Human Factors Flashcards

1
Q

What are the seven basic rules the National Heart Foundation suggest will lead to a healthy BMI?

A
  1. Reduce your fat intake. Most people eat far more fat than is necessary.
  2. Reduce your salt intake. Too much salt can lead to high blood pressure and heart problems
  3. Reduce your sugar intake.
  4. Eat more fruit, cereals, vegetables and wholemeal bread.
  5. Eat a wide variety of foods to ensure abalanced diet.
  6. Eat proper meals at regular intervals. Try not to skip breakfast or lunch.
  7. Exercise more regularly. Twenty minutes of brisk walking three or four times a week is sufficient exercise keep your body in good physical condition.
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2
Q

How many litres does the heart pump a day?

A

7600L

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3
Q

As well as genetic makeup what can attribute to heart problems?

A

Diet. A good diet and regular exercise together, greatly reduce the risk of heart problems in any one individual. High blood pressure is most directly linked to heart disease.

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4
Q

What is the most common form of pilot incapacitation?

A

Gastro

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5
Q

What foods should be avoided to reduce the chance of gastro?

A

Dairy, seafood and left out hot foods

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6
Q

In terms of humidity and temperature, what condone are comfortable for the human body?

A

21-27 degrees and 50% humidity

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7
Q

What are the three types of heat stress and how can they be combatted?

A

The first type of heat stress is likely to occur when your operating environment is too hot, defined as in excess of 32°C. The most noticeable effect will be tiredness, and it will become increasingly difficult for you to concentrate.

You may also suffer from heat exhaustion, which occurs when your circulatory system cannot compensate for blood vessels that have dilated to increase flow of heat out of your body via the skin. Drinking water is a good antidote for heat stress.

A second type of heat stress that can affect your performance can occur if you have had too much sun prior to a flight, through sun bathing or being outside without adequate protection. It can also occur when you have not had sufficient liquid intake. The effects ‘may be subtle and more difficult to notice, because your environment may be comfortable and you may feel well. However, your concentration may be lowered, leading to a decline in your decision-making ability.

A Third type of heat stress can occur when the temperature falls below about 10 degrees. If the temperature is very low, it is possible for your body to lose more heat than it can produce. Inextreme cases, this will cause shivering (a heat producer), drowsiness, and poor concentration. All of these will have an adverse effect on your performance, Hypothermia occurs when the body can no longer maintain its core temperature and its symptoms include impairment of thinking, apathy and eventually unconsicousness and death. The most likely cause of hypothermia is long immersion in cold water or unprotected exposure very cold environmental temperatures.

The best way to deal with potential problems from extreme temperatures is to be sensible. If it is very hot, drink a lot of water and keep your skin protected and wear light, lose fitting clothes. If it is very cold, make sure you are warmly clothed, a number of layers of fairly light clothes is much more effective than one thick coat because air trapped between the layers isavery good insulator. Do not rely on the heating system ofthe aircraft. Ifit fails, you could be in serious trouble.

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8
Q

Why is alcohol not recommended for keeping warm in cold conditions?

A

It gives a false sense of warmth while actually lowering your resistance.

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9
Q

What can dehydration cause?

A

Dehydration eventually leads to a malfunction of almost every bodily process including emotional disturbances and irrational decision making.

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10
Q

How much water should be consumed to prevent dehydration?

A

More than thirst dictates?

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11
Q

What are the early signs of dehydration?

A

The early symptoms of dehydration include drying of the nasal passages and a prickly sensation in the eyes.

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12
Q

What aircraft system can reduced dehydration at altitude?

A

The low relative humidity of air at high altitude can be avoided by the use of airconditioning

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13
Q

How long after giving blood should a pilot wait before giving blood?

A

24 hours

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14
Q

What health risks are increased by smoking?

A

Heart attack
Risk increased by 100%
If you have high blood pressure or high cholesterol, make that 200%.
If you are a woman on the contraceptive pill, make that 1000%

Stroke Risk increased by 100%

Gangrene Risk increased by 500%

cancer of the lungs, tongue, larynx, oesophagus and pancreas

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15
Q

What what chemical in cigarette smoke affects hypoxia?

A

The carbon monoxide in cigarette smoke reduces the blood’s oxygen carrying capacity, making the smoker more susceptible to hypoxia

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16
Q

Does air flow more easily in or out of the Eustachian tube?

A

Out, ergo pressurisation is easily achieved on a climb?

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17
Q

What is barotrauma?

A

The outer ear or ear canal is exposed to the outside atmosphere. Its function is to collect sound waves and direct them to the eardrum. The eardrum is a membrane stretched tightly across the ear canal [like the skin of adrum]. It separates the outer ear from the delicate balance and hearing apparatus of the inner ear. During a climb, the outside air pressure drops and the eardrum begins to bulge outwards. The eustachian tube provides a passage to allow the air behind the eardrum to leak out into the nasal cavity to equalise the pressure on either side of the eardrum.

During adescent the airpressure rises and the eardrum bulges inwards. The eustachian tube allows air toflow from the nasal cavity back to the inside of the eardrum to equalise the pressure. When the eustachian tube is blocked by mucus due to colds or flu, air no longer flows freely along this passage way. Unequal pressures cause the eardrum to stretch, causing severe pain and even rupture of the eardrum!

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18
Q

When should a pilot notify CASA of an inability to fly?

A

CASR 67.265 requires that if you suffer any injury or any other condition that may impair your ability to fly, you should advise the CASA or a DAME as soon as possible of the condition or injury. You should not fly until you are advised by a DAME that you fully meet the prescribed medical standards.

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19
Q

What are the main effects of deterioration due to ageing?

A

Hearing loss (higher frequencies in men) and longsightedness

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20
Q

When is it recommended a pregnant woman stop flying?

A

After the sixth month

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21
Q

What are the physical symptoms of air sickness and how can it be prevented?

A

Pale face, sweating, nausea and vomiting.

Fresh air on the face, looking at the horizon or becoming occupied with other thoughts or tasks can sometimes help.

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22
Q

How can anxiety be constructive?

