Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clin Med part II > ID - QUIZ > Flashcards

ID - QUIZ Flashcards

1
Q

rabbits

A

tularemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bird poop

A

histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ticks (2)

A

Lyme, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mosquitoes

A

malaria, dengue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

painful genital ulcers

A

chancroid, herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

painless genital ulcers

A

syphilis, granuloma inguinale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

definition of AIDS

A

CD4 count below 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

classic defining AIDS illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

P. carinii pneumonia

A

classic defining AIDS illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

india ink stain

A

cryptococcosis/cryptococcal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

purulent penile discharge, dysuria

A

gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

top 3 causes of community-acquired pneumonia (Polito)

A

S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
M. catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

top 3 causes of acute bacterial meningitis (Polito)

A

N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

top 2 causes of subacute meningitis (Polito)

A

M. tuberculosis

C. neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most frequent cause of uncomplicated UTI

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

acid-fast bacilli stain

A

Mycobacteria - TB, leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cold agglutinin test

A

M. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

bilateral fluffy whiteness throughout chest x-ray

A

PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 most common bacteria causing diarrhea in U.S.

A

Shigella
Salmonella
Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

string test

A

giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

treatment for PCP

A

bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

thick and thin blood smear

A

malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most common space-occupying lesion in HIV

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

progressive retinitis

A

AIDS - cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

antibiotic with highest incidence of C. diff after taking

A

ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

tests required to diagnose HIV

A

ELISA then Western Blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

floppy/flaccid vs. rigid/stiff/spasms

A

botulism vs. tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

treatment for cryptococcal meningitis

A

fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

snails

A

schistosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T. solium

A

cysticercosis; pork tapeworm infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

undercooked pork

A

trichinosis or cysticercosis/pork tapeworm infection

32
Q

itchy serpiginous tracks on hands or feet

A

cutaneous larva migrans

33
Q

nocturnal perianal pruritis

A

pinworm

34
Q

general treatments for parasitic infection

A

albendazole

mebendazole

35
Q

contact with infected birds

A

psittacosis

36
Q

Janeway lesions, Osler nodes

A

endocarditis

37
Q

splinter hemorrhages

A

endocarditis

38
Q

Janeway lesions are (painful, painless) and (palpable, nonpalpable)

A

no pain, not palpable

39
Q

Osler nodes are (painful, painless) and (palpable, nonpalpable)

A

pain, palpable

40
Q

common cause of diarrhea in AIDS

A

cryptosporidiosis

41
Q

temperature-pulse dissociation (4)

A

psittacosis
brucellosis
Legionella
factitious fever

42
Q

varicella can turn into what? (not thinking of shingles)

A

varicella pneumonia

43
Q

complication of mumps

A

orchitis & infertility

44
Q

where does secondary syphilis give you a rash?

A

palms & soles

45
Q

slapped cheek appearance

A

fifth disease

46
Q

Lyme disease rash

A

erythema migrans - advancing border of erythema around tick bite

47
Q

Donovan bodies on wright stain

A

granuloma inguinale

48
Q

condyloma lata

A

secondary syphilis

49
Q

criteria for SIRS

A 
temp high or low
tachycardia
tachypnea
arterial CO2 low
WBC high or low or high bands
50
Q

EGDT

A

fluids for CVP
vasopressors for MAP
PRBC and dobutamine for O2 pressure
urinary output > 0.5 mL/kg/hr

51
Q

What makes atypical pneumonia atypical?

A 
young adults
no chills
no consolidation on xray
no productive cough
rales & rhonchi
52
Q

cellulitis usually caused by

A

GABS, S. aureus

53
Q

most difficult-to-treat anaerobe

A

B. fragilis

54
Q

amber crust

A

impetigo

55
Q

cellulitis on face

A

erysipelas

56
Q

causes gas gangrene

A

usually clostridial

57
Q

likely bacteria in necrotizing fasciitis

A

GABS, anaerobes such as C. perfringens

58
Q

most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

S. aureus

59
Q

these test results are elevated in osteomyelitis

A

ESR, CRP

60
Q

7 things that can cause non-bacterial infection arthritis

A 
parvovirus B19
rubella
hep B, C
EBV
mycobacteria
coccidioidomycosis
Lyme disease
61
Q

HHV 8

A

Kaposi sarcoma

62
Q

virus of oral hairy leukoplakia

A

EBV

63
Q

Who shouldn’t get live virus vaccines?

A

immunocompromised

64
Q

6 live virus vaccines

A 
influenza
varicella, zoster
MMR
rotavirus
yellow fever
65
Q

syphilis screening

A

VDRL, RPR

66
Q

syphilis confirmation

A

FTA-ABS or MHA-TP
fluorescent treponema antibody absorption test
microhemagglutination treponemal test

67
Q

NRTI side effects

A

neuropathy
pancreatitis
liver toxicity

68
Q

PI side effects

A

elevated cholesterol/triglycerides

fat redistribution

69
Q

NNRTI side effects

A

hypersensitivity reactions

hepatotoxicity

70
Q

entry inhibitor side effects

A

well-tolerated; injection site issues

71
Q

3 highest risk factors for endocarditis

A

artificial valve
previous endocarditis
complex congenital defects/repairs

72
Q

moderate risk for endocarditis

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

mitral prolapse & regurgitation

73
Q

who should receive antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis?

A

only those at highest risk

74
Q

for what procedures is antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?

A

dental procedures with gingival manipulation, perforation of oral mucosa. NOT for GU or GI procedures. Maybe in high risk pregnancy before vaginal delivery

75
Q

oseltamivir, zanamivir

A

give in first 48 hours to immunosuppressed/at-risk patients for flu
reduces duration of symptoms
don’t give zanamivir if asthma (bronchospasm risk)
oseltamivir can be used in babies; zanamivir 5+

76
Q

amantadine, rimantidine

A

only influenza A
lots of resistance
amantadine also Parkinson’s

77
Q

ribavirin

A

has potential to treat flu in patients with resistance to other drugs but safety & efficacy not established

Clin Med part II (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions