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Phar Review & Comprehensive Examination > Hospital Pharmacy > Flashcards

Hospital Pharmacy Flashcards

1
Q

What type of institution is typically equipped with at least six in-patient beds and provides diagnostic and therapeutic services?

A. Hospital
B. Laboratory
C. Health center
D. Clinic
E. Rehabilitation center

A

A. Hospital

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2
Q

Which of the following are functions of a hospital?

A. Patient care
B. Public health
C. Education
D. Research
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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3
Q

Which of the following tasks are typically performed by a hospital pharmacy in relation to drugs?

A. Procurement and storage
B. Compounding and dispensing
C. Manufacturing and testing
D. Packaging and distribution
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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4
Q

provides medical, comprehensive, preventive, rehabilitative, social, spiritual, and emotional in-patient care.

A. Long-term Healthcare facility
B. Resident Care Facility
C. Clinic or Infirmary
D. Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs)
E. Ambulatory surgery center

A

A. Long-term Healthcare facility

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5
Q

Px are seen by appointment and treated by group of doctors practicing together. Emergency services.

A. Long-term Healthcare facility
B. Resident Care Facility
C. Clinic or Infirmary
D. Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs)
E. Ambulatory surgery center

A

C. Clinic or Infirmary

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6
Q

Public/private organizations which provides special services.

A. Long-term Healthcare facility
B. Resident Care Facility
C. Clinic or Infirmary
D. Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs)
E. Ambulatory surgery center

A

D. Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs)

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7
Q

provides safe, hygienic & living arrangements for resident.

A. Long-term Healthcare facility
B. Resident Care Facility
C. Clinic or Infirmary
D. Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs)
E. Ambulatory surgery center

A

B. Resident Care Facility

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8
Q

A type of service which is nonselective, all type of medical condition

A. General
B. Special
C. Rehabilitation & Chronic Disease
D. Psychiatric
E. AOTA

A

A. General

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9
Q

Philippine General Hospital (PGH)

A. General
B. Special
C. Rehabilitation & Chronic Disease
D. Psychiatric
E. NOTA

A

A. General

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10
Q

A type of service on specified medical condition.

A. General
B. Special
C. Rehabilitation & Chronic Disease
D. Psychiatric
E. NOTA

A

B. Special

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11
Q

San Lazaro: communicable & infectious diseases

A. General
B. Special
C. Rehabilitation & Chronic Disease
D. Psychiatric
E. NOTA

A

B. Special

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12
Q

Fabella Memorial Hospital: OB-GYN; maternal & newborn

A. General
B. Special
C. Rehabilitation & Chronic Disease
D. Psychiatric
E. NOTA

A

B. Special

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13
Q

Philippine Orthopedic Center/ bone & neuromuscular conditions

A. General
B. Special
C. Rehabilitation & Chronic Disease
D. Psychiatric
E. NOTA

A

B. Special

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14
Q

A type of service on handicapped & disabled Px–> restorative & adjustive

A. General
B. Special
C. Rehabilitation & Chronic Disease
D. Psychiatric
E. NOTA

A

C. Rehabilitation & Chronic Disease

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15
Q

Psychiatric health service

A. General
B. Special
C. Rehabilitation & Chronic Disease
D. Psychiatric
E. NOTA

A

D. Psychiatric

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16
Q

less than 30 days

A. Long-term
B. Short-Term

A

B. Short-Term

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17
Q

morethan 30 days

A. Long-term
B. Short-Term

A

A. Long-term

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18
Q

Avoid emergence and establishment of social, economic, and cultural living patterns known to contribute to evaluate risks

A. Primordial Prevention
B. Primary Prevention
C. Secondary Prevention
D. Tertiary Prevention
E. NOTA

A

A. Primordial Prevention

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19
Q

Prevent onset and reduce incidence of disease (diagnostic, increase awareness) Specific protective measures:
• Occupational hazards protection
• Immunization
• Environmental sanitation

A. Primordial Prevention
B. Primary Prevention
C. Secondary Prevention
D. Tertiary Prevention
E. NOTA

A

B. Primary Prevention

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20
Q

Prevent development or progression of existing disease (i.e., early detection or screening and prompt treatment), reduce incidence and
prevalence
Ex. Early treatment of persons with infectious disease (2°) may protect others (1°)