A

It can heighten the body’s responses to stimuli and assist concentration by allowing the individual to disregard the irrelevant and focus on the immediate task

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23
Q

What is the purpose of depression in the body?

A

Depression is the body’s way of taking ‘time out’ during periods of disappointment or grief. It Should be accepted as a normal emotional response provided the reason for such feelings can be identified.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of fear in the body?

A

It is natures way of alerting us to situations which are threatening.

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25
Q

When is anxiety, fear or depression destructive?

A

When there is rational behind them

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26
Q

What can obesity contribute to?

A

Obesity can be a contributing factor in hypertension, gout, diabetes and heart disease - but most of all to heart disease

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27
Q

How much water does the body lose per day?

A

On an average day your body loses about one litre of water, but on a hot dry day you can lose as much as 5 litres!

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28
Q

What can ingesting too much salt cause?

A

Hypertension

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29
Q

Does any consumption of alcohol destroy brain cells?

A

Only if the drinking is heavy and long term. No evidence suggests that moderate drinking is harmful.

Long term, heavy consumption can damage the heart, liver and brain.

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30
Q

How can the rate of absorption of alcohol be reduced?

A

By consuming fatty foods

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31
Q

How much alcohol is metabolised by the liver?

A

~90% the rest is expired through breath, perspiration and urine at a constant rate of 1 standard drink per hour.

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32
Q

What can speed up the rate at which alcohol is removed from the body?

A

Nothing

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33
Q

How is alcohol absorbed?

A

Through the intestines and stomach into the bloodstream and to the brain.

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34
Q

Once the body has reached a BAC of zero, is the body still affected?

A

Yes, alcohol remains in the brain up to 24 hours after drinking?

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35
Q

What are the long term affects of alcohol?

A

Apart from the well known ‘hangover’ effects of nausea, headache, gastritis and thirst, frequent indulgence in heavy drinking puts a severe load on the entire system. Cancer of the mouth, oesophagus and stomach, damage tothe heart and liver are allwell documented long term effects of alcohol abuse. Many ofthese effects are actually more likely tobe related to the life-style of the heavy drinker as well as to the alcohol itself since the heavy drinker is often a heavy smoker on a poor diet with poor sleep pattems.

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36
Q

What is the maximum recommend alcohol consumption per week?

A

The maximum recommended alcohol intake over a period of one week is 21 to 28 standard drinks for a man and 14 to 21 standard drinks for a woman.

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37
Q

What are analgesics?

A

These are pain relievers. They may be used by pilots for the treatment of short-term pain such as headaches and muscular pain. If such pains persist, you should see your doctor.

Aspirin [trade names Aspro & Disprin] can cause stomach upset and, if taken to excess, can cause internal bleeding and kidney problems. Codeine (trade name Panadeine) can be addictive andcause constipation Paracetamol [tradenames Panadol & Dymadon] taken in excess can damage liver and kidneys.

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38
Q

What are antihistamines?

A

Used to help clear up congestion associated with colds, flu and sinus problems. They produce side effects [often pronounced] of drowsiness and degraded performance. They are definitely not to be used when flying!

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39
Q

What is ephedrine?

A

Often found innasal sprays. They can be incompatible with other medications, especially some blood pressure medications. The excessive use of nasal sprays can cause damage and irritation to the nose tissues worsening or prolonging the condition.

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40
Q

What are stimulants?

A

Amphetamines are illegal. They are used as ‘pep pills’ [Benzedrine]. Their side effects include short-tempered restlessness, disorientation, fits of anxiety, overconfidence and headaches.

Caffeine is widely used in beverages such as coffee, tea and coke. Too much causes sleeplessness and irregular heart rhythms. Itcan be habit forming.

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41
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

Antibiotics should normally have no detrimental effect on a pilots ability to safely carry out flying activities. However some individuals may have an allergic reaction to some antibiotics. Side effects may include diarrhoea. Since antibiotics are prescribed to treat some form of infection, the condition itself could be cause to refrain from flying. If you have been prescribed a course of antibiotics which you have never previously taken, it is generally recommended that a period of 24 hours should be allowed from the commencement of the course of antibiotic treatment to ensure that there is no allergic reaction.

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42
Q

What are tranquillisers?

A

Used to treat anxiety or tension, they should never be used without medical consultation. Their effectiveness diminishes with continual use and they are habit forming. Side effects include drowsiness, dizziness and an increased susceptibility to the effects of alcohol.

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43
Q

What are sedatives?

A

Most commonly used to treat sleep disorders, they should never be used without medical consultation. Side effects include dizziness, blurred vision, headaches and skin irritations. Some can be long-acting and produce a hangover effect. They are habit forming.

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44
Q

Can taking blood pressure medication disqualify a pilot from flying duties?

A

High or low blood pressure can be a reason for disqualification from flying duties. There are some medications for controlling blood pressure which are acceptable for pilots, however it is most important that you consult an approved aviation medical authority for advice before using such medications.

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45
Q

How is hyperventilation caused, what are its symptoms and how can it be alleviated?

A

Over breathing, exhaling too much CO2. Acidity reduction of blood leads to light headedness, dizziness, sweating, tingling, numbness in hands & feet. Hold Breath or voluntarily decrease rate of breathing to alleviate symptoms.

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46
Q

What are the rules for flying after diving?

A

No Decompression = 4 hours

Decompression stops, dive 4 hours = 48 hours

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47
Q

What is the Bends?

A

Decompression sickness.

While ever the high pressure within the lungs is maintained, the nitrogen remains harmlessly dissolved in the blood and tissues.

When the pressure is suddenly released by ascending to the surface too quickly, the nitrogen comes out of solution in exactly the same way as bubbles of gas suddenly appear within a soft drink when the cap is removed. Joints and muscles are usually first to feel the effects giving rise to stiffuess in the joints and rheumatic-like pains in the muscles. If the bubbles form in the spinal chord or brain, tingling sensations or paralysis may occur. If the ascending diver panics and holds his/her breath while ascending, the expanding air can rupture the delicate lung tissue forcing air into the blood stream. Rising quickly to the brain, this air-contaminated blood can cause unconsciousness or death.

Recompression is the only way to treat it. Flying will further reduce the pressure, thus exacerbating the condition.

