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3151 > IC18 > Flashcards

IC18 Flashcards

1
Q

Notification of STIs should be done within _____ of diagnosis

A

72h

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2
Q

Notification of STIs (excluding HIV/AIDS) is not meant for ______

A

case detection or contact tracing

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3
Q

Only demographic data (_______) for epidemiologic analysis is required

A

age, gender, ethnicity, nationality

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4
Q

________ is mandatory in HIV/AIDS

A

Partner notification

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5
Q

Which STI could spread during pregnancy to the child?

A

HIV, syphilis

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6
Q

Which STI could spread from mother to child during childbirth?

A

Chlamydia, gonorrhea, HSV

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7
Q

Which STI could spread from mother to child during breastfeeding?

A

HIV

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8
Q

Characteristic of Neisseria gonorhheae

A

intracellular gram- negative diplococci

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9
Q

Bacteria causing chlamydial infection

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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10
Q

Bacteria causing syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

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11
Q

What does treponemal test detect?

A

Treponemal antibody

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12
Q

Can treponemal test be used for monitoring?

A

No, as treponemal antibody be remain active for life

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13
Q

Frequency of Monitoring of VDRL/ RCR after syphilis therapy

A

3,6,12,18,24 OR 6,12,24 months

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14
Q

Monitoring for Neurosyphilis

A

CSF examination every 6 month until CSF normal

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15
Q

Virus causing genital herpes

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV-1 & HSV-2)

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16
Q

Most recurrent genital herpes are caused by _____

A

HSV-2

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17
Q

Mode of transmission for herpes

A

transfer of body fluids and intimate skin- to-skin contact

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18
Q

5 stages in HSV infection

A
  1. Primary mucocutaneous infection,
  2. infection of the nerve ganglia,
  3. establishment of latency,
  4. reactivation, and
  5. recurrent outbreaks/flairs
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19
Q

Benefits of acyclovir and valacyclovir

A

Reduce viral shedding, duration of symptoms & time to healing

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19
Q

Does antiviral tx for HSV prevent latency or affect frequency and severity of recurrent disease after drug is discontinued?

A

No

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20
Q

MOA for acyclovir

A

inhibits viral DNA polymerase → inhibits DNA synthesis and replication.

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21
Q

Valacyclovir is an ____ of acyclovir

A

L-valine ester

22
Q

Valacyclovir is rapidly and almost completely converted in man to _______.

A

acyclovir and valine

23
Q

For HIV, which population is mandated to be tested for HIV?

A

Pregnant women

24
Q

How does HIV enter CD4 cell?

A

Binds to CD4 receptor & one of the coreceptors CCR5 or CXCR4

25
Q

Definition of adequate CD4 response

A

increase in CD4 count in the range of 50 to 150 cells/mm3 during the first year of therapy

26
Q

Which NRTI can cause bone marrow suppression thus need to monitor FBC?

A

Zidovudine

27
Q

All NRTIs need to be adjusted in renal impairment except ____

A

abacavir

28
Q

Which NRTI could incr osteoporosis risk?

A

Tenofovir

29
Q

What is rilpivirine contraindicated with?

A

PPIs (oral absorption is reduced with increased gastric pH)

29
Q

What is rilpivirine contraindicated with?

A

PPIs (oral absorption is reduced with increased gastric pH)

30
Q

What is Atazanavir contraindicated with?

A

PPIs

31
Q

Definition of AIDS

A

CD4 < 200 / mm3

32
Q

Impact of bictegravir/ dolutegravir on SCr?

A

Increase as it blocks creatine secretion

33
Q

ADR for raltegravir

A

Pyrexia, rhabdomyolysis (incr creatine kinase)

34
Q

Examples of PK enhancers

A

ritonavir / cobicistat
(also cyp3A4 inhibitors)

35
Q

Which protease inhibitor is a sulfonamide hence has concern for SJS?

A

Darunavir

36
Q

Additional SE for ritonavir

A

Paresthesia (numbness of extremities), taste perversion

37
Q

What is Atazanavir contraindicated with?

A

PPIs

38
Q

Name 2 NNRTIs

A

Efavirenz, rilpivirine

39
Q

Which class do raltegravir, dolutegravir and bictegravir belong to?

A

INSTI

40
Q

ADR for efavirenz

A

Neuropsychiatric SE

41
Q

Adverse effect related to mitochondrial toxicity

A

Lactic acidosis and hepatic steatosis, lipoatrophy

42
Q

Example of fusion inhibitor

A

Enfuvirtide

43
Q

ADR for enfuvirtide

A

Injection site reaction

44
Q

Example of CCR5 antagonist

A

Maraviroc

45
Q

Test to do before initiating a CCR5 antagonist

A

co-receptor tropism assay

46
Q

Prodromal symptoms for HSV

A

mild burning, itching, or tingling

47
Q

Clinical presentation for HSV

A
  • classical painful multiple vesicular or ulcerative lesions
  • Also local itching, pain, tender inguinal lymphadenopathy
48
Q

Presence of HSV-2 antibody implies _______ infection

A

anogenital infection

49
Q

Two types of nontreponemal test

A
  • Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) slide test
  • Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) card test
50
Q

Counselling for acyclovir (HSV)

A

Take without regards to food, after food if GI upset. SE: Malaise, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea. Maintain adequate hydration to prevent crystallisation in renal tubules

51
Q

Counselling for valacyclovir (HSV)

A

Take without regards to food, after food if GI upset. SE: headache. Maintain adequate hydration to prevent crystallisation in renal tubules

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