A. Primordial Prevention
B. Primary Prevention
C. Secondary Prevention
D. Tertiary Prevention
E. NOTA

A

C. Secondary Prevention

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21
Q

Minimize consequence: disability and rehabilitation (prevent complications,
deterioration, and relapse)
* Manage long-term health problems
* Ex. Early physiotherapy to affected limb to restore motion

A. Primordial Prevention
B. Primary Prevention
C. Secondary Prevention
D. Tertiary Prevention
E. NOTA

A

D. Tertiary Prevention

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22
Q

• Provides primary care (minor surgery, general administrative services e.g., lab, x-ray, pharmacy)
• Minimal nursing care

A. Level 1 (Emergency Hospital)
B. Level 2 General care (Non-deparmentalized)
C. Level 3 Specialty Clinical care (Departmentalized)
D. Sub Specialty Clinical care ((Teaching & Training)
E. NOTA

A

A. Level 1 (Emergency Hospital)

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22
Q

• General medicine, anesthesia, obstetrics and gynecology, pedia, and ancillary services
• Level 1 Intermediate, moderate, and partial supervised care for >24h

A. Level 1: (Emergency Hospital)
B. Level 2: General care (Non-deparmentalized)
C. Level 3: Specialty Clinical care (Departmentalized)
D. Level 4: Sub Specialty Clinical care ((Teaching & Training)
E. NOTA

A

B. Level 2: General care (Non-deparmentalized)

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22
Q

• Level 2 + Specialty or intensive skilled care

A. Level 1: (Emergency Hospital)
B. Level 2: General care (Non-deparmentalized)
C. Level 3: Specialty Clinical care (Departmentalized)
D. Level 4: Sub Specialty Clinical care ((Teaching & Training)
E. NOTA

A

C. Level 3: Specialty Clinical care (Departmentalized)

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23
Q

• Level 3+ Subspecialty or highly skilled critical care

A. Level 1: (Emergency Hospital)
B. Level 2: General care (Non-deparmentalized)
C. Level 3: Specialty Clinical care (Departmentalized)
D. Level 4: Sub Specialty Clinical care ((Teaching & Training)
E. NOTA

A

D. Level 4: Sub Specialty Clinical care (Teaching & Training)

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24
Q

Policy makers; provides the overall vision and mission of hospital

A. Board of Director/ Trustees/Regents
B. Hospital Director
C. Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
D. Business Department
E. HC Department

A

A. Board of Director/ Trustees/Regents

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25
Q

Responsible for implementing directives of Board; manages all aspects of hospital operation.

A. Board of Director/ Trustees/Regents
B. Hospital Director
C. Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
D. Business Department
E. HC Department

A

B. Hospital Director

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26
Q

Liaison officer; responsible for day-to-day operations (assistant for administration)

A. Board of Director/ Trustees/Regents
B. Hospital Director
C. Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
D. Business Department
E. HC Department

A

C. Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

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27
Q

10 Supporting Services:

A

Anesthesia
Nursing Service
Dietary Service
Medical Record Service
Blood Bank
Central Supply Service
Pathology
Radiology
Pharmacy
Medical social Service

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28
Q

Professional services; private and charity provided and controlled by active staff.
• Ex. Associate staff, honorary staff, resident

A. Closed staff
B. Open staff

A

A. Closed staff

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29
Q

MD other than the active staff which are allowed to use facilities as long as they comply with rules and regulations
• Ex. Consultant, courtesy staff

A. Closed staff
B. Open staff

A

B. Open staff

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30
Q

Responsible for delivery of pre-ponderance of medical service; direct and regular patient care

A. Active or Attending staff
B. Associate Staff
C. Honorary staff
D. Resident
E. Courtesy staff
F. Consultant or Specialist

A

A. Active or Attending staff

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31
Q

Junior; being considered for advancement to active staff

A. Active or Attending staff
B. Associate Staff
C. Honorary staff
D. Resident
E. Courtesy staff
F. Consultant or Specialist

A

B. Associate Staff

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32
Q

Former/ retired/ emeritus practitioners; founders (honored due to outstanding contribution

A. Active or Attending staff
B. Associate Staff
C. Honorary staff
D. Resident
E. Courtesy staff
F. Consultant or Specialist

