Human A&P Flashcards

1
Q

[…] is formed from the effect of ultraviolet radiation on a cholesterol derivative in skin.

A

Vitamin D3 / Cholecalciferol

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2
Q

[…] is derived from plants or from pills.

A

Vitamin D2 / Ergocalciferol

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3
Q

Hydroxylation of vitamin D2 or D3 produces […] which stimulates intestinal absorption of calcium.

A

Calcitriol

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4
Q

The vascular junction between the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary.

A

Median Eminence

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5
Q

The stalk that contains the axons and blood vessels connecting the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary.

A

Infundibulum

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6
Q

Inhibits Growth Hormone.

A

Somatostatin

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7
Q

Inhibits Prolactin.

A

Dopamine

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8
Q

Converts Testosterone to Estradiol.

A

Aromatase

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9
Q

The innermost layer of the adrenal cortex ; secretes androgens and estrogens

A

Zona Reticularis

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10
Q

The middle layer of the adrenal cortex ; secretes glucocorticoids (cortisol)

A

Zona Fasciculata

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11
Q

The outermost layer of the adrenal cortex ; secretes mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)

A

Zona Glomerulosa

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12
Q

Wasting disorder that has symptoms linked Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone receptors

A

Cachexia

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13
Q

This amino acid is the derivative from which serotonin and melatonin form

A

Tryptophan

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14
Q

Stimulated by FSH and produce inhibin to regulate release of FSH

A

Sertoli cells

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15
Q

Produces testosterone in males, stimulated by LH

A

Leydig cells

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16
Q

The derivative from which beta-lipotropin, beta-endorphin, and ACTH form

A

POMC

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17
Q

The enzyme that converts Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II

A

ACE

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18
Q

What does renin cleave?

A

Angiotensinogen

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19
Q

This hormone inhibits aldosterone, decreases Na+ reabsorption, decreases BP, decreases water volume

A

ANP

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20
Q

The functional cells of the thyroid gland

A

Follicles

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21
Q

The protein-rich core found at the center of follicles in the thyroid gland

A

Colloid

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22
Q

The process of Na+ / I- cotransporters that bring iodine into the epithelial cells

A

Iodide

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23
Q

The I- / Cl- cotransporter that allows transportation of iodide into the colloid

A

Pendrin

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24
Q

The main protein within colloids that contains tyrosine residues attached to iodine

A

Thyroglobulin

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25
Q

The catecholamines and thyroid hormone are all derivatives of what amino acid?

A

Tyrosine

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26
Q

The creation of MIT and DIT is catalyzed by what enzyme?

A

Thyroid Peroxidase

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27
Q

Synthesized by attachment of two DITs, contains 4 iodine atoms, thyroid prohormone

A

T4

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28
Q

Synthesized by the attachment of an MIT and DIT, contains 3 iodine atoms, metabolically acitve & shortlived thyroid hormone

A

T3

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29
Q

This hormone has permissiveness that allows the function of epinephrine

A

Thyroid Hormone

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30
Q

This hormone has permissiveness that allows the function of epinephrine AND ADH

A

Cortisol

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31
Q

Stunted growth relating to hypothyroidism during development

A

Cretinism

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32
Q

Fast-adapting, surface level skin receptors that measure low frequency vibrations

A

Meissner’s corpuscle

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33
Q

Slow-adapting, surface level skin receptors that respond to light touch

A

Merkel’s corpuscle

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34
Q

The second deepest, slowly adaptive skin receptor monitoring vibrations & deeper pressure

A

Pacinian corpuscle

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35
Q

The deepest, slowly adaptive skin receptor monitoring stretch

A

Ruffini corpuscle

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36
Q

Monitor strength and rate of muscle stretch (proprioceptors)

A

Spindle Stretch Receptors

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37
Q

Monitor muscle tension (propriorceptors)

A

Golgi Tendon Organs

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38
Q

Awareness of body parts relative to each other and balance

A

Proprioception

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39
Q

Awareness of the body’s movement

A

Kinesthesia

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40
Q

Ion channel proteins that activate thermoreceptors and also respond to some ligands (menthol & capsaicin)

A

TRPPs

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41
Q

This enzyme is responsible for the conversion of epinephrine to norepinephrine

A

PNMT

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42
Q

This enzyme breaks down biogenic amines found in the synaptic cleft during the reuptake process

A

Monoamine oxidase

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43
Q

This derivative of dopamine is created from tyrosine as a precursor to dopamine

A

L-Dopa

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44
Q

The main receptors for serotonin

A

5hT

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45
Q

Many mood diseases are prevented by these drugs

A

SSRIs

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46
Q

The ability for synapses to change strength overtime

A

Synaptic Plasticity

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47
Q

The ability for neurons to change connections over the course of a lifetime

A

Neuronal Plasticity

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48
Q

These Na+ channels respond to glutamate by removing Mg2+ which allows them to also conduct Ca2+

A

NMDA

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49
Q

These Na+ channels exocytose as a cellular response to Ca2+ signal transduction activated by glutamate

A

AMPA

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50
Q

NMDA and AMPA channel pathways allow ease of stimulation for these connections in a process called […]?

