Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GRACE Phase 2a Medicine > ICS - Immunology > Flashcards

ICS - Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Innate immunity characteristics

A
  • Non-specific
  • Rapid response
  • No memory
  • Phagocytic cells (neutrophils, macrophages)
  • Complement system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adaptive immunity characteristics

A
  • Specific
  • Slower response
  • Immunological memory
  • B and T cells
  • Antibodies involved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neutrophils

A
  • 65% of WBC
  • Life-span 6hrs - 12 days
  • Intracellular granules - primary lysosomes and secondary granules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do the two types of granules in neutrophils contain?

A
  1. Primary lysosomes - myeloperoxidase, etc., combine with phagosomes containing microbes to digest them
  2. Secondary granules - lactoferrin and lysozymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Monocytes

A
  • 5% of blood
  • Lifespan - months
  • Differentiate –> macrophages in tissue
  • Role - remove anything foreign
  • Have lysosomes containing peroxidase that can kill microbes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Macrophages

A
  • Lifespan - months/years
  • e.g. Kupffer cells, microglia
  • Role - remove foreign microbes
  • Have lysosomes that contain peroxidase and can kill microbes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Eosinophils

A
  • Make up 5% of the blood
  • Lifespan - 8-12 days
  • Associated with parasitic infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Basophils

A
  • 2% of WBC
  • Lifespan - 2 days
  • Express high affinity IgE receptors, binding to which results in de-granulation, releasing histamine, involved in allergic phenomena
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mast cells

A
  • Only in tissues, v. similar to basophils

- Express high affinity IgE receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T lymphocytes - types

A
  1. T helper - CD4+, help B cells produce antibodies, activate macrophages, help development of T cytotoxic cells
  2. T cytotoxic - CD8+, kill cells directly
  3. T regulatory - regulates immune response, dampens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

B lymphocytes

A
  • Originate and mature in bone marrow
  • Express membrane bound antibody on cell surface
  • Differentiates into plasma cell that can make antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Natural killer cells

A
  • Express CD56
  • Found in spleen and tissues
  • Kill virus infected cells adn tumour cells by apoptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dendritic cells

A
  • Detect foreign pathogens, ingest and display piece of pathogen on surface
  • Induce immune response in the inactive/ resting T cells
  • Produce cytokines, etc. to induce B cells
  • Found in tissue that has contact with the outside environment, e.g. skin, stomach, intestines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complement

A

complex series of interacting plasma proteins which form a major effector system for antibody-mediated immune reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which organ produces the proteins in the complement cascade?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Opsonisation

A

Identifying the invading particle to the phagocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Purpose of the complement cascade?

A

To remove/ destroy an antigen either directly by lysis or by opsonisation, increase chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

3 complement activation pathways

A
  1. Classical
  2. Alternative
  3. Lectin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Classical complement pathway

A

Antigen-antibody immune complexes. When IgM or IgG binds to antigen, causes shape change and allows to bind with first component of the pathways (C1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Alternative complement pathway

A

Complement binds directly to microbe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lectin complement pathway

A

Initiated by mannose-binding lectin (MBL) binds to mannose on the pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pattern recognition receptors (PRR)

A

Proteins capable of recognising molecules frequently found in pathogens, two types:

  1. Secreted and circulating, e.g. lectins
  2. Cell bound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do PRRs recgonise?

A

PAMPs and DAMPs (pathogen/damage associated molecular patterns) that are found on microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Role of MHC (major histocompatibility complex)

A

Bind peptide fragments derived from pathogens and display them on the cell surface for recognition by appropriate T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Antibody

A

protein produced in response to an antigen, only binds with the antigen that induced its formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Antigen

A

A molecule that reacts with preformed antibody and specific receptors on T or B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Epitope

A

Part of the antigen that binds to the antibody/receptor binding site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Affinity

A

Measure of the binding strength between an epitope and an antibody binding site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Soluble antibodies =

A

Immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

5 classes of Ig

A

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

IgG

A
  • Majority of immunoglobulins (70-75%)
  • Penetrates tissue easily
  • Only Ig to cross the placenta and provide immune protection to the neonate
  • Important in secondary/memory responses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

IgA

A
  • 15% of Ig

- Predominant Ig in mucous secretions such as saliva, colostrum, milk, bronchiolar and GU secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

IgM

A
  • 10% of Ig
  • Mainly found in the blood (large, difficult to cross endothelium)
  • Involved in primary response, inital contact with antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

IgE

A
  • Basophils and mast cells express IgE receptors
  • Binding antigen triggers release of histamine
  • Associated with allergic response and defence against parasitic infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

IgD

A
  • Expressed on naive B cells, acts as a B cell antigen receptor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cytokines

A

Soluble proteins secreted by lymphocytes or macrophages/monocytes that act as stimulatory or inhibitory signals between cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cytokines that act between cells of the IMMUNE SYSTEM =

A

Interleukins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cytokines that induce chemotaxis of leukocytes (WBC) =

A

chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Common features of ALL cytokines?