A

C. Honorary staff

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33
Q

Receiving specialized trainings after complete internship (full-time employee)

A. Active or Attending staff
B. Associate Staff
C. Honorary staff
D. Resident
E. Courtesy staff
F. Consultant or Specialist

A

D. Resident

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34
Q

Active staff adviser (of recognized professional ability - member of specialty organization), but not a staff member

A. Active or Attending staff
B. Associate Staff
C. Honorary staff
D. Resident
E. Courtesy staff
F. Consultant or Specialist

A

E. Courtesy staff

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35
Q

Given privileges to admit patient to hospital

A. Active or Attending staff
B. Associate Staff
C. Honorary staff
D. Resident
E. Courtesy staff
F. Consultant or Specialist

A

E. Courtesy staff

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36
Q

Review of drug products and guidelines in specific area of specialty (infectious disease, cardiology)

A. Drug Review Panels
B. Medication Safety
C. Medication Use Review
D. Procurement or Supply
E. NOTA

A

A. Drug Review Panels

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37
Q

Plans to optimize drug use

A. Drug Review Panels
B. Medication Safety
C. Medication Use Review
D. Procurement or Supply
E. NOTA

A

C. Medication Use Review

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38
Q

Review of ADRs and medication errors

A. Drug Review Panels
B. Medication Safety
C. Medication Use Review
D. Procurement or Supply
E. NOTA

A

B. Medication Safety

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39
Q

Sources and cost (cost-effective)

A. Drug Review Panels
B. Medication Safety
C. Medication Use Review
D. Procurement or Supply
E. NOTA

A

D. Procurement or Supply

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40
Q

Document that summarizes the pharmacological information of selected drugs (i.e., indications, dosage, length of treatment, interactions, precautions, contraindications).

A. Formulary System
B. Formulary Manual
C. Core or Main List
D. Complementary or Alternative List
E. Philippine National Formulary: Essential Medicines List

A

B. Formulary Manual

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41
Q

System of periodically evaluating and selecting medicines for formulary, maintaining the formulary, and providing information in suitable manual or list.

A. Formulary System
B. Formulary Manual
C. Core or Main List
D. Complementary or Alternative List
E. Philippine National Formulary: Essential Medicines List

A

A. Formulary System

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42
Q

For rare disorders and exceptional circumstances (used if unresponsive, allergic, or contraindicated to core drugs). Special pharmacologic properties (List A and B).

A. Formulary System
B. Formulary Manual
C. Core or Main List
D. Complementary or Alternative List
E. Philippine National Formulary: Essential Medicines List

A

D. Complementary or Alternative List

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43
Q

Drugs for the HC needs of majority of populations. Available at all times, in adequate amounts and in appropriate dosage forms at lowest possible cost.

A. Formulary System
B. Formulary Manual
C. Core or Main List
D. Complementary or Alternative List
E. Philippine National Formulary: Essential Medicines List

A

C. Core or Main List

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44
Q

New edition of PNDF Updated by DOH.
Applicable to all health facilities/ sectors as basis of:
* Drug procurement
* Reference guide for RDU
* Reimbursement of medicines by PHIC

A. Formulary System
B. Formulary Manual
C. Core or Main List
D. Complementary or Alternative List
E. Philippine National Formulary: Essential Medicines List

A

E. Philippine National Formulary: Essential Medicines List

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45
Q

Heart of drug supply system.
Activities employed in routine ordering process (maintaining the optimum number or amount of each item)
Objective: Uninterrupted production, sales, and/ or customer service levels at minimum cost (maximum investment and profit)

A. Drug Distribution Systems
B. Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (PTC)
C. Formulary
D. Inventory management
E. Prescription

A

D. Inventory management

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46
Q

“Most active” items in the inventory

A. Low Turnover
B. High Turnover
C. Cycle Stock
D. Safety or Buffered Stock
E. ABC Analysis
F. VEN System

A

C. Cycle Stock

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47
Q

For protection against fluctuations in demand or supply

A. Low Turnover
B. High Turnover
C. Cycle Stock
D. Safety or Buffered Stock
E. ABC Analysis
F. VEN System

A

D. Safety or Buffered Stock

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48
Q

Vital, Essential, and Non-essential drugs.

