IFR Flight Plan/Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless:

A

Filed an IFR flight plan

Received appropriate ATC clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Can you fly IFR in uncontrolled airspace without a flight plan or clearance?

A

Yes, it is legal.

Once you are airborne you must remain in uncontrolled airspace until you file a flight plan and get an ATC clearance to enter the controlled airspace

91.173

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Benefits of an instrument rating?

A

Class A airspace

Fly in IMC

File an IFR flight plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How can you file an IFR flight plan?

A

FSS - by phone or 1-800-WX-BRIEF

ForeFlight

Over the radio on RCO frequencies

With ATC over the radio or phone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should you file your flight plan?

A

File at least 30 minutes prior to estimated departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can you cancel your flight plan?

A

Towered airports automatically cancel for you

Non-towered you need to contact ATC to cancel by radio or phone

Can cancel anytime in flight if out of IMC and not in Class A airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do you need to file an alternate?

A

A destination alternate is always required UNLESS

An instrument approach is published and available for the destination AND

Ceiling is at least 2000’ one hour before to one hour after ETA AND

Visibility is at least 3sm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the minimum weather requirements to list an airport as an alternate?

A

Precision approach - 600ft ceiling and 2sm visibility

Non-Precision approach - 800ft ceiling and 2sm visibility

No instrument approach - ceiling and visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IFR Crusing Altitudes

A

0-179 ODD thousands

180-359 EVEN thousands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IFR takeoff minimums

A

No T/O minimums prescribed for part 91 operations

Part 121, 125, 129, 135 T/O mins are as follows

Prescribed T/O mins for the runway, or:

1-2 engines airplanes: 1sm visibility

More than 2 engines: 1/2sm visibility

T in a black triangle - non standard takeoff and departure procedures

A in a black triangle - non standard IFR alternate minimums exist

A in a black triangle with NA - alternate minimums not authorized due to unmonitored facility or the absence of weather reporting service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Departure procedures

A

Either textual or graphical

Ensures obstacle clearance, provided:

The airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet AGL

Reaches 400ft AGL before turning and climbs at least 200 feet per NM or as published otherwise on the chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the FPNM to fpm conversion?

A

fpm = FPNM * groundspeed / 60

FPNM is normally 200 unless stated otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When are pilots encourage to file a DP (departure procedure) ?

A

Pilots are encouraged to file a DP at night, during VMC or IMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two types of Departure Procedures?

A

Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)

Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What’s an ODP?

A

Provides only obstacle clearance

Graphic ODP’s will have “(obstacle)” printed in the chart title

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What’s a SID?

A

Standard Instrument Departure

In addition to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearance and minimizing radio communications

Some SID’s may depict special radio failure procedures

17
Q

Are you required to accept a DP?

A

No, to avoid receiving one, state “NO SID’s” in remarks section of flight plan

Transition routes connect the end of the basic SID procedure to the en route structure

18
Q

IFR Departure Clearance

CRAFT

A

Clearance limit

Route

Altitude

Frequency

Transponder

19
Q

What is clearance void time?

A

The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff.

You must notify ATC within 30 minutes after the void time if you did not depart

20
Q

“Hold for release”

A

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure

21
Q

Release time

A

Earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR

22
Q

Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)

A

A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports.

Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT

23
Q

What’s a Standard Terminal Arrival?

STAR

A

Serves as a transition between the en route structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made

Transition routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure

Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins

You can state “NO STAR’s” in remarks to avoid getting one

RNAV STARs require RNAV1 performance

24
Q

IFR Altitudes

91.177

A

Except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below:

Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none:

Mountainous areas: 2,000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4nm from the course

Non-mountainous areas: 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within 4nm from the course