A

Long Term Potentiation

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51
Q

A neurotoxin that inhibits glycine and causes hyperexcitability

A

Strychnine

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52
Q

Swellings along an axon that are possible areas of neurotransmitter release

A

Varicosities

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53
Q

Motor protein responsible for anterograde transport towards the axon terminal

A

Kinesin

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54
Q

Motor protein responsible for retrograde transport towards the soma

A

Dynein

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55
Q

Protein involved in microtubule transport along axons and misfolding is linked to Alzheimer’s

A

Tau

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56
Q

The misfolding of tau results in these structures which develop Alzheimer’s

A

Neurofibrillary Tangles

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57
Q

This enzyme is responsible for cleaving APP and forming extracellular beta amyloids

A

Secretase

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58
Q

These extracellular clumps aggregate, causing Alzheimer’s

A

Beta-Amyloids

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59
Q

These clumps form from the aggregation of Beta-amyloids and result in Alzheimer’s

A

Amyloid Plaques

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60
Q

This purine neurotransmitter is inhibitory and builds up overtime to cause sleepfulness ; inhibited by caffeine

A

Adenosine

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61
Q

This excitatory neurotransmitter causes quick response and partakes in the process of nociception

A

ATP

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62
Q

This neurotransmitter is released from the hypothalamus in very small doses and is extremely toxic in higher concentrations

A

Carbon Monoxide

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63
Q

This addictive lipid found in cannabis undergoes retrograde neurotransmission

A

THC

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64
Q

These receptors are found in the postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Muscarinic

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65
Q

These receptors are found in preganglionic neurons and skeletal muscle cells

A

Nicotinic

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66
Q

These receptors are found in the postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system

A

Adrenergic

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67
Q

This butterfly shaped column of gray matter is surrounded by the vertebral column

A

Spinal Cord

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68
Q

This sector of the spinal cord faces the front of the body

A

Dorsal Horns

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69
Q

This sector of the spinal cord faces the back of the body

A

Ventral Horns

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70
Q

This nerve transmits afferent and efferent neurons and diverges into the roots

A

Spinal Nerve

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71
Q

This tract carries transmission from afferent neurons and ascends the spinal cord for processing in the CNS

A

Dorsal Root

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72
Q

This tract carries transmission from efferent neurons away from the spinal cord for action in peripheral nerves

A

Ventral Root

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73
Q

The group of cell bodies along the dorsal root

A

Dorsal Root Ganglia

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74
Q

This disease not named Alzheimer’s is also linked with the formation of microfibrillary tangles

A

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy

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75
Q

A structure that consists of loosely arranged group of nuclei intermingled with bundles of axons that travel through the Medulla Oblongata and Pons

A

Reticular Formation

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76
Q

The lobe of the cerebral cortex that contains the auditory cortex and Wernicke’s Area

A

Temporal Lobe

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77
Q

The lobe of the cerebral cortex that contains the visual cortex

A

Occipital Lobe

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78
Q

The lobe of the cerebral cortex that contains the somatosensory cortex

A

Parietal Lobe

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79
Q

The lobe of the cerebral cortex that contains the prefrontal cortex and Broca’s area

A

Frontal Lobe

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80
Q

This condition describes inability of coordination and movements

A

Ataxia

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81
Q

This brain structure fine-tunes voluntary movements and maintains balance (proprioception)

A

Cerebellum

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82
Q

These common enucleated cells lack MHC I

A

Erythrocytes

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83
Q

These are the least common leukocytes in circulation

A

Basophils

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84
Q

The multipotent progenitor cells to all leukocytes

A

Hematopoietic stem cells

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85
Q

Somatic cells that have been reprogrammed into a state of being stem cells in humans

A

Induced Pluripotent stem cells

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86
Q

This autoimmune disease involves Type 4 Hypersensitivity and atrophy of the small intestine in response to gluten

A

Celiac Disease

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87
Q

This autoimmune disease involves Type 4 Hypersensitivity and destruction of oligodendrocytes in the CNS

