hypercalcaemia and acute uremia Flashcards

1
Q

what is the normal albumin correctedd serum calcium level ?

A

8-10 mg/dl
equivalent to
2-2.5 mmol/l

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2
Q

most common cause of hypercalcemia in hospitalized patients ?

A

malignancy

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3
Q

how is the corrected calcium level calculated ?

A

0.8 x ( normal albumin level - patients albumin level ) + serum calcium level

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4
Q

what is the normal albumin level ?

A

4 mg/dl

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5
Q

3 main broad reasons for hypercalcemia ?

A

gastrointestinal absorption
renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
increased bone resorption

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6
Q

what are the levels of hypercalcaemia ?

A

mild: 10-12 mg/dl
moderate: 12-14 mg/dl symptoms start from here
severe: more than 14 mg/dl

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7
Q

clinical manifeestations of hypercalcaemia ?

A

stones : nephrolithiasis
bones : bone pain
groans : abdominal pain , myalgia , arthralgia
psychic overtones : confusion, anxiety, depression

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8
Q

most common cause of hypercalcemia in patients with non metastatic solid tumors and NHL ?

A

tumor secretion of parathyroid hormone

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9
Q

what are the other 2 mechanisms associated with hypercalcemia?

A

osteolytic metastasis with local release of cytokines
tumor production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol)

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10
Q

what is the other term used to refer to thee mechanism of parathyroid hormone release by tumors ?

A

humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy

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11
Q

what are the typical lab findings in HHM ?

A

increased s.PTHrP
very low or suppressed serum intact PTH
normal to low serum 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D

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12
Q

what are the typical findings in patients with osteolytic metastases ?

A

low or suppressed PTH
Low or normal PTHrP
Low or normal serum 1,25 vit d

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13
Q

what is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in lymphomas ?

A

1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D production
acting by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium

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14
Q

patient presents with hypercalcemia and is given glucocorticoids and responds well to it - what was the most likely mechanism of hypercalcemia ?

A

1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D production

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15
Q

what is the role of FGF23 in hypercalcaemia ?

A

FGF23 inhibits renal phosphate reabsorption
increasing the conservation of calcium

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16
Q

what drugs are associated with hypercalcemia ?

A

lithium
calcium supp
thiazide and diuretics

17
Q

initial and first line of treatment of hypercalcemia ?

A

hydration with crystalloid IV fluid
patients with overall fluid overload - use a loop diuretic

18
Q

type of biphosphonate used to inhibit bone resorption ?

A

zoledronate

19
Q

what is thee management for hypercalcemia that is refractory to ZA ?

A

denosumab
or if the patient is allergic or has renal failure , denosumab can be used

20
Q

what is the second line treatment for hypercalcemia ?

A

calcitonin

21
Q

when should dialysis be considered ?

A

when hypercalcemia is accompanied by renal failure

22
Q

classification of urological obstruction?

A

low - obstruction at the level of the urethra prostate or bladder

high

23
Q

what are the symptoms associated with high UO vs low UO ?

A

high UO - presents with signs of uraemia
low UO - presents with signs of inability to urinate , or incontinence due to overflow of a full bladder

24
Q

what is the treatment for upper vs lower UO?

A

with high UO : if the cause is not reversible in the short term or if there is signs of severe renal failure - diveersion of the urinary tract is indicated

with Low UO : urinary foley catheter placement or a suprapubic tube if there is a tight urethral stricture

25
Q

how is a diagnosis of upper UO made ?

A

ultrasound first
followed by CT without contrast or MRI

26
Q

how is a diagnosis of Low UO made ?

A

suprapubic tenderness
ultrasound used to confirm the diagnosis if not clinically clear

27
Q

what are the two types of cystitis associated with cancer patients ?

A

radiation induced cystitis
chemotherapy induced cystitis

28
Q

what typee of raddiotherapy is associateedd withh RIC ?

A

EBRT / brachytherapy for pelvic neoplasms

29
Q

what are the different stages of damage associated with RIC ?

A

acute - 4 to 6 weeks
chronic - 6 months to 1 year
late - up to 10 years
after RTH

30
Q

what is the presentation of RIC ?

A

haematuria
burning
frequency
urgency
incontinence

31
Q

what is important to consider when confirming a diagnosis of RIC ?

A

based on clinical suspicion
confirmed through cystoscopy when needed
urine culture and cytology recommended to rule out other causes

32
Q

what is the treatment for RIC ?

A

placement of a urinary catheter with irrigation until the elimination of clots followed by normal saline bladder irrigation

33
Q

what chemotherapeutic agent causes cystitis ?

A

cyclophosphamide , due to acrolein

34
Q

what is the treatment for CIC ?

A

prevention is critical ass this is a preventable type
to prevent : vigorous IV hydration to reduce urine concentration of acrolein along with administration of MESNA to detoxify the acrolein

35
Q

clinical definition of acute renal failure ?

A

sudden decrease in GFR with an acute rise in blood urea nitrogen
and serum creatinine levels

36
Q

post renal failure cause ?

A

TLS
characterised by hypercalcemia , hyperuricemia , hyperphosphatemia and hyperkalemia

37
Q

most common cause of pre renal failure ?

A

hypoperfusion

38
Q

what are the available methods for urinary diversion in upper UO ?

A
  • 1) Placement of percutaneous nephrostomy tubes
  • 2) Addition of indwelling ureteral stents through cystoscopy
  • Devices need to be changed every 3– 6 months