A. Low Turnover
B. High Turnover
C. Cycle Stock
D. Safety or Buffered Stock
E. ABC Analysis
F. VEN System

A

F. VEN System

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49
Q

• Stock duplication
• Large purchase of slow-moving items
• Dead inventory

A. Low Turnover
B. High Turnover
C. Cycle Stock
D. Safety or Buffered Stock
E. ABC Analysis
F. VEN System

A

A. Low Turnover

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50
Q

• Always, Better Control
• Categorizes items by volume and value of consumption.

A. Low Turnover
B. High Turnover
C. Cycle Stock
D. Safety or Buffered Stock
E. ABC Analysis
F. VEN System

A

E. ABC Analysis

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51
Q

Small volume purchasing

A. Low Turnover
B. High Turnover
C. Cycle Stock
D. Safety or Buffered Stock
E. ABC Analysis
F. VEN System

A

B. High Turnover

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52
Q

Recipe; “you-take or take thou

A. Subscription
B. Date
C. Inscription
D. Transcription/Signatura
E. Superscription (Rx)

A

E. Superscription (Rx)

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53
Q

Medication prescribed

A. Subscription
B. Date
C. Inscription
D. Transcription/Signatura
E. Superscription (Rx)

A

C. Inscription

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54
Q

Dispensing directions to the RPh

A. Subscription
B. Date
C. Inscription
D. Transcription/Signatura
E. Superscription (Rx)

A

A. Subscription

55
Q

Directions to the Patient

A. Subscription
B. Date
C. Inscription
D. Transcription/Signatura
E. Superscription (Rx)

A

D. Transcription/Signatura

56
Q

Establish the validity of the prescription

A. Subscription
B. Date
C. Inscription
D. Transcription/Signatura
E. Superscription (Rx)

A

B. Date

57
Q

Use of a plastic or metal card prepared on patient’s admission

A. Drug Basket Method
B. Charge Plate
C. Envelop System
D. Mechanical Dispensing
E. Mobile Dispensing Unit

A

B. Charge Plate

58
Q

Used to dispense drugs to nursing station and at the same time is also used as charge ticket

A. Drug Basket Method
B. Charge Plate
C. Envelop System
D. Mechanical Dispensing
E. Mobile Dispensing Unit

A

C. Envelop System

59
Q

Used by hospitals for stocking non-charge stock drugs and related products on floor nursing station

A. Drug Basket Method
B. Charge Plate
C. Envelop System
D. Mechanical Dispensing
E. Mobile Dispensing Unit

A

A. Drug Basket Method

60
Q

Utilizes specially constructed stainless-steel truck

A. Drug Basket Method
B. Charge Plate
C. Envelop System
D. Mechanical Dispensing
E. Mobile Dispensing Unit

A

E. Mobile Dispensing Unit

61
Q

Ex. Brewer system

A. Drug Basket Method
B. Charge Plate
C. Envelop System
D. Mechanical Dispensing
E. Mobile Dispensing Unit

A

D. Mechanical Dispensing

62
Q

Used in small hospitals where pharmacists are not available to dispense individual doses for patient → Medications are available in nursing and patient care area

A. Floor Stock System
B. Individual Prescription Order System
C. Individual Prescription Order System + Floor Stock System
D. Unit Dose Drug Delivery System (UDDS)
E. NOTA

A

A. Floor Stock System

63
Q

• Used predominantly in primary or small hospitals where RPh is not on the premises all the time
• Patient name and location
• Multiple dose Rx

A. Floor Stock System
B. Individual Prescription Order System
C. Individual Prescription Order System + Floor Stock System
D. Unit Dose Drug Delivery System (UDDS)
E. NOTA

A

B. Individual Prescription Order System

64
Q

• Most commonly used (esp. in Government hospitals).
• Incorporates unit-dose dispensing as well

A. Floor Stock System
B. Individual Prescription Order System
C. Individual Prescription Order System + Floor Stock System
D. Unit Dose Drug Delivery System (UDDS)
E. NOTA

A

C. Individual Prescription Order System + Floor Stock System

65
Q

• RPh prepare each dose of medications ready for administration

A. Floor Stock System
B. Individual Prescription Order System
C. Individual Prescription Order System + Floor Stock System
D. Unit Dose Drug Delivery System (UDDS)
E. NOTA

A

D. Unit Dose Drug Delivery System (UDDS)

66
Q

Pre-determined list of medications with no charge to patient.