A

Multiple Sclerosis

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88
Q

This autoimmune disease involves Type 4 Hypersensitivity and destruction of beta pancreatic islet cells

A

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

89
Q

This autoimmune disease involves Type 3 / Type 4 Hypersensitivty and deposition of antibody complexes in the joints

A

Rheuamtoid Arthritis

90
Q

This autoimmune disease involves Type 3 Hypersensitivity and deposition of antibody complexes across many different places including joints, skin, blood vessels, and all the major organs

A

Lupus

91
Q

This autoimmune disease involves Type 2 Hypersensitivity as antibodies block nicotinic receptors on the motor end plate of skeletal muscles

A

Myasthenia Gravis

92
Q

This signaling molecule secreted by macrophages activates Helper T cells and induces the acute phase response

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor alpha

93
Q

This signaling molecule secreted by antigen-presenting cells activates Helper-T cells and induces the acute phase response

A

Interleukin-1

94
Q

This signaling molecule secreted by Helper T cells activates Natural Killer cells and activated macrophages, the proliferation of Helper T cells (self), and the activation of B cells

A

Interleukin-2

95
Q

This type of rare sarcoma is more common in people with AIDS

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

96
Q

A condition where one is born without any lymphocytes

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency

97
Q

This antibody is responsible for detecting Rh factor, and crosses the placenta

A

IgG

98
Q

This antibody is responsible for detecting ABO surface proteins, is the first antibody expressed on an immature B cell, and is the first immunoglublin synthesized by a fetus after birth

A

IgM

99
Q

This structure holds together the dimer/trimer IgAs and pentamer IgMs

A

J-chain

100
Q

The two types of light chains are

A

Kappa and Lambda

101
Q

The protease Papain would cleave an IgG into these two fragments which bind to the antigen and cell respectively

A

Fab and Fc

102
Q

The Lymphoid organs found in the pharynx

A

Tonsils and Adenoids

103
Q

The openings in the pharynx to lymphoid organs that initiate antigen detection in food

A

Crypts

104
Q

Activation of this protein by IgG or IgM initiates the classical complementary pathway

A

C1

105
Q

This protein is cleaved in the complementary pathway as the main component

A

C3

106
Q

Cleaving of C3 produces this anaphylatoxin which recruits phagocytes

A

C3a

107
Q

Cleaving of C3 produces this fragment that results in formation of membrane attack complexes

A

C3b

108
Q

These two gasses are produced in the phagolysosome as antimicrobial agents

A

Nitric Oxide and Hydrogen Peroxide

109
Q

This disease is characterized by a deficiency in vitamin D in children

A

Rickets

110
Q

This disease is characterized by a deficiency in vitamin D as an adult

A

Osteomalacia

111
Q

This disease is characterized by excess parathyroid hormone

A

Osteoporosis

112
Q

These bone cells deposit cartilage

A

Chondrocytes

113
Q

The end of a bone

A

Epiphysis

114
Q

Swelling as a result of thyroid deficiency

A

Myxedema

115
Q

Soluble Dietary Fiber that is utilized for measuring GFR because it is not reabsorbed or secreted at all

A

Inulin

116
Q

Measures GFR but slightly overestimates because there is a slight amount of secretion

A

Creatinine

117
Q

Measures effective renal plasma flow because it’s completely cleared

A

Para-Ammunohipuric Acid

118
Q

These diuretics work by inhibiting the Na+ / K+ / 2 Cl- cotransporters in the Ascending Loop of Henle

A

Loop Diuretics

119
Q

These diuretics work by inhibtiing Na / Cl- cotransporters in the distal convoluted tubule

A

Thiazide Diuretics

120
Q

These diuretics work by inhibiting aldosterone

A

Potassium-Sparing Diuretics

121
Q

This hormone increases glomerular filtration rate by constricting the efferent arteriole

A

Angiotensin II

122
Q

This method of affecting GFR decreases GFR by constricting both afferent and arteriole but preferentially constricting the afferent arterioles

A

Sympathetic Innervation

123
Q

This hormone increases glomerular filtration rate by dilating afferent and constricting efferent

A

ANP

124
Q

These smooth muscle cells are found in the glomerular capillary wall and constrict them to affect glomerular filtration rate

A

Mesangial cells

125
Q

This term describes cells that manifest their own pacemaker potentials when the AV node is blocked

A

Ectopic Pacemakers

126
Q

These Na+ channels in nodal cells slowly open until threshold

A

F-Type Na+ channels

127
Q

These Ca2+ channels in nodal cells transiently open to reach threshold

A

T-Type Ca2+ channels

128
Q

These Ca2+ channels in cardiac cells open and maintain a depolarized state, causing a longer refractory period, preventing rapid repeated stimulations and prolonged contractions (tetanus)

