IERW Flashcards
You have been asked to take parachutists to the highest possible altitude for a HALO jump. You have no onboard oxygen, to what altitude may you take them?
13,999’ as long as time above 12,000’ PA remains shorter than 30 minutes and time above 10,000’PA is shorter than one hour.
>14k’ for any amount of time requires oxygen
At what altitude must all occupants of an on pressurized army aircraft use oxygen?
14,000 feet and above
What are the VFR and IFR reserve requirements?
VFR-20 minutes at cruise
IFR- 30 minutes at cruise
In order to fly under VFR rules, destination weather must be forecast to be greater than or equal to VFR minimums at ETA through_______.
One hour after ETA
What are the SVFR minima for army helicopters?
1/2 SM and CC
What is the weather forecast void time?
One hour 30 minutes from time received if aircraft has not taken off
What is the minimum altitude for crossing wildlife refuge areas?
2,000’ AGL
Above what altitude does the cruising altitude rule begin?
3,000’ AGL
On a magnetic course of 0° through 179° what altitudes or observed?
VFR
Any odd thousand altitude +500 feet
(3,500’ / 5,500’ / etc.)
On a magnetic course of 180° through 359° what altitudes are observed?
VFR
Any even thousand altitude +500 feet
(4,500’ / 6,500’ / etc.)
Describe Class A airspace
-not depicted on charts
-18k’ up to FL60
-extends 12NM from land
-must operate IFR
-no visibility or cloud clearance requirements
Describe Class B airspace
-solid blue line
-dimensions as depicted on charts
-requires clearance to enter, Mode-S / ADS-B
-3SM vis and CC
Describe Class C airspace
-Solid magenta line
-SFC - 4,000’
-shelf of Class C is 1,200’-4,000’
-requires contact but not clearance to enter
-3SM vis, basic CC (152)
Describe Class D airspace
-Dashed Blue line
-SFC -2,500’
-2 way radio required
-3SM and basic CC (152)
Describe Class E airspace
-Dashed magenta line
-SFC - ♾ or other airspace
-no operating requirements
Below 10,000’:
3SM, basic cloud clearance
Above 10,000’:
5SM, 1,000’ above and below, 1SM lateral clearance
Describe Class G airspace
-no chart depiction
-no operating requirements
Below 1200’ AGL regardless of MSL altitude:
1/2 SM Day, 1SM night SKC
Above 1,200’ AGL but below 10,000’ MSL:
1SM day, 3SM night, basic cloud clearance (152)
Above 1,200’ AGL and 10,000’ MSL:
5SM, 1,000’ above and below, 1SM lateral clearance (day and night)
Where can you find information to break down a METAR?
Section C of the flight information handbook
What does the transponder code 7600 signify?
Lost commo
In what section would you find the information about FLIP and NOTAM abbreviations In the flight information handbook (FIH)?
F
What does the symbol (B) under the airport name proceeding a runway indicate?
Rotating beacon is available and operates sunset to sunrise
What is the revision cycle for DoD FLIP: General Planning?
32 weeks
Which publication gives supplemental information about a nations air space and aviation procedures?
Area Planning
Where can the index for aeronautical information be found?
Chapter 1 general planning
What aircraft identification code is used for an army helicopter when submitting a DD form 1801 flight plan?
R and last five digits
What are the four main items found in a TLA?
-Radar instrument approach minimum’s
-Instrument approach procedures
-Standard instrument departures
-Airport diagrams
How are distances depicted in the TLA/TPP?
NM unless otherwise stated
What does the abbreviation VASI stand for?
Visual approach slope indicator
What are the six aircraft approach categories published for IFR landing minima?
ABC DE and copter
What are the different sections on an approach chart?
Top margin, pilot briefing, plan view, profile view, airport sketch, bottom margin
The two main navigation systems used by army aviators are?
Ground based and space based
What are the three classes of VORs?
What are their normal range at 1000 feet AGL?
T- 25NM
L- 40NM
HA- 40NM
GPS is composed of what three major segments?
Space, control, and user
What are the two instrument departure procedures that are contained in the TLA and TPP?
SID, ODP
What are the standard US Army takeoff minimum for an army aviator who Has logged 50 hours or more of actual weather time as a pilot in command?
None or non-standard minimums
What are the standard US Army takeoff minimum for an army aviator who has logged less than 50 hours of actual weather time as a pilot in command?
100 foot ceiling and 1/4 statute miles
What are the three fundamental skills of instrument flying?
Cross check, instrument interpretation, aircraft control
What are the three types of crosschecking (scanning) errors?
Fixation, omission, emphasis
Define settling with power
A condition of powered flight in which a helicopter settles in its own downwash
List three conditions required for dynamic roll over to occur
Establishing a pivot point initiating a rolling motion and exceeding critical angle
What type of drag decreases with an increase in Airspeed?
Induced
What type of drag increases with an increase in airspeed?
Parasitic
Define dissymmetry of lift
2 halves of a rotor disc producing unequal lift between advancing and retreating halves
Which forces in the lift equation can the pilot control?
Airspeed and angle of attack
Define induced flow
The downward airflow at the center of pressure perpendicular to relative wind
Define resultant relative wind
The sum forces of relative wind and induced flow
What is the difference between angle of incidence and angle of attack?
Angle of incidence is the angle between the chord line and the rotational relative wind.
Angle of attack is the angle between the chord line and the resultant relative wind
What is atmospheric pressure?
The force exerted by the weight of the column of air
What is the standard temperature laps rate with altitude?
-2°C per thousand feet
A change in 1 inch of mercury pressure is equal to approximately how many feet of altitude?
1000
A change of .15 inches of mercury pressure is equal to how many feet?
150
What is the maximum allowable error in the altimeter?
75 feet
What does GCA stand for and what is the primary source of guidance?
Ground controlled approach, radar
On the final approach course of an ASR, how often must you hear from the final controller?
Every 15 seconds
When being vectored to the final approach course of a PAR or ASR how often must be received ATC transmissions?
Every 60 seconds
On the final approach course of a PAR, how often do you hear from the final controller?
Every five seconds
What’s the four conditions necessary for the formation of fog
-Small temperature dewpoint spread
-light surface wind
-abundant condensation nuclei
-cooling lane surfaces with warm air above
What are the dissipation factors of fog?
Heating, strong wind, and greenhouse effect
What type of frontal thunderstorms would match the definition of a severe line of thunderstorms that form ahead of a fast-moving cold front?
Squall line
What factors are needed for thunderstorm to form?
Unstable air, small temperature and dewpoint spread, lifting action
How do you know the cumulus stage has ended and mature stage has begun in a cloud?
Precipitation starts
The primary cause of frontal weather is:
The lifting of warm air by colder air
Where is the coldest air in relation to a cold front?
In front/ahead
The weather associated with a stationary front will normally be similar to what kind of front?
Warm front
What type of front develops when the faster moving cold front of a frontal wave catches up with a slower moving warm front of the wave?
Frontal occlusion
What type of front is considered to have the most violent weather?
A frontal occlusion
The basic characteristics of any air mass are:
Moisture and temperature
What are the four types of heat transfer
Radiation, conduction, convection, advection
Air being lifted over a mountain range will cool on the Windward side and heat up as it moves down slope on the Leeward side. This temperature change is a result of the:
Adiabatic process
When the word Nimbus is added to the names of the cloud, it means that:
Some form of precipitation is associated with the cloud