A. Free Floor Stock
B. Combination of Centralized & Decentralized
C. Charge Floor Stock
D. Centralized
E. Decentralized

A

A. Free Floor Stock

67
Q

Most common and cost-efficient

All drugs are stocked in the central or main pharmacy.

A. Free Floor Stock
B. Combination of Centralized & Decentralized
C. Charge Floor Stock
D. Centralized
E. Decentralized

A

D. Centralized

68
Q

Some unit dose systems are only partially complete due to special circumstances of certain hospitals

A. Free Floor Stock
B. Combination of Centralized & Decentralized
C. Charge Floor Stock
D. Centralized
E. Decentralized

A

B. Combination of Centralized & Decentralized

69
Q

Drugs (mostly single unit doses) are stocked in >/= 1 satellite pharmacy serving >/= 1 nursing unit station.

A. Free Floor Stock
B. Combination of Centralized & Decentralized
C. Charge Floor Stock
D. Centralized
E. Decentralized

A

E. Decentralized

70
Q

IV Fluids that is > 100mL

B. LVP
C. SVP

A

B. LVP

71
Q

IV Fluids that is </= 100mL

B. SVP
C. LVP

A

B. SVP

72
Q

Contains NMT 1L of product.
Ex. Sterile WFI.

C. Single Dose Container
D. Multiple Dose Container

A

C. Single Dose Container

73
Q

Contain NMT 30 mL of product.
Ex. Bacteriostatic WFI

A. Small Dose Container
E. Multiple Dose Container

A

E. Multiple Dose Container

74
Q

Energy (ATP) source

A. Lipid
B. Carbohydrates
C. Trace elements
D. Protein
E. Electrolytes (Na, K, Mg, Ca, CI, PO4)

A

B. Carbohydrates

75
Q

Amino acid source

A. Lipid
B. Carbohydrates
C. Trace elements
D. Protein
E. Electrolytes (Na, K, Mg, Ca, CI, PO4)

A

D. Protein

76
Q

Essential fatty acid source

A. Lipid
B. Carbohydrates
C. Trace elements
D. Protein
E. Vitamins

A

A. Lipid

77
Q

For proper enzymatic and energy conserving or expending reactions within the body

A. Lipid
B. Carbohydrates
C. Trace elements
D. Protein
E. Electrolytes (Na, K, Mg, Ca, CI, PO4)

A

E. Electrolytes (Na, K, Mg, Ca, CI, PO4)

78
Q

(Zn, Cu, Se, Cr, Fe, Mn, Co, Mo)

A. Lipid
B. Carbohydrates
C. Trace elements
D. Protein
E. Vitamins

A

C. Trace elements

79
Q

For long term therapy

A. Lipid
B. Carbohydrates
C. Trace elements
D. Protein
E. Vitamins

A

E. Vitamins

80
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a leader’s role?

A) Exerting influence by providing order and consistency
B) Wanting people to do what they are told
C) Ensuring vision and setting direction for others
D) Seeking commitment over compliance
E) Less commitment, more on compliance

A

C) Ensuring vision and setting direction for others

81
Q

Which aspect does a manager prioritize more: commitment or compliance?

A) Less commitment, more on compliance
B) Seeking commitment over compliance
C) Fostering collaboration and teamwork
D) Encouraging independent decision-making
E) Exerting influence by providing order and consistency

A

A) Less commitment, more on compliance

82
Q

What is the primary purpose of the FOURrmula One Plan (F1)?

A) Financing reforms in healthcare institutions
B) Enhancing road safety measures
C) Promoting sustainable energy sources
D) Improving educational facilities

A

A) Financing reforms in healthcare institutions

83
Q

Who created the FOURrmula One Plan (F1)?

A) World Health Organization (WHO)
B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
C) Department of Health (DOH)
D) United Nations (UN)
E.) NOTA

A

A) Department of Health (DOH)

84
Q

What does the FOURrmula One Plan (F1) aim to achieve in terms of investments in health?

A) Encourage private sector involvement
B) Reduce healthcare costs for patients
C) Develop new medical technologies
D) Secure better and sustained investments in health

A

D) Secure better and sustained investments in health

85
Q

What is the primary purpose of pharmacoeconomic?

