure airport will be necessary in the event of an engine failure –
the meteorological conditions must be at or above instrument approach and landing minima for the airport or such as to allow a visual approach; and
b. if engine failure occurs at any time after V1, lift-off, or encountering non-visual conditions –
terrain clearance is assured until reaching either enroute LSALT or departure airport MSA;
and
c. if a return to the departure airport is not possible – the airplane’s performance and fuel availability
must each be adequate to enable the airplane to proceed to a suitable airport, having regard to terrain, obstacles and route distance limitations.
For a qualifying multi engine aircraft;
- 2 pilot operated; or
- a single pilot operated jet airplane; or
- a single pilot operated propeller airplane with operative auto feather; and
b. for an airplane with a MTOW exceeding 5700kg – the airplane is able to meet the relevant
obstacle clearance requirements of CAO 20.7.1B; and
c. for an airplane with a MTOW not exceeding 5700kg:
1. the gross climb gradient performance is at least 1.9% under ambient conditions with the loss of the most critical engine; and
2. the airplane engine-out climb gradient under ambient conditions specified in the manu-facturer’s data is at least 0.3% greater than the obstacle free gradient for the runwaylength required; and
3. the pilot in command uses published obstacle free gradients only if such gradients are surveyed to at least a distance of 7500m from end of TODA; and
NOTE: All runways with strip widths of 150m or greater are surveyed to 7500m unless otherwise annotated.
What are valid sources of QNH?
Actual - ATS, AWIS, ATIS, Approved Met Observer (valid for 15 mins)
Forecast - TAF3, TAF, ARFOR (+50’ to MDA)
What are a pilots obligations for reporting variations to forecast meteorological conditions?
Whenever conditions experienced are significantly above or below those forecast, AIREP should be submitted. AIREP includes temperature, wind and turbulence and is made on request, climb-out, approach or on reporting points.
When is an alternate required?
Alternates (ATC Airports & Ground Aids: Alternates)
Alternates Could Very Well Prove Life Savers
Aids
Alternate isn’t required if:
• Destination has an instrument approach procedure (Night & Day); OR,
arrival is by day &
o Forecast indicates ≤ SCT cloud below LSALT for the last route segment + 500’ &;
o Visibility is ≥8km
• For PVT & AWK: aircraft has a receiver for 1 approach at the destination
• For RPT & CHT: the aircraft can suffer the failure of 1 airborne receiver
o NB: a TSO 145/6a is considered a receiver if data base is current and no RAIM FDE outages are forecast
Airservices prediction is more accurate than a box check
NVFR flights must provide for an alternate within one hour flight time if the destination isn’t served by an NDB/VOR
Cloud
Alternate is required if:
• Arrival is during the currency of, or within 30 min of forecast of >SCT cloud below the alternate minimum
NB: Special Alternate Minima may be used provided the aircraft is equipped with two independent ILS/VOR receivers, a METAR/SPECI service is available and the tower is open
Visibility
Alternate is required if:
• Arrival is during the currency of, or within 30 min of forecast of visibility less than the alternate minima or weather phenomenon reducing the visibility below the alternate minima
NB: Special Alternate Minima may be used provided the aircraft is equipped with two independent ILS/VOR receivers, a METAR/SPECI service is available and the tower is open.
Wind
• Crosswind or downwind component more than the maximum for the aircraft (gusts to be considered)
Prov/Prob
Alternate is required if:
• a TAF is Provisional or not available for an aerodrome with a published approach
• If an INTER or TEMPO is affixed with a PROB then it is to be assumed that it will occur.
Lighting
Alternate isn’t required if:
• Portable with a responsible person; or
• Electric with standby power; or
• PAL with standby and a responsible person; or
• Fuel to hold until BOD + 10min
NB: the alternate for RPT passenger carrying aircraft ≥ 3500kg or aircraft with single VHF communication may only have PAL if there is a responsible person in attendance. In any other case PAL is acceptable without a responsible person provided the aircraft is equipped with two VHF’s or a VHF & HF plus 30min holding to alert ground staff of a VHF failure.
NB: at a controlled aerodrome with a partial lighting failure, pilots will be notified of a doubled spacing of runway edge lights. In less than VMC this imposes a requirement to apply a factor of 1.5 to the published minimum visibility being used.
Storms
• Any probability of Thunder Storms or their associated turbulence forecast for arrival will require an alternate
If a TAF3 is used then no buffer is required within the first 3 hours, nor is the requirement to consider a probability of TS or visibility reductions below the alternate minima.
Where can information on traffic holding be found?
Jeppesen Reference:
ATC - General Flight Procedures - Fuel Requirements - Holding Fuel - Traffic Holding
What is the latest diversion time to an alternate?
Must plan to land at the alternate with fixed reserve in tact as alternates mustn’t require an alternate.
When flying under Night / Day VFR, what is the alternate minimum?
1500’ AGL by day and night
8km vis
Determine the RNP requirements for an IFR flight
Under PBN, common Australian
operational navigation specifications
will be:
» RNP 2—en route
» RNP 1—for Standard Instrument
Departures (SIDs), and Standard Terminal
Arrival Routes (STARs)
» RNP–APCH—LNAV approach
(Under GNSS-RNAV, these were en route,
terminal, and non-precision approach.
In order to meet RNP an aircraft with a standalone GNSS must have RAIM. The GNSS must be TSO approved/installed and the pilot qualified to use it.
What is the minimum obstacle clearance criteria for a missed approach?
2.5% climb gradient with at least 100’ obstacle clearance
What is the minimum obstacle clearance provided by the circling altitude for both day and night?
The OCA for Cat B is 300’.
The OCA for Cat C is 400’
The minimum MDA for a circling area is 492’
By day an aircraft may manoeuvre within the circling area at OCA.
By night it must remain at the MDA until it intercepts a constant profile to land.
OCA may not be descended below until established on final
The MDA is derived from the highest point in the circling area for the category plus the OCA
The circling area is defined by arcs around the thresholds of usable runways joined by tangential lines
The arcs are determined by the circling speed with +-25 knot winds in the turn at the lesser of rate one or 20 degrees angle of bank. Circling TAS is at ISA+15 at 2000’ MSL