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48
Q

Describe the inner workings of the ear, including the inner, middle and outer ear?n

A

Outer Ear: flap of cartilage. Hairs & wax producing cells prevent FOD from reaching the eardrum. Protects the eardrum for extremes of heat and cold.

Middle Ear: eardrum forms an airtight seal protecting the middle ear from the atmosphere. Eardrum vibrates – Hammer, anvil & Stirrup amplify & conduct vibrations to cochlea through the oval window. Mechanical energy to electrical of nerve impulses which is carried to the brain via the cochlea nerve. Middle Ear is vented to the atmosphere through the Eustachian Tube to the Upper Throat.

Inner Ear: Semicircular Canals detect acceleration in pitch, roll & yaw. Fluid washes over hairlike cells (cupula) which respond by sending nerve impulses to the brain, same as the cochlea. Otolith organ is made up of the utricle & the sacule. They detect horizontal & vertical accelerations respectively.

The cochlea is a small bony structure that looks a little like a snail’s shell. It is filled with fluid and contains tiny hairlike cells. The vibrations arriving at the oval window from the middle ear set up pressure waves which travel through the fluid of the cochlea. The hairlike cells respond to the pressure waves generating the nerve impulses which the brain interprets as sound. The hairlike cells are of various widths and each is ‘tuned’ to resonate at certain frequencies depending on its stiffness. Constant exposure to loud noise causes damage to these hairlike cells which is irreversible, even one episode of exposure to a very loud noise [like a gunshot at very close range], can cause permanent damage to hearing.

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49
Q

At what point does sound harm the human ear?

A

≥85dB for prolonged exposure. 120dB causes discomfort. 140dB is the pain threshold. Loud noises cause stress, loss of concentration, fatigue & reduction in efficiency.

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50
Q

How is sound intensity measured?

A

The intensity of sound is measured in units called decibels. One dB is the lowest change in sound level which a healthy, youthful ear can detect. Every increase of ten decibels indicates a tenfold increase in the intensity of sound. For example, a noise of 40 dB is ten times as loud as a noise of 30 dB!

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51
Q

When should hearing protection be worn?

A

As a general rule, hearing protection should be worn if the noise level is such that you need to shout to be heard of half a metre. Well fitting earplugs will provide areduction of about 25 dB, while a good quality, well fitting headset will reduce noise levels by about 40 dB

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52
Q

Why does hearing degrade with age?

A

Prolonged exposure to unnaturally loud noise levels

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53
Q

How does the brain orientate itself?

A

Visual, Vestibular and Postural cues all help maintain orientation.

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54
Q

Describe how the eye works?

A

Cornea protects eye & helps the lens focus light onto the retina. Aqueous humour holds the cornea in shape. Iris changes shape in response to light intensity, causing the pupil to change size admitting more or less light to the lens. Cilliary muscles alter the shape of the lens. Retina is covered in rods & cones. Cones are colour sensitive. Rods surround the cones & are responsible for night vision. They are primed with rhodopsin & take 30-40mins to reach full concentration, however are destroyed by light. Exposure to strong glare can cause 30-50% reduction in night vision for ≤1week. Red light has almost no effect on night vision. The Fovea is the most sensitive area on the retina & is used for fine detail. The junction of the optic nerve holds the blinds spot at which light will not be registered by the brain (Blocks out 1 in 60 / 1m in 2nM).

55
Q

Is flicker vertigo an illusion?

A

No but it’s fucking annoying, disorientating and distracting

56
Q

What are good techniques for scanning the sky?

A

Night vision is enhanced by looking 4-12⁰ to one side of object. Move the head (to prevent objects being lost in the blind sot) 10-15⁰ at a time to conform to the saccade/rest cycle.

Night vision is affected by lack of oxygen, degrading from 4000’. Scan 20⁰ of horizon, 2 seconds at a time to find other aircraft. Best area to scan is 60 degrees left and right and 20 degrees above and below the horizon. Rain on the windscreen makes objects less distinct, seeming further than what they are.

57
Q

What kind of refractive errors can the eye suffer and what type of lens is used to correct them?

A

Hyperopia – longsighted, corrected with convex lens.

Myopia – short-sighted, corrected with concave lens.

Astigmatism – distortion, corrected with cylindrical lens.

Presbyopia – ageing, focus on near objects, look overs or bifocals.

58
Q

What is empty field myopia?

A

Empty field Myopia occurs when the eye has nothing to focus on between the aircraft and infinity. The eye will take up a resting position of about 1-2m in front. In the absence of other visual cues, it is usual assume that objects are further away than they actually are.

59
Q

What is the Ishihara test?

A

A series of cards containing coloured dots incorporating patterns which will only be seen by people who can distinguish between certain colours.

Colour blindness is almost completely hereditary in men and is incurable.

60
Q

What effect does water on the windscreen have in terms of depth perception?

A

Object appear further than they actually are

61
Q

List the illusions which can be encountered in flight.

A

Disorientation: Equilibrium is maintained by visual, vestibular & proprioceptive cues. Eyes have the final say.

Definition – state of confusion & conflict when conflicting or ambiguous messages from sense have no familiar external reference. Brain will make an incorrect assessment of attitude in space & motion occurring.

Bright is Up: roll AC to put brightest sky above you

The Leans: slow turns cause ears not to detect acceleration, thus sensation of level flight when rolled back gives the feeling of over bank.

The Corriolis Illusion: tilt head forward during a turn. Canals – yaw to roll, roll to yaw, tumbling sensation.

Somatogravic Illusion: When no visual cues – Acceleration-Climb, Deceleration-Descent

Autokinetic Illusion: Perception that stationary objects are moving.

Depth Perception: Relative distance of object & height of eye above the surface determine perspective. Clear sky – objects seem closer. Polluted sky- objects seem further.

Parallax: brain can tell the distance of an object relative to the one being focused on by considering whether it appears to move in the opposite or the same direction.

False Horizon: sloping cloudbank or terrain or scattered ground lights at night with stars can create a false impression of the horizon.

Reflections: reflections on the inside of a Perspex screen.