A) Comparing the value of pharmaceutical/drug therapy to another
B) Analyzing patient demographics and healthcare utilization
C) Evaluating the safety and efficacy of pharmaceutical products
D) Assessing the manufacturing and distribution costs of medications

A

A) Comparing the value of pharmaceutical/drug therapy to another

86
Q

Which type of economic analysis involves comparing the total cost of therapies for two drugs with equal efficacy and tolerability?

A) Cost Minimization Analysis (CMA)
B) Cost-effectiveness Analysis (CEA)
C) Cost Utility Analysis (CUA)
D) Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA)

A

A) Cost Minimization Analysis (CMA)

87
Q

In which economic analysis is the relative cost and outcomes of two or more courses compared, especially when a full cost-benefit analysis is inappropriate?

A) Cost Minimization Analysis (CMA)
B) Cost-effectiveness Analysis (CEA)
C) Cost Utility Analysis (CUA)
D) Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA)

A

B) Cost-effectiveness Analysis (CEA)

88
Q

Which economic analysis is used to estimate the cost of a health-related intervention and the benefit in terms of the number of years lived in full health by the beneficiaries?

A) Cost Minimization Analysis (CMA)
B) Cost-effectiveness Analysis (CEA)
C) Cost Utility Analysis (CUA)
D) Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA)

A

C) Cost Utility Analysis (CUA)

89
Q

Which economic analysis is a formal discipline used to appraise and assess the case for a project or proposal?

A) Cost Minimization Analysis (CMA)
B) Cost-effectiveness Analysis (CEA)
C) Cost Utility Analysis (CUA)
D) Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA)

A

D) Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA)

90
Q

agreement between the hospital & legitimate manufacturers/suppliers which have the capability to meet the demands of the hospital for essential medicines in a sustainable manner; when goods are paid once they are sold.

A. Drug Donations
B. Consignment System

A

B. Consignment System

91
Q

often received to augment pharmaceutical requirements for the less fortunate members of society

A. Drug Donations
B. Consignment System

A

A. Drug Donations

92
Q

Which of the following substances has the lowest flash point?

A) Acetone
B) Absolute alcohol
C) Kerosene

A

A) Acetone 18°C

93
Q

Which substance has the highest flash point among the options provided?

A) Acetone
B) Absolute alcohol
C) Kerosene

A

C) Kerosene 23-61°C

94
Q

Which government agency is responsible for policy-making and strategy formulation regarding dangerous drugs in a country?

A) Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB)
B) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
C) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D) Department of Health (DOH)

A

A) Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB)

95
Q

Which agency serves as the implementing arm of the Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB) and is primarily responsible for the efficient enforcement of drug laws?

A) Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB)
B) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
C) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D) Department of Health (DOH)

A

B) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)

96
Q

Which category in the Controlled Substance Schedule includes substances with the highest potential for abuse and are considered the most dangerous?

A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule V

A

A) Schedule I

97
Q

Among the categories in the Controlled Substance Schedule, which one includes substances with the lowest potential for abuse and are considered the least dangerous?

A) Schedule I
B) Schedule III
C) Schedule IV
D) Schedule V

A

D) Schedule V

98
Q

Which of the following statements best describes Schedule I substances?

A) They have a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions.
B) They have a high potential for abuse and severe psychological or physical dependence.
C) They have a low potential for abuse and limited physical or psychological dependence.
D) They have no currently accepted medical use, lack accepted safety for use, and have a high potential for abuse.

A

D) They have no currently accepted medical use, lack accepted safety for use, and have a high potential for abuse.

99
Q

Which of the following substances is an example of a Schedule I drug?

A) Hydrocodone
B) Diazepam
C) Heroin
D) Phenobarbital

A

C) Heroin

100
Q

Which category in the Controlled Substance Schedule has substances with a high potential for abuse and accepted medical use with severe restrictions?

A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV

A

B) Schedule II

101
Q

Which category in the Controlled Substance Schedule includes substances with a potential for abuse that is lower than Schedule I and II, and moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence?

A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV

A

C) Schedule III

102
Q

Which category in the Controlled Substance Schedule includes substances with a low potential for abuse, limited physical or psychological dependence, and may be available without a prescription (over-the-counter)?

