ID - QUIZ Flashcards

1
Q

rabbits

A

tularemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bird poop

A

histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ticks (2)

A

Lyme, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mosquitoes

A

malaria, dengue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

painful genital ulcers

A

chancroid, herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

painless genital ulcers

A

syphilis, granuloma inguinale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

definition of AIDS

A

CD4 count below 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

classic defining AIDS illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

P. carinii pneumonia

A

classic defining AIDS illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

india ink stain

A

cryptococcosis/cryptococcal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

purulent penile discharge, dysuria

A

gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

top 3 causes of community-acquired pneumonia (Polito)

A

S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
M. catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

top 3 causes of acute bacterial meningitis (Polito)

A

N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

top 2 causes of subacute meningitis (Polito)

A

M. tuberculosis

C. neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most frequent cause of uncomplicated UTI

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

acid-fast bacilli stain

A

Mycobacteria - TB, leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cold agglutinin test

A

M. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

bilateral fluffy whiteness throughout chest x-ray

A

PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 most common bacteria causing diarrhea in U.S.

A

Shigella
Salmonella
Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

string test

A

giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

treatment for PCP

A

bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

thick and thin blood smear

A

malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most common space-occupying lesion in HIV

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

progressive retinitis

A

AIDS - cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
antibiotic with highest incidence of C. diff after taking
ciprofloxacin
26
tests required to diagnose HIV
ELISA then Western Blot
27
floppy/flaccid vs. rigid/stiff/spasms
botulism vs. tetanus
28
treatment for cryptococcal meningitis
fluconazole
29
snails
schistosomiasis
30
T. solium
cysticercosis; pork tapeworm infection
31
undercooked pork
trichinosis or cysticercosis/pork tapeworm infection
32
itchy serpiginous tracks on hands or feet
cutaneous larva migrans
33
nocturnal perianal pruritis
pinworm
34
general treatments for parasitic infection
albendazole | mebendazole
35
contact with infected birds
psittacosis
36
Janeway lesions, Osler nodes
endocarditis
37
splinter hemorrhages
endocarditis
38
Janeway lesions are (painful, painless) and (palpable, nonpalpable)
no pain, not palpable
39
Osler nodes are (painful, painless) and (palpable, nonpalpable)
pain, palpable
40
common cause of diarrhea in AIDS
cryptosporidiosis
41
temperature-pulse dissociation (4)
psittacosis brucellosis Legionella factitious fever
42
varicella can turn into what? (not thinking of shingles)
varicella pneumonia
43
complication of mumps
orchitis & infertility
44
where does secondary syphilis give you a rash?
palms & soles
45
slapped cheek appearance
fifth disease
46
Lyme disease rash
erythema migrans - advancing border of erythema around tick bite
47
Donovan bodies on wright stain
granuloma inguinale
48
condyloma lata
secondary syphilis
49
criteria for SIRS
``` temp high or low tachycardia tachypnea arterial CO2 low WBC high or low or high bands ```
50
EGDT
fluids for CVP vasopressors for MAP PRBC and dobutamine for O2 pressure urinary output > 0.5 mL/kg/hr
51
What makes atypical pneumonia atypical?
``` young adults no chills no consolidation on xray no productive cough rales & rhonchi ```
52
cellulitis usually caused by
GABS, S. aureus
53
most difficult-to-treat anaerobe
B. fragilis
54
amber crust
impetigo
55
cellulitis on face
erysipelas
56
causes gas gangrene
usually clostridial
57
likely bacteria in necrotizing fasciitis
GABS, anaerobes such as C. perfringens
58
most common cause of osteomyelitis
S. aureus
59
these test results are elevated in osteomyelitis
ESR, CRP
60
7 things that can cause non-bacterial infection arthritis
``` parvovirus B19 rubella hep B, C EBV mycobacteria coccidioidomycosis Lyme disease ```
61
HHV 8
Kaposi sarcoma
62
virus of oral hairy leukoplakia
EBV
63
Who shouldn't get live virus vaccines?
immunocompromised
64
6 live virus vaccines
``` influenza varicella, zoster MMR rotavirus yellow fever ```
65
syphilis screening
VDRL, RPR
66
syphilis confirmation
FTA-ABS or MHA-TP fluorescent treponema antibody absorption test microhemagglutination treponemal test
67
NRTI side effects
neuropathy pancreatitis liver toxicity
68
PI side effects
elevated cholesterol/triglycerides | fat redistribution
69
NNRTI side effects
hypersensitivity reactions | hepatotoxicity
70
entry inhibitor side effects
well-tolerated; injection site issues
71
3 highest risk factors for endocarditis
artificial valve previous endocarditis complex congenital defects/repairs
72
moderate risk for endocarditis
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy | mitral prolapse & regurgitation
73
who should receive antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis?
only those at highest risk
74
for what procedures is antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?
dental procedures with gingival manipulation, perforation of oral mucosa. NOT for GU or GI procedures. Maybe in high risk pregnancy before vaginal delivery
75
oseltamivir, zanamivir
give in first 48 hours to immunosuppressed/at-risk patients for flu reduces duration of symptoms don't give zanamivir if asthma (bronchospasm risk) oseltamivir can be used in babies; zanamivir 5+
76
amantadine, rimantidine
only influenza A lots of resistance amantadine also Parkinson's
77
ribavirin
has potential to treat flu in patients with resistance to other drugs but safety & efficacy not established