Black Hole Effect: approach to land with little or no nearby ground lighting make depth perception difficult and generally result in undershooting the runway

62
Q

When will a pilot think they are too high or too low on approach?

A

Feel Too Low on approach when:

 RWY slopes UP TO threshold

 TERRAIN slopes DOWN TO threshold

 RWY is WIDER

 RWY is SHORTER

 Poor visibility

 RWY & approach lights are DIMMER

Feel Too High on approach when:

 RWY slopes DOWN TO threshold

 TERRAIN slopes UP TO threshold

 RWY is NARROW

 RWY is LONGER

 Over water or featureless terrain

 Heavy rain on the windscreen

 Clear air

 RWY & approach lights are BRIGHT. RWY lights are the only lights.

63
Q

What mental and physical factors increase susceptibility to perceiving illusions?

A

Physical contributing factors include:
Head colds, flu or sinus infection
Physical exhaustion or discomfort

Mental contributing factors include:
Anxiety, stress or mental fatigue
Fear or panic
Preoccupation with other problems [worry

64
Q
When will the following occur:
Red out
Grey out
Black out
G-LOC
A

Red out: the heart slow down due to excess blood in the arteries. The bottom eyelid comes up above 3G

Grey Out: Partial loss of vision. 3.5G

Black out: total loss of vision. 5G

G-LOC: unconsciousness. Extended high G. 6G-5s, 9G-4s

65
Q

What are the physical effects of G-loads on the body?

A

Stretches & elongates the arteries which connect the heart to the brain, reducing oxygen flow.

Brain can initially cope with this due to residual oxygen before the G-Load.

66
Q

What factors can effect ones tolerance to G-loading?

A

Hypoglycaemia, diabetes & heat stress or Hypoxia can degrade tolerance.

Going from a negative to positive G will reduce tolerance as there is no residual oxygen available.

Improved by a more reclined seat, tensing stomach muscles, good fitness or wearing a G-suit.

67
Q

How does carbon monoxide make its way to the body?

A

When carbon monoxide is present in the lungs, it enters the blood stream by combining with the haemoglobin in the blood, taking the place which is normally occupied by oxygen.

68
Q

As concentration of exposure to carbon monoxide increases, what symptoms are observed?

A
  1. At low levels no symptoms.
  2. Marginal impairment of performance, aggravated by exertion.
  3. Slight headache, fatigue, mild discomfort in breathing.
  4. Impairment of vision, mental confusion, severe headache & vomiting.
  5. Unconsciousness & death.

It is colourless, odourless & tasteless, found in exhaust. Administer oxygen for immediate relief

69
Q

How does the circulatory system work?

A

Continued human performance in any environment requires an uninterrupted supply of freshly oxygenated blood to the brain. This flow is so important that the brain continually monitors both the quantity and quality of its blood supply, sending commands to the heart to adjust its pumping rate, and to the lungs to adjust the breathing rate to ensure an adequate supply of oxygen is being delivered. Once its supply of oxygen has been delivered to the brain and the rest of the body, the deoxygenated blood returns to the heart where it passes through a system of valves, arteries and veins. The heart receives the deoxygenated blood and directs it to the lungs, where it gives up its carbon dioxide and collects a fresh supply of oxygen. The blood contains a substance called haemoglobin, an iron-rich pigment which is the main component of each red blood cell. The most important property of haemoglobin is its ability to combine loosely with oxygen. In the lungs, each passing haemoglobin molecule picks up as many as four oxygen molecules and carries them, via the blood stream to the body’s tissues.
When the haemoglobin has collected its complement of oxygen molecules, the oxygenated blood is returned from the lungs to the heart where it is pumped through the aorta to recirculate to the brain and the rest of the body.
The brain does not monitor the oxygen level of the blood directly, instead it reacts to changes in the carbon dioxide content of the blood.

If the brain detects a rise in carbon dioxide levels in the blood it assumes that the body is in a state of exertion so it sends a command to increase the breathing rate [puffing]. This system works quite well for surface dwellers, since the need for extra oxygen is accompanied by the rise in carbon dioxide levels associated with hard physical work.
However the system cannot be relied on when we fly since a lack of oxygen at high altitude is not associated with physical exertion. There is no increase in carbon dioxide levels so the brain does not react by increasing the breathing rate.

70
Q

What is hypoxia and how is it caused?

A

Oxygen Deprivation: constant % of oxygen in atmosphere. Transfer of oxygen to blood stream depends on partial pressure within lungs. At 33,700’ 100% oxygen is required to maintain adequate blood saturation.

Symptoms:
resemble mild intoxication, reduced night vision, slowed thinking, impaired judgement, feeling of euphoria, impression performance is above average, erratic behaviour, unconsciousness but never any feeling of suffocation or distress.
Cyanosis: Blue colouration of lips & fingernails due to low oxygen in bloodstream.

Increased Susceptibility:
Smoking – CO occupies haemoglobin. At MSL it is effectively 8,000’. Does not increase at a linear rate - At 5,000’ effectively 10,000’.
Alcohol – similar effects & are additive.
Cold & Fatigue – enhances effects.
Chronic Respiratory disease – hypoxic on ground let alone at altitude.
Heart Disease – poor oxygenation of blood. Anaemia – decrease in haemoglobin

Effective performance time or Time of Useful Consciousness: Time available for clear thinking & meaningful actions before unconsciousness.

20,000‟ 10 min moderate activity 20 min low activity
25,000‟ 3 min moderate activity 5 min low activity
30,000‟ 1 min moderate activity 3 min low activity

Oxygen Masks: 
0-10,000‟ not required. 
10,000‟-25,000‟ continuous flow. 
25,000‟- 40,000‟ demand. 
33,700‟-40,000 100% oxygen. 
40,000‟+ pressure demand.
71
Q

What is hyperventilation?

A

Over breathing. It is perpetuated by the low ratio of CO2 in the bloodstream. Symptoms include slowed brain function, light headedness and tingling in arms and hands.

Breathing into a paper bag increases CO2 levels but is only recommended as a last resort.

72
Q

What are the differences between sensory, short term and long term memory.

A

Sensory:
visual, audio, vestibular ad proprioceptive information is sent here. It triggers reflexes, subconscious actions passed to STM for further attention or discarded. Held for 0.5-1sec at only one item at a time.