A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV
E) Schedule V

A

E) Schedule V

103
Q

What type of license is associated with a retail distributor or dispenser in the pharmaceutical industry?

A) S-1
B) S-2
C) S-3
D) S-4

A

A) S-1

104
Q

Which type of license is typically held by a healthcare professional who has the authority to prescribe medications?

A) S-1
B) S-2
C) S-3
D) S-4

A

B) S-2

105
Q

What type of license is required for the operation of a pharmacy where medications are dispensed and patient care services are provided?

A) S-1
B) S-2
C) S-3
D) S-4

A

C) S-3

106
Q

Which type of license is associated with a wholesaler involved in the distribution of pharmaceutical products to pharmacies, hospitals, and other healthcare facilities?

A) S-1
B) S-2
C) S-3
D) S-4

A

D) S-4

107
Q

Which method of administration involves the introduction of a relatively small volume of solution directly from a syringe, administered quickly?

A) Intravenous Injection
B) Intravenous Infusion
C) PiggyBack Administration

A

A) Intravenous Injection

108
Q

Which method of administration involves the introduction of a larger volume of solution directly into a vein, allowing the solution to drip into the vein?

A) Intravenous Injection
B) Intravenous Infusion
C) PiggyBack Administration

A

B) Intravenous Infusion

109
Q

Which method of administration involves the use of two containers with solutions flowing through a common tubing and injection site into the patient’s vein?

A) Intravenous Injection
B) Intravenous Infusion
C) PiggyBack Administration

A

C) PiggyBack Administration

110
Q

Which type of solution has an osmotic pressure greater than that of blood or 0.9% NaCl?

A) Hypertonic
B) Hypotonic
C) Isotonic
D) Hypertensive
E) Hyperosmotic

A

A) Hypertonic

111
Q

Which type of solution has an osmotic pressure less than that of the blood or 0.9% NaCl?

A) Hypertonic
B) Hypotonic
C) Isotonic
D) Hypotensive
E) Hypoosmotic

A

B) Hypotonic

112
Q

Which type of solution has an osmotic pressure equivalent to that of blood or 0.9% NaCl?

A) Hypertonic
B) Hypotonic
C) Isotonic
D) Isometric
E) Normosmotic

A

C) Isotonic

113
Q

Which term describes a solution with higher osmotic pressure than blood but lower than a hypertonic solution?

A) Hypertonic
B) Hypotonic
C) Isotonic
D) Hyperosmotic
E) Hypoosmotic

A

D) Hyperosmotic

114
Q

Which term describes a solution with lower osmotic pressure than blood but higher than a hypotonic solution?

A) Hypertonic
B) Hypotonic
C) Isotonic
D) Hypoosmotic
E) Hyperosmotic

A

D) Hypoosmotic

115
Q

Which factor refers to the formation of complexes between different substances, affecting their compatibility and stability?

A) Complexation
B) Light
C) Time
D) Diluent
E) Temperature

A

A) Complexation

116
Q

Which factor can degrade or alter the properties of certain substances when exposed to it?

A) Complexation
B) Light
C) Time
D) Diluent
E) Temperature

A

B) Light

117
Q

Which factor plays a role in the degradation or change of substances over a period of duration?

A) Complexation
B) Light
C) Time
D) Diluent
E) Temperature

A

C) Time

118
Q

Which factor refers to the substance used to dilute or dissolve a drug or medication?

A) Complexation
B) Light
C) Time
D) Diluent
E) Temperature

A

D) Diluent

119
Q

Which factor relates to the degree of heat or cold affecting the stability and compatibility of substances?

A) Complexation
B) Light
C) Time
D) Diluent
E) Temperature

A

E) Temperature

120
Q

Which of the following complications of IV fluids is associated with the local administration?

A) Pyrogenic reactions
B) Air embolism
C) Pulmonary Embolism
D) Infiltration
E) Speed Shock

A

D) Infiltration

121
Q

Which of the following complications of IV fluids is associated with the local administration?

A) Hematoma
B) Phlebitis
C) Catheter embolism
D) Pyrogenic reactions
E) Speed Shock

A

B) Phlebitis

122
Q

Which of the following complications of IV fluids is associated with the local administration?