A

L-Type Ca2+ channels

129
Q

These muscles ensure that valves open in a way that prevents backflow

A

Papillary Muscles

130
Q

These are fibrous attachments that attach valves to papillary muscles

A

Chordae Tendineae

131
Q

This valve connects the right ventricle and right atrium

A

Tricuspid valve

132
Q

This valve connects the left ventricle and left atrium

A

Mitral / Bicuspid valve

133
Q

These lipoproteins take up cholesterol and bring it to the liver, “good cholesterol”

A

HDLs

134
Q

These lipoproteins carry cholesterol from cells to the liver, may accidentally deposit in blood vessels when in excess, “bad cholesterol”

A

LDLs

135
Q

These lipoproteins carry triglycerides from livers to cells, they can be enriched in cholesterol and converted to LDLs

A

VLDLs

136
Q

Immature erythrocytes

A

Reticulocytes

137
Q

Most leaky channel

A

Potassium

138
Q

Three channels that affect membrane potential

A

Na+/K+ cotransporter, leaky K+, leaky Na+

139
Q

Resting membrane potential of potassium?

A

-90 mV

140
Q

Resting membrane potential of chlorine?

A

-75 mV

141
Q

Resting membrane potential of sodium?

A

+60 mv

142
Q

List all of the following that are higher inside the cell [sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, and magnesium]

A

K+ and Mg2+

143
Q

Which glial cells form tracks along which newly formed neurons migrate

A

Radial Glia

144
Q

Which two glial cells can act as stem cells?

A

Astrocytes and Radial Glia

145
Q

Which type of glia acts as a myelin sheath in the CNS

A

Oligodendrocyte

146
Q

Which type of glia acts as a myelin sheath in the PNS

A

Schwann cell

147
Q

Which type of glia is responsible for generating CSF

A

Ependymal cell

148
Q

Which type of glia is responsible for forming the blood-brain barrier?

A

Astrocytes

149
Q

Which type of glia are analogous to macrophages?

A

Microglia

150
Q

What is the term for demyelinated portions along an axon?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

151
Q

What is the term for the incremental action of action potentials jumping across Nodes of Ranvier?

A

Saltatory Conduction

152
Q

Which type of synapses are the most common?

A

Chemical Synapses

153
Q

Which type of synapses allow for graded potentials and summation?

A

Chemical Synapses

154
Q

Where does Ca2+ come in when at the end of the axon terminal?

A

Outside of the cell

155
Q

What activated protein induces fusion of the t-SNARE and v-SNARE complexes?

A

Synaptotagmins

156
Q

Which type of receptor has a delayed onset?

A

Metabotropic

157
Q

What type of receptors fire lots of action potentials at the start and respond quickly to the stimuli

A

Phasic

158
Q

What type of receptors fire action potentials and decrease slowly when the stimuli is taken away

A

Tonic

159
Q

Which two types of receptors have capsular endings and are unmyelinated?

A

Thermoreceptors and Nocireceptors

160
Q

What ion channels are utilized to activate thermoreceptors?

A

Transient Receptor Potential Proteins

161
Q

What type of mechanism amplifies the differences and emphasizes the primary point of action in a receptive field?

A

Lateral Inhibition

162
Q

What intermediate exists in between Arginine and Nitric Oxide?

A

Citrulline

163
Q

What plant-based compound activates nicotinic receptors?

A

Nicotine

164
Q

What fungal compound binds and activates muscarinic receptors?

A

Muscarine

165
Q

What molecule is utilized medically competitively inhibits acetylcholine in muscarinic receptors?

A

Atropine

166
Q

What Indian arrowhead poison causes flaccid paralysis by competitively inhibiting nicotinic receptors?

A

Curare

167
Q

What nerve agent breaks down acetylcholinesterase causing tetanic paralysis?

A

Sarin

168
Q

To what amino acid and functional group respectively on acetylcholinesterase does Sarin gas bind to?

A

Serine and Hydroxyl

169
Q

What bacteria destroys SNARE proteins in motor neurons, causing flaccid paralysis?

A

Clostridium Botulinum

170
Q

What bacteria destroys SNARE proteins in neurons that release inhibitory neurons, causing excessive contraction?

A

Clostridium Tetani

171
Q

What is the region for the cleft in between the motor neuron and muscle fiber?