Short Term Memory:
holding up to seven items at once for up to thirty seconds, primarily acoustic & almost error free.

Long Term Memory:
ranging from minutes to infinity it is susceptible to error & relies on associating new information to existing information. It consists of three parts.
Episodic - in which past events have occurred along with their outcomes.
Semantic - in which meanings to symbols, codes or words are stored.
Motor skills – which retains complex individual tasks linked through training & practice become skills. Any errors in motor skills are in the initiation not the execution

73
Q

What is the relationship between rate and range of mental processing and stress?

A

The rate of information processing actually increases under stress, however the range of attention [the number of individual items included in the attention span] decreases.

74
Q

What is the difference between selective and divided attention?

A

Selective attention applies when all of our attention is focused on those input data which are specific to the particular task at hand to the exclusion of any irrelevant data. Even when we operate in this selective attention mode we are still surprisingly sensitive to information which is relevant to us even though we may not be focused on its source. The ‘cocktail party effect’ describes the phenomenon which allows us to ‘prick our ears’ whenever we hear our name mentioned in background chatter even when we are preoccupied with another activity. This effect allows us to respond to our call sign on the radio in spite of having to deal with other unrelated tasles. When under stress we tend to resort to selective attention mode and deal with each item before moving on to the next. This is sometimes called selective sequential attention.

Divided attention applies when the situation requires us to perform separate tasks simultaneously. During a landing we must remain aware of our height above the ground, the direction of the aircraft, the wind component and the airspeed displayed in the cockpit. This requires our attention to be divided and is usually accomplished by scanning rapidly from one item to the next. This mode is sometimes described as divided sequential. Once again the process of selective or divided attention depends largely on our spare mental capacity. If during a landing, too much attention is paid to the airspeed indication, the chances are that errors in direction, height, or allowing for wind will occur.

75
Q

What are the eight types of personalities?

A

Stable: consistent & unaffected by circumstances

Anxious: unpredictable, easily affected by circumstance

Introvert: Quiet & shy

Extrovert: impacting strongly on others

Stable extrovert: cheerful – Sanguine

Anxious extrovert: hot tempered – Choleric

Anxious introvert: moody, sad – Melancholic

Stable introvert: cool, self-assured – Phlegmatic

76
Q

What is meant by person and goal oriented?

A

Another way to define personality types is in terms of the desire to achieve goals [goal directed] and the desire to fit in with a team and keep other members of the team happy [person directed]. Some personalities have agreat determination to achieve a goal but show little regard for the feelings of others involved [G+P- types]. Others are so conceded with keeping everybody happy that they are prepared to compromise their goals [P+G- types]. Ideally pilots will be G+P+ types. A Good captain will be just as concerned with maintaining the respect and cooperation of the crew as he/she is with achieving high operating standards.

77
Q

What are the eight hazardous attitudes?

A

Anti-Authority: contempt for all regulation

Deference: defers to other opinions, no initiative, never own fault.

Impulsive: Take action without considering consequences.

Invulnerability: “it can‟t happen to me”

Macho: “there‟s nothing I can’t do”

Resignation: unwillingness to take control of a situation.

Pride: not be allowed to interfere with learning from experience & wisdom.

Peer pressure: same as pride

78
Q

What are the steps involved in information processing for human behaviour?

A

Sensation: light-eye-optic nerve-brain

Perception: brain perceives image

Decision: long term memory – decision

Response: initiate action

79
Q

What is motivation?

A

A desire to participate and achieve

80
Q

What is an attitude?

A

Actions in response to feelings based on beliefs

81
Q

How does the mental capacity of a human mind work?

A

It can only process one item at a time. Monitor multiple skills at a time. Scan between each task. If items become too complex then it drops items from cycle.

82
Q

What is maslows hierarchy of needs?

A

Physiological Needs – Safety & Security – Belonging & Affection – Self Esteem

83
Q

What is hertzbergs two factor theory?

A

His Two-Factor Theory proposes that the factors that motivate individuals to perform in their job are different to the factors that cause job dissatisfaction. He found that the motivating factors were the ones higher up in Maslow’s hierarchy such as achievement, advancement, recognition, responsibility and the nature of the job itself. Job dissatisfaction on the other hand bad causes further down in the hierarchy. He called these hygiene factors such as staff relations, company personnel policy, salary, security andworking conditions. An interesting consequence ofthis is that, since the factors are different, it ispossible for an individual to remain highly motivated even though he/she may be dissatisfied with the job. It is also possible that an individual may be satisfied with the job even though he/she is not motivated to improve performance. Also two people may behave in the same way while being motivated by quite different factors.

84
Q

What is the relationship between stress, arousal and performance?

A

Arousal: max performance at moderate arousal. More challenge - more arousal. When too aroused we become anxious then stressed.

Stress: Hypothalamus – stimulates pituitary – secretes hormones – adrenaline gland releases adrenaline – heat rate increases – blood pressure rises – blood from skin & digestive

85
Q

What is a mind-set?

A

A function in which the brain believes what it wants to believe. The long term memory associates information with that from sensory and short term memory and draws a conclusion without assessing all the information.

The following steps should be followed in problem solving.

Consider the facts - What’s going on?

Do not attempt to act until you are certain that you understand the situation. Remember that there are many quirks of perception that can cloud your situational awareness. Be sure that the real situation is fully understood. Many an accident has occurred because the pilot never did examine all of the clues before deciding what the problem was.

Define the problem - What’s causing it?

In the light of the available facts be sure that you have correctly identified the problem. There is often more than one problem capable of generating a given set of symptoms. In-flight vibration could be caused by a problem with the propeller, the engine/s or the airframe.

Consider solutions - What am I going to do about it?

Having identified the problem, be careful that you choose the most appropriate solution. Remember that there is often more than one solution for a particular problem. The first solution that comes to mind is not necessarily the best.

Take each of the possible solutions and try them - Act.

Now that you have decided on a solution - do it!

Consider the result - Did it work?

If the action did not produce the required result, be prepared to repeat the process. If the action did achieve the desired result, is there anything you can do to improve on it next time?