A) Thrombophlebitis
B) Air embolism
C) Pulmonary Embolism
D) Speed Shock
E) Catheter embolism

A

A) Thrombophlebitis

123
Q

Which of the following complications of IV fluids is associated with the systemic administration?

A) Infiltration
B) Hematoma
C) Phlebitis
D) Pyrogenic reactions
E) Air embolism

A

D) Pyrogenic reactions

124
Q

Which of the following complications of IV fluids is associated with the systemic administration?

A) Pulmonary Embolism
B) Speed Shock
C) Catheter embolism
D) Thrombophlebitis
E) Hematoma

A

B) Speed Shock

125
Q

Which hospital code is most universally recognized and indicates a patient experiencing a life-threatening medical emergency?

A) Code WHITE
B) Code BLUE
C) Code RED
D) Code PURPLE/PINK
E) Code BLACK

A

B) Code BLUE

126
Q

Which hospital code is specifically used for pediatric patients and may escalate to a Code BLUE?

A) Code WHITE
B) Code RED
C) Code PURPLE/PINK
D) Code ORANGE
E) Code GREEN

A

A) Code WHITE

127
Q

Which hospital code is used to indicate a fire or smoke situation, leading to a total evacuation of the facility?

A) Code BLUE
B) Code RED
C) Code PURPLE/PINK
D) Code ORANGE
E) Code BLACK

A

B) Code RED

128
Q

Which hospital code is used to indicate a missing child or child abduction, with Code PINK specifically referring to an infant?

A) Code BLACK
B) Code PURPLE/PINK
C) Code VIOLET
D) Code GREEN
E) Code YELLOW

A

B) Code PURPLE/PINK

129
Q

Which hospital code is used to indicate a severe weather disaster that may initiate a lockdown or evacuation?

A) Code BLUE
B) Code ORANGE
C) Code VIOLET
D) Code GREEN
E) Code YELLOW

A

E) Code YELLOW

130
Q

Which hospital code is used to indicate a hazardous spill requiring medical decontamination?

A) Code ORANGE
B) Code VIOLET
C) Code GREEN
D) Code YELLOW
E) Code RED

A

A) Code ORANGE

131
Q

Which hospital code is used to indicate a bomb threat?

A) Code BLACK
B) Code ORANGE
C) Code VIOLET
D) Code BLUE
E) Code RED

A

A) Code BLACK

132
Q

Which hospital code is used to indicate hospital violence or the presence of a violent person on the premises, requiring the involvement of security personnel?

A) Code GREEN
B) Code YELLOW
C) Code PURPLE/PINK
D) Code VIOLET
E) Code RED

A

D) Code VIOLET

133
Q

Which hospital code is used to indicate the arrival of patients from a mass casualty event or emergency evacuation?

A) Code BLUE
B) Code RED
C) Code GREEN
D) Code BLACK
E) Code YELLOW

A

C) Code GREEN

134
Q

Which hospital code is used to indicate a missing high-risk patient?

A) Code WHITE
B) Code ORANGE
C) Code VIOLET
D) Code GREEN
E) Code YELLOW

A

D) Code GREEN

135
Q

Medications associated with a high risk of Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) are traditionally classified into:

A) Type C (Chronic) and Type D (Delayed)
B) Type A (Augmented) and Type C (Chronic)
C) Type A (Augmented) and Type B (Bizarre)
D) Type B (Bizarre) and Type C (Chronic)
E) Type A (Augmented) and Type D (Delayed)

A

C) Type A (Augmented) and Type B (Bizarre)

136
Q

Which type of adverse drug reactions (ADRs) is dose-related and involves the “augmentation” or amplification of the known pharmacological effects of the medication?

A) Type A (Augmented)
B) Type B (Bizarre)
C) Type C (Chronic)
D) Type D (Delayed)
E) Type E (Exaggerated)

A

A) Type A (Augmented)

137
Q

Which type of adverse drug reactions (ADRs) is idiosyncratic and unpredictable, not directly related to the known pharmacological properties of the drug?

A) Type A (Augmented)
B) Type B (Bizarre)
C) Type C (Chronic)
D) Type D (Delayed)
E) Type E (Exaggerated)

A

B) Type B (Bizarre)

Phar Review & Comprehensive Examination (17 decks)

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