A

Neuromuscular Junction

172
Q

The layers of connective tissue surrounding the brain

A

Meninges

173
Q

The hard outer layer meninge

A

Dura Mater

174
Q

The middle web-like layer meninge

A

Arachnoid Mater

175
Q

The fluid-filled cavity in between the Pia and Arachnoid Mater

A

Sub-Arachnoid Mater

176
Q

The thin layer adhering to the brain surface (innermost meninge)

A

Pia Mater

177
Q

The cavities in the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid

A

Ventricles

178
Q

The structure in the brain composed of ependymal cells and responsible for creating CSF

A

Choroid Plexus

179
Q

What kind of substances can travel through the BBB without transporters?

A

Hydrophobic

180
Q

How does lateralization between the two hemispheres occur?

A

Corpus Callosum

181
Q

Which brain hemisphere is responsible for logic, language processing, and analytical thinking

A

Left

182
Q

Which brain hemisphere is responsible for creativity, emotions, and awareness

A

Right

183
Q

The forebrain consists of which two embryonic brain tissue?

A

Telencephalon and Diencephalon

184
Q

The telencephalon consists of which four important structures?

A

Cerebral Cortex, Hippocampus, Basal Nuclei, and Amygdala

185
Q

The diencephalon consists of which three important structures?

A

Thalamus, Hypothalamus, and Retina

186
Q

The metencephalon develops into which two structures?

A

Cerebellum & Pons

187
Q

The myelencephalon develops into what structure?

A

Medulla Oblongata

188
Q

The mesencephalon develops into what structure?

A

Midbrain

189
Q

Which brain lobe is responsible for auditory processing

A

Temporal Lobe

190
Q

Which brain lobe is responsible for decision making and formation of speech?

A

Frontal Lobe

191
Q

Which brain lobe is responsible for visual processing?

A

Occipital Lobe

192
Q

Which brain lobe is responsible for movement?

A

Parietal Lobe

193
Q

What brain structure is responsible for storing short-term memory and integrating long-term memory?

A

Hippocampus

194
Q

What almond-shaped brain structure is responsible for emotional processing such as fear?

A

Amygdala

195
Q

What brain structure serves as a relays station for pretty much everything?

A

Thalamus

196
Q

Which brain structure is responsible for regulating homeostasis?

A

Hypothalamus

197
Q

Which brain structure contains the nucleus accumbens and striatum and is responsible for coordinating movement and happiness?

A

Basal Nuclei

198
Q

Which brain structure in the basal nuclei processes happiness?

A

Nucleus Accumbens

199
Q

Which brain structure in the basal nuclei interacts with the substantia nigra to coordinate movement?

A

Striatum

200
Q

Which brain structure in the midbrain regulates dopamine production?

A

Substantia nigra

201
Q

What region of the Substantia Nigra regulates motor control and sleep with the substantia nigra and is dysfunctional in Parkinsons?

A

Pars reticulata

202
Q

What region of the Substantia Nigra is involved in dopamine that causes pleasure?

A

Pars compacta

203
Q

What structure in the midbrain, when stimulated, generates feelings of pleasure?

A

Ventral Tegmental Area

204
Q

What kind of drug directly stimulates VTA cells?

A

Opioids

205
Q

What kind of drug inhibits reuptake of dopamine that activates VTA cells?

A

Amphetamines and Cocaine

206
Q

What kind of drug inhibits cells that regulate VTA cells?

A

Nicotine

207
Q

What kind of fibrous connective tissue connects muscles to bones

A

Tendons

208
Q

What kind of fibrous connective tissue connects two bones at joints

A

Ligaments

209
Q

What kind of fibers join connective tissue to adjacent tissue?

A

Reticular Fibers

210
Q

What kind of fibers increases elasticity in tissues?

A

Elastic Fibers

211
Q

What junctions relay signals between cardiac muscle cells?

A

Intercalated Disks

212
Q

What type of epithelial tissue is found on abrasive surfaces such as the outer skin, lips, and anus?

A

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

213
Q

What type of epithelium is found in areas of secretions such as kidney epithelium, and many exocrine and endocrine glands.

A

Cuboidal Epithelium

214
Q

What type of epithelium is found at places where simple diffusion occurs such as capillaries or alveoli?

A

Simple Squamous Epithelium

215
Q

What kind of ciliated epithelium is found at regions that have a mucous membrane, such as the respiratory tract?

A

Pseudostratified Columnar Epithelium

216
Q

What kind of epithelium lines area where absorption and digestion is important, such as the small intestines?

A

Simple Columnar Epithelium

217
Q

What kind of epithelium lines the urinary system?

A

Transitional Epithelium

218
Q
A