86
Q

How can memory recall be improved?

A

Consolidation of items into the long term memory can be enhanced if the item can be readily associated with other items already existing there. It is difficult to remember or recall unrelated facts which do not have any logical base.

However if these facts can be associated with an often repeated phrase or pattern of words, recall becomes easy.

Ithas been shown that the quality ofrecall isfarbetter for those items which are associated with positive emotions.

Material that was learned in a pleasant environment under happy circumstances finds its way into the long term

memory much more readily than that associated with unpleasant or stressful circumstances. Also we better remem-

ber material which isleamed in alogical order, where each item is anatural flow-on from those previously leamed.

Proceedfrom the known to the unknown -from the simple to the complex.

87
Q

What is meant by risky shift?

A

Pilots are more cautious when alone. Two or more pilots take assurance from each other & venture outside comfort zone.

88
Q

What situations will likely result in a false hypothesis?

A

High expectancy

Diverted attention- When the pilot is preoccupied with one problem, a false assumption is made about the status of other systems.
When it serves as a defence, This involves accepting the assumption which promises the happiest outcome and ignoring or evading the truth. A Pilot accepts any evidence that the weather is likely to improve while rejecting any evidence to the contrary.

Following a period of high concentration. After coping with a demanding or dangerous in-flight situation there is a tendency to relax

As a result of the effects of a motor memory, An action involving the operation of a lever or switch which select the wrong one or operates it in the incorrect sense.

Environmental capture. When a particular action or motor skill is always associated with a particular environment or phase of flight, it is possible to assume that that action or motor skill has been carried out simply because we are now in the phase of flight that is usually associated with it. Students are often taught to check ‘mixture rich’, ‘pitch fine’ and ‘gear green’ once the aircraft is established on final. The victim of environmental capture calls ‘rich, fine and green’ simply because he/she has rolled out of the turn onto final without giving any conscious attention to the actual position of any of these controls.

89
Q

What types of errors are there?

A

Systematic Error. In this case the error occurs with a definite pattern. All other elements of the task are error free, but an error occurs regularly in one particular element. Once identified, systematic errors can usually be easily remedied because there is likely to be one particular fault in the process.

Example: All elements of the circuits flown by apre-solo student pilot are ofaconsistently good standard except that every round-out and hold-off is too high. Once it is recognised that the same error is occurring consistently, the insturctor begins to look for a single cause. He discovers that the student is looking in the wrong place at this point. The student changes the system accordingly and the error vanishes.

Random error. Random errors occur without any specific pattern. Each time the task is performed an error occurs at a different stage and may or may not be repeated on the next try, Random errors are usually an indication that either the system is too complex causing an overload of mental capacity, or the person performing the task has not grasped the basic fundamentals and needs retraining - especially in the basics.

Example: Apre-solo student pilot makes inconsistent errors during circuit flying. The approach is too slow on one occasion and too fast on another. The round-out is too high on one landing and too late on another. On one take-off he forgets to retract the flaps; on another he forgets the fuel pump; one circuit is too wide while the next is too close.

Sporadic error. This is by far the most difficult error to remedy. All elements of the task are performed satisfactorily almost all of the time. But occasionally a serious error is made in one element that has been performed correctly anumber of times previously.

Example: This time the pre-solo student pilot has just flown a really good session of circuits to the point where the instructor is about to get out and send him on his first solo. The instructor decides to do just one more circuit and on this occasion the student loses all interest in airspeed on late final to the point where the instructor has to take over and apply power to save the situation. Errors of this nature can sometimes have an emotional cause.

90
Q

On average, after how long will it take before vigilance decreases significantly?

A

30 minutes

91
Q

What is the relationship between experience and accidents?

A

Handling errors reduce with experience but judgement errors almost stay the same

92
Q

Identify the difference between rule and knowledge based behaviour?

A

Rule-based behaviours are not motor programs but are stored asaset or rules in the long term memory. They are actioned as a deliberate conscious set of actions and monitored by the short term [working] memory which ticks off each item as it is carried out. Eg. SOP

Knowledge-based behaviour. This can be thought of simply as thinking and reasoning. The pilot makes decisions based on a knowledge of all of the facts and these decisions are not in any way related to previously existing rules

93
Q

Why is situational awareness important?

A

Situational awareness. A pilot’s actions must be dictated by an awareness of the situation that exists. This awareness depends upon collecting all of the relevant facts before making an operational decision. Tony Wilson in his book ‘Air Craft - Human Performance & Limitations’ summarises it nicely by what he calls the ‘PILOT’ model.

P……….Probe the facts. [Gather all of the information available].

I……….Identify the problem. [Having gathered all of the information, decide what the problem is].

L………Look for solutions. [With the problem in mind, make aplan to remedy it].

O………Operate. [Implement your plan].

T……….Take stock. [Monitor the situation and decide ifthe action you took worked. Ifnot, go back to ‘P’].

94
Q

What is arousal?

A

Arousal: max performance at moderate arousal. More challenge - more arousal. When too aroused we become anxious then stressed.

The bodily process for stress is: Hypothalamus – stimulates pituitary – secretes hormones – adrenaline gland releases adrenaline – heat rate increases – blood pressure rises – blood from skin & digestive system to muscles – respiration increases to provide max oxygen flow to lungs.

95
Q

What are types of stress and mental, physical, emotional and behavioural indicators?

A

Stress: as stress increases so does the rate of information processing, however attention range decreases.

Selective Attention: all attention is focused on input data specific to the task at hand & excludes irrelevant data.

Chronic Stress: job or lifestyle related

Acute Stress: related to particular circumstance

Mental indicators: mental blocks, forgetfulness, inability to concentrate, reluctant to make decisions.

Physical Indicators: high pulse, dry mouth, hot flushes, profuse sweating, asthma, rashes, ulcers, body pains, headaches, heart disease.

Emotional Indicators: Apathy, Depression, worthlessness, weariness, anxiety, frustration, guilt, moody, temperamental

Behavioural Indicators: heavy alcohol/drug intake, overeating, smoking, loss of interest in work, nervous voice/laughter, fidgeting, restless, not listening.