A
  • Short half-lives
  • Rapid degradation
  • May affect multiple organs in the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Interferons

A

Induce a state of antiviral resistance in uninfected cells and limit the spread of viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Colony stimulating factor (CSF)

A

Involved in directing the division and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells (precursors of leukocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Physical and chemical barriers of innate immunity

A

Skin, mucous membranes (saliva, tears, mucous secretions, cilia), pH (gastric acidity kills microbes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MHC I

A
  • Intracellular, i.e. virus
  • Found on the surface of virtually ALL cells of the body except RBCs
  • Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+) require an antigen to be associate with class I MHC proteins before they kill the cell containing the intracellular pathogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MHC II

A
  • Extracellular, i.e. phagocytosis
  • Found mainly on the surface of macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells (antigen presenting cells)
  • Helper T cells (CD4+) require MHC II proteins before they help B cells to make antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Complement potent in opsonisation?

A

C3b

46
Q

B cell activation

A
  • Activated upon binding with antigen which is presented on their surface via MHC II
  • Activated B cell binds to T helper (CD4) cell via the MHC II complex, inducing the B cell to divide by clonal expansion (occurs in the lymph nodes)
  • B cells differentiate then into plasma and memory cells
47
Q

Secreted and circulating PRRs

A
  • Antimicrobial peptides secreted in lining fluids from epithelia
  • Lectins and collectins - activate complement, improve phagocytosis
48
Q

Cell-associated PRRs

A
  • Receptors present on cell membranes or in the cytoplasm

- TLRs (toll-like receptors) are the main family

49
Q

Clinical indications related to allergy?

A
  • epithelial (eczema, itching, etc)
  • excessive mucus production
  • airway constriction
  • abdominal bloating
  • anaphylaxis
50
Q

Atopy

A

Inherited tendency to overproduce IgE antibodies to common environmental antigens

51
Q

High affinity IgE receptor expressing cells

A

Eosinophils, mast cells (tissue), basophils

52
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

A

anaphylaxis, production of IgE antibodies

53
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

A

antibody binds to antigen on target cell (cytotoxic) –> phagocytosis, e.g. Goodpasture’s syndrome

54
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

A

deposition of antibody-antigen complexes e.g. Farmer’s lung

55
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

A

Activate T lymphocytes, pronounced secretion of cytokines, delayed, e.g. contact dermatitis

56
Q

Define allergy

A

abnormal response to harmless foreign material

57
Q

Low affinity IgE receptor expressing cells

A

B cells, T cells, monocytes, eosinophils, platelets, neutrophils

58
Q

Function of low affinity IgE receptor expressing cells

A

Regulate IgE synthesis, trigger cytokine release by monocytes

59
Q

Mast cells

A
  • Main effector cells for IgE- mediated immunity

- Immature mast cells circulate, mature mast cells reside in the tissues

60
Q

Indirect activators of mast cells (via IgE)

A
  • allergens e.g. wasp venom

- bacterial/viral antigens

61
Q

Direct activators of mast cells

A
  • Aspirin, preservatives

- Cold/mechanical deformation i.e. asthma

62
Q

Products of mast cells

A
  1. Histamine - arteriolar dilation, capillary leakage, bronchoconstriction
  2. Proteases e.g. tryptase
  3. Prostaglandin D2 - induces smooth muscle constriction
  4. Chemotactic factors
63
Q

What makes an allergen?

A

Particulate delivery of antigens

64
Q

Hallmarks of cancer

A
  • Growth self-sufficiency
  • Escape apoptosis
  • Ignore anti-proliferative signals
  • Limitless replication potential
  • Sustained angiogenesis
  • Invade tissues
  • Escape immune surveillance
65
Q

Cancer immuno-surverillance

A

Immune system can recognise and destroy nascent transformed cells, normal control

66
Q

Cancer immunoediting

A

Tumours tend to be genetically unstable, thus the immune system can kill and also induce changes in the tumour, resulting in tumour escape and recurrence

67
Q

Tumour antigens types

A

Tumour specific antigens (TSA) and tumour associated antigens (TAA)

68
Q

Tumour specific antigens (TSA)

A

Peptides on the surface of tumour cells, found ONLY on tumours, due to gene mutations, derived from viral antigens

69
Q

Tumour associated antigens (TAA)

A

On both normal AND tumour cells, but are OVEREXPRESSED on tumour cells

70
Q

Tumour escape

A

Immune responses change tumours such that tumours will no longer be seen by the immune system

71
Q

Immune evasion

A

tumours change the immune responses by promoting immune suppressor cells

72
Q

Cancer immunotherapy

A

To induce an immune response against the tumour that would discriminate between the tumour can normal cells

73
Q

Active immunotherapy

A

Vaccinations e.g. killed tumour vaccine, purified tumour antigens, etc.