Stressors: events or situations which cause stress, related to change, good or bad

96
Q

What are the stages of coping with stress?

A

The first stage is alarm.
In this stage all of the psychological and physiological symptoms of the ‘fight or flight’ response are easily identifiable. Put simply the subjects are just plain terrified!

The second stage is resistance.
Once the subjects have accepted that the situation cannot be avoided, the feelings of fear give way to acceptance and behaviour settles down to a ‘plateau’ of reasonable performance and, at least outwardly, a resistance against ‘giving in’ to the situation. This is evident in the behaviour of ‘battle-hardened’ troops, or the air force mess hall songs of World WarII.

The third stage is collapse. It seems that during the resistance stage, the body is burning up its physical and psychological reserves.

Finally even the toughest individual finds these reserves exhausted and can no longer endure the stress. The symptoms of chronic stress appear with the subject experiencing constant physical exhaustion, anxiety and severe depression.

97
Q

What are coping strategies for stress?

A

Action coping - Escapism. This involves taking action such as removing the source of the stress or removing one’s self from the stressful situation. There may be circumstances where removal from the situation [ie changing jobs, changing address, getting a divorce] is the only realistic alternative.

Cognitive coping -Mind over matter. This involves rationalisation along with intellectual or emotional detachment from the situation. It Includes such strategies as counselling which can help put things into a better perspective.

Symptom-directed coping
This may include seeking professional help including prescription drugs or simply the use of recreational drugs such as alcohol, tea or coffee. Exercise and meditation also fall into the category of symptom-directed stress management.

Stress levels can be dramatically lowered simply by talking to someone about the stressors. The worst thing you can do is internalise your feelings and continue to deny that stress is ‘getting to you’. Identify the stressors and put them in perspective. Quite often the perceived threat is grossly exaggerated. Elevate your self image by keeping a positive outlook and maintaining a good level of physical fitness.

The three areas ofyour life that should be investigated [and modified] when addressing the problems of stress are behaviour; attitude and fitness.

98
Q

List some physical stressors

A

noise, temperature, hunger & thirst, vibration, etc.

99
Q

What is the difference between acute and chronic fatigue?

A

Acute: Long day. Can’t think clearly, monotonous & complex tasks will be affected before motor programs & sensory perceptions. Alleviated by sleep.

Chronic: Job or lifestyle. Loss of appetite, insomnia, tenseness, depression. Alleviated by common sense. Sleep, relax, diet & fitness.

100
Q

What are the stages of sleep?

A

Beta – awake, Alpha – quiet rest before sleep, Stage 1 – slow eye rolling, Stage 2 – half way through sleep cycle, Stage 3 – 90mins to pass all four, Stage 4 – REM (vivid dreaming), back to stage 1.

101
Q

How long is a cycle in the circadian rhythm?

A

25 hours

102
Q

Describe the concept of the sleep/wake cycle

A

1 hour asleep = +2 points, 1 hour awake = -1 point. Max 16 points

103
Q

Define the following sleep disorders

Insomnia
Apnoea
Somnambulism
Narcolepsy

A

Insomnia is the inability to get to sleep even when the body is out of sleep credits and conditions are favourable. This condition is known as clinical insomnia. When the inability to get to sleep is related to an obvious environmental factors such as jet lag, disrupted work cycles or simply an uncomfortable bed or excessive noise, it is known as situational insomnia.

Apnoea – stop breathing.

Somnambulism – Sleep walking.

Narcolepsy – always sleep.

104
Q

It is generally accepted that, to be of any benefit, a nap should have a duration of at least how long?

A

10-15 minutes

105
Q

Is drinking alcohol to sleep a good method to use?

A

Although alcohol is widely used as an aid to sleep it should be remembered that alcohol induced sleep is not normal sleep. REM sleep is greatly reduced during such sleep and there is a likelihood of waking early after poor quality sleep.

106
Q

What is transmeridian desynchronism?

A

Jet lag. Peaks in performance on the circadian rhythm are out of sync with the new local time zone.

The body will slowly adjust to the new time zone at an average rate of about one to one and a half hours per day.

Travel east, body must advance rhythm
Travel west, body must retard rhythm

107
Q

What is the lapse in performance standards which occurs daily in mid aftemoon is known as?

A

The post prandial dip

108
Q

Tasks become more likely to be affected by fatigue as they become what?

A

More monotonous or complex

109
Q

How should controls be designed?

A

They should operate in natural sense, be balanced and provide feedback

110
Q

What is a safety belt for?

A

Preventing serious injury or death from a survivable crash. The human body can withstand up to 20G for 0.2 seconds.

111
Q

How many G’s will an inertia reel allow slack for?

A

About 1

112
Q

Where should a pilot’s eye height be when flying?

A

The pilots eye position should ensure that a distance equal to 3 seconds at the approach speed is visible beyond the cut-off point and within the 1200 metre visibility limit.

113
Q

What are static and dynamic displays?

A

Dynamic displays show data which changes such as engine and aircraft performance.

Static displays are that which don’t change such as placards, graphs, tables, etc.

114
Q

What warnings are the most efficient?

A

Descriptive audio is best as it reduces the decision making process to Sensation- Response.

Bells and horns advise that there is a problem.

Lights do the same but divert attention

115
Q

What is a HUD?

A

A collimated image focused to infinity on an angled piece of glass.

116
Q

There are three types of dynamic information displays, what are their advantages?

A

Linear Strip Displays: monitor performance of several similar systems. Pointer movement more obvious than card movement.

Digital: more accurate value than analogue – longer to read

Analogue: Direction & rate of change

117
Q

List examples of external communication factors?

A

noise, distraction of busy work environment, unfamiliar accent, discomfort, poor enunciation

118
Q

What are examples of internal communication factors?

A

Internal factors are mainly associated with the perception of what is said.

Expectancy is the main internal factor.

119
Q

What are good aids to effective communication?

A

standard phrases, think before speak, control pace & clarity, clear & deliberate

120
Q

What are the three kinds of authority gradients?

A

Shallow – never takes command,

Correct- takes command, involves F/O, Steep – F/O does not contribute

121
Q

What is meant by push and pull in communication?

A

Push: express an opinion, state a fact or belief, give commands or orders, present own side of negotiations

Pull: ask, request, propose or invite

122
Q

What is the difference between authority and leadership?

A

Leadership is acquired whereas authority is assigned

123
Q

What is a leader?

A

A Leader in a given situation is a person whose ideas and actions influence the thought and behaviour of others.
He/she is an agent of change and influence.
He/she uses example and persuasion, combined with a personal understanding of the goals and desires of the group he/she happens to be leading as well as those of the employer.
He/she feels responsible for trying to implement these goals. High levels of skill demonstrated in his/her own job ensures the respect of the group.

A good leader will have the P+G+ type personality.

In summary a good leader should:

Lead by example. Set high standards ofperfonnance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance.

Advise intent. Communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions explaining the reasons for not implementing the ideas of others. Having made the decision, summarise the proposed course of action but don’t allow debate on it.

Delegate. Delegate appropriate duties to team members to allow time for the leader to perform
a monitoring or supervising role.

Motivate. One of the most effective means of motivation is to offer praise for good .performance [positive reinforcement].

Consult. Involve the team in most decision making processes. For example the captain asks the first
officer for his opinion, then makes the final decision.

Set priorities. The most efficient use of resources is achieved when energy is directed to tasks in a logical order ofpriority. Most students have heard it summed up by the slogan ‘aviate, navigate, communicate

124
Q

What is the two communication rule?

A

To enhance meaningful communication on the flight deck, some airlines use the two communication rule. This requires aresponse from each crew member to each communication directed at him/her. This technique ensures that important observations are acknowledged and brought into the consciousness of the team, to be either discarded or acted upon. If a response is not made to a communication directed at a flying crew member then the comment is repeated once more. If no response is forthcoming, the non-flying pilot takes over.

125
Q

What is a threat?

A

A threat is an event or situation occurring outside the control of the flight crew that has the potential to negatively affect the safety of a flight or any influence which promotes opportunity for pilot error.

External Threats:

Environmental
(operational pressures, terrain, thunderstorms, icing, etc., signage, birds, airspace, communication problems)

Operational
(operational Pressure, Aircraft Malfunctions, Maintenance Error, Ground handling Error, etc.)

Internal Threats: pilot fatigue, health, fitness, recency, proficiency, experience, personality, team familiarity, distractions, stress

Threats can be Anticipated (weather, heavy traffic, terrain, etc.), Unexpected (distractions, diversions, etc.) and Latent.

Expected
– Requires development of reasonable plan beforehand
- self briefing
– Consideration of differences to plan if threat materializes
(Forecast meteorological conditions, NOTAMS, etc.)

Unexpected
– Relies on broad skill and knowledge base - Core – Development of transferable skills
– Use of General models and procedures
» Aviate – Navigate – Communicate – Administrate
» GRADE – model of decision-making
» Satisficing – ‘near enough’
» Trial and Error – activate a plan and update as required
(System failure, blocked runway, etc.)

Latent threats are often operational (fatigue, maintenance, poor design, optical illusions)

126
Q

What is an error?

A

An error is a pilot action or inaction that leads to a deviation from crew or organisational intention/expectations; reduces safety margins & increases probability of adverse operational events on ground & in flight.

Proficiency - tracking, profile, height, speed, power, technique, over/undershoot. Semantic- definite pattern.

Random – no specific pattern. Sporadic – one off.

Handling errors are more common with less experienced pilots; however judgement errors are constant throughout.

Procedural: checklists, holding points, calculations, track & height limitations.

Communication: non-standard phraseology, poor radio reception, rapid speech.

Intentional non-compliance errors (violations): intentional and conscious violations of SOPs or regulations, including shortcuts or omission of required briefings or checklists.

Operational decision errors: discretionary decisions not covered by regulation and procedure that unnecessarily increases risk. Examples include extreme manoeuvres on approach, choosing to fly into adverse weather, or over- reliance on automation

127
Q

What is an undesired aircraft state?

A

A UAS is a flight condition, attitude or configuration which was not intended by the pilot or appropriate to that phase of flight.

Ground Navigational UAS: taxiing too fast, wrong RWY/TWY

Aircraft Handling: too fast/slow on final, inability to maintain altitude or heading in S &L

Aircraft Configuration: incorrect A/P mode, programming of GPS, fuel distribution, weight distribution, inappropriate flap

128
Q

What is a countermeasure?

A

An action or system directed to avoiding or reducing the impact of a threat, error or UAS.

i.e.
Systems
stall warning, enunciator panels, ACAS, GPWS,

Actions
SOP‟s, checklists, briefing,

Countermeasures
skill, knowledge, attitude, airmanship.

129
Q

What are the three error responses?

A

Trap: the error is detected and managed before it becomes consequential,

Exacerbate: the error is detected but the crew’s action or inaction leads to a negative outcome,

Fail to respond: the crew fails to react to the error either because it is undetected or ignored

130
Q

What are the three response outcomes from an error?

A

Inconsequential: the error has no effect on the safe completion of the flight, or was made irrelevant by successful cockpit crew error management. This is the most common outcome, a fact that is illustrative of the robust nature of the aviation system.

Undesired aircraft state: is defined as a position, condition or attitude of an aircraft that clearly reduces safety margins and is a result of actions by the flight crew. The error results in the aircraft being unnecessarily placed in a condition that increases risk. This includes incorrect vertical or lateral navigation, unstable approaches, low fuel state, lining up for wrong runway and reduced separation.

Additional Error: An error by the flight crew that now needs to be managed

131
Q

What are the three responses to UASs

A

Mitigated
Exacerbated
Fail to respond: flight crew failure to respond to the situation

132
Q

What are the three outcomes from a UAS.

A

Recovery: is an outcome that indicates the risk has been managed

Additional error: the actions initiate a new cycle of error and management

Crew-based incident or accident

133
Q

What are the three types of countermeasures?

A

planning countermeasures:
including flight planning, briefing, and contingency planning;

execution countermeasures:
including monitoring, cross-checking, workload and systems management; and

review countermeasures:
including evaluating and modifying plans as the flight proceeds, and inquiry and assertiveness to identify and address issues in a timely way.