74
Q

Passive immunotherapy

A
  • Adaptive cellular therapy (e.g. injecting T cells that recognise the tumour specific antigen to destroy the tumour)
  • Cell-based therapy (activate the patients immune system to attack the cancer)
75
Q

Tumour hypoxia

A
  • Hypoxia is a prominent feature of malignant tumours
  • Inability of the blood supply to keep up with the growing tumour cells
  • Hypoxic tumour cells adapt to low oxygen
76
Q

Why does tumour hypoxia = poor patient prognosis? (SSIR)

A
  • Stimulates new vessel growth
  • Suppressed immune system
  • Increased tumour hypoxia after therapy
  • Resistant to radio- and chemotherapy
77
Q

Passive immunisation

A

Short-term immunity which results from the introduction of antibodies from another person or animal

78
Q

Active immunisation

A

vaccines - antigenic substance prepared from the causative agent of a disease

79
Q

4 types of vaccine

A
  1. Live-attenuated
  2. Inactivated
  3. Subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide, conjugate
  4. Toxoid
80
Q

Examples of live-attenuated vaccines

A

MMR, smallpox, chickenpox, yellow fever, rotavirus

81
Q

Examples of inactivated vaccines

A

Hepatitis A, polio, rabies, flu

82
Q

Examples of subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide and conjugate vaccines (parts of the germ)

A

Hepatitis B, HPV, pneumococcal, meningococcal, shingles

83
Q

Examples of toxoid vaccines (respond to the toxins produced by the germs)

A

Diptheria, tetanus

84
Q

The complement pathway consists of proteins which conduct…

A

opsonisation, membrane attack complex (lysing microbes directly), enhancement of inflammation

85
Q

C3 is cleaved into

A

C3a and C3b

86
Q

C3b is potent in

A

opsonisation

87
Q

The different pathways in the complement system ultimately lead to the formation of

A

C3 convertase

88
Q

2 main intracellular granules in neutrophils?

A
  • Primary lysozymes (myeloperoxidase)

- Secondary lysozymes (lactoferrin and respiratory burst components)

89
Q

Function of macrophages

A

To remove anything foreign / dead

90
Q

Macrophages have lysosomes containing?

A

peroxidases

91
Q

What are dendritic cells?

A

Antigen-processing cells, act as messengers between the innate and adaptive immune system

92
Q

Two types of pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

A
  1. Secreted and circulating

2. Cell associated

93
Q

PRRs recognise

A

PAMPs or DAMPs (pathogen/damage associated molecular patterns)

94
Q

Secreted and circulating PRRs

A
  1. Antimicrobial peptides secreted in lining fluid of epithelia
  2. Lectins and collectins (carbohydrate containing proteins that bind to carbs/lipids in wall)
95
Q

Activate of toll-like receptors drive production of ?

A

Cytokines by antigen presenting cells (increasing likelihood of successful T cell activation)

96
Q

Where are TLRs found?

A

on macrophages, dendritic cells and neutrophils

97
Q

Main family of cell-associated PRRs?

A

Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

98
Q

Stages of vaccination

A
  1. Engage the innate immune system
  2. Danger signals that activate the immune system, triggers such as PAMPs
  3. Engage TLR receptors
  4. Activate specialist APC
  5. Engage the adaptive immune system (generate memory T and B cells, activate T cell help)
99
Q

What is an adjuvant?

A

Any substance added to a vaccine to stimulate the immune system (ensuring a powerful immune response)

100
Q

Examples of adjuvants

A

Whole killed organism, toxoids, proteins, chemicals

101
Q

Why do transplant organs pose a threat to the host immune system of the patient?

A

Presence of different major histocompatability antigens (MHA) on the surface of organs

102
Q

3 types of clinical organ transplant rejection

A

hyperacute, acute, chronic

103
Q

Which type of T cells are key to organ transplant rejection?

A

CD4+

104
Q

Two phases of the rejection process?

A

afferent phase, efferent phase

105
Q

Afferent phase of graft rejection

A

donor MHC molecules within the graft (organ) are recognised by the recipient CD4+ T cells

106
Q

Efferent phase of graft rejection

A

CD4+ T cells enter the graft and recruit effector cells responsible for the tissue damage of rejection - macrophages, CD8+ T cells, natural killer cells, B lymphocytes

107
Q

Most importnat cytokines in graft rejection?

A

interleukin-2 and interferon-gamma

108
Q

Not all parts of the graft need to be attacked for rejection to occur - critical targets are:

A

microvasculature, specialised parenchymal cells of the organ

109
Q

Preventing graft rejection

A

immunosuppresive drugs

110
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs

A
  1. Ciclosporin
  2. Azathioprine - inactive until metabolised by the liver, but then effects all dividing cells including lymphocytes by inhibiting their DNA synthesis

GRACE Phase 2a Medicine (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions