homework week 13

Question 1

Which of the following medical procedures would pose the LEAST risk of exposure to an infectious disease?
Select one:
a. Administering a subcutaneous injection
b. Covering a wound that is bleeding minimally
c. Delivering the baby of an HIV-negative mother
d. Assessing a patient’s temperature by the oral route

Answer 1

d. Assessing a patient’s temperature by the oral route

Question 2

Personal protective equipment:
Select one:
a. serves as a secondary protective barrier beyond what your body provides.
b. is a standardized set of equipment that is used with every patient contact.
c. is the most effective means of preventing the spread of an infectious disease.
d. is required by the CDC when a paramedic draws blood or gives an injection.

Answer 2

a. serves as a secondary protective barrier beyond what your body provides.

Question 3

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, all children should be immunized against all of the following diseases, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. smallpox. 
b. hepatitis B.
c. seasonal influenza.
d. Haemophilus influenzae type b.

Answer 3

a. smallpox.

Question 4

Which of the following examples provides the BEST description of indirect contact with a microorganism?
Select one:
a. Becoming infected with West Nile virus from a mosquito bite
b. Touching a bloody stretcher railing with an open wound on your hand
c. Inhaling infected droplets from a person after he or she sneezes or coughs
d. Making brief physical contact with a person who has an infectious disease

Answer 4

b. Touching a bloody stretcher railing with an open wound on your hand

Question 5

Transmission of mumps occurs by direct contact with the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of an infected person.
Select one:
a. tears
b. saliva 
c. sweat
d. blood

Answer 5

b. saliva

Question 6

Postexposure prophylaxis is available for all of the following diseases, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. HIV. 
b. hepatitis C.
c. syphilis.
d. gonorrhea.

Answer 6

b. hepatitis C.

Question 7

Particles from the measles virus can travel up to \_\_\_ feet before they fall to the ground.
Select one:
a. 6 
b. 10
c. 14
d. 20

Answer 7

a. 6

Question 8

When obtaining the SAMPLE history of a person suspected of having an infectious disease, you should specifically inquire about:
Select one:
a. the patient's HIV status.
b. a history of recent travel. 
c. any prior hospitalizations.
d. the last sexual encounter.

Answer 8

b. a history of recent travel.

Question 9

Which of the following diseases is bacterial in nature, has an insidious onset, and is characterized by a cough that progresses to coughing spasms?
Select one:
a. Tetanus
b. Bronchitis
c. Diphtheria
d. Pertussis

Answer 9

d. Pertussis

Question 10

Rubella is transmitted and spreads when an infected person:
Select one:
a. vomits.
b. bleeds.
c. sneezes.
d. is febrile.

Answer 10

c. sneezes.

Question 11

Most infectious disease exposures in health care providers occur due to:
Select one:
a. indirect contact. 
b. blood splatter.
c. sharps injuries.
d. inhaled droplets.

Answer 11

c. sharps injuries.

Question 12

When washing your hands after a call, you should:
Select one:
a. wash your hands for at least 10 seconds.
b. use an antimicrobial, alcohol-based foam or gel.
c. wash with cold water and let your hands air dry.
d. scrub your hands vigorously with an antibacterial gel.

Answer 12

b. use an antimicrobial, alcohol-based foam or gel.

Question 13

According to Part G of the Ryan White Comprehensive AIDS Resources Emergency Act, medical facilities are required to notify emergency responders of potentially infectious diseases involving patients they transported no longer than \_\_\_ hours from the time they have a suspect case.
Select one:
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 48

Answer 13

d. 48

Question 14

A health care worker’s fear of contracting a communicable disease is MOST often the result of:
Select one:
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b. statistics published by the media.
c. a prior history of disease exposure.
d. a lack of proper education and training.

Answer 14

d. a lack of proper education and training.

Question 15

Which of the following statements regarding the mumps is correct?
Select one:
a. Mumps can cause sterility in males past the age of puberty.
b. Postexposure vaccination against the mumps is recommended.
c. Mumps presents with fever and swelling of the salivary glands.
d. A variety of bacteria have been identified as causing the mumps.

Answer 15

c. Mumps presents with fever and swelling of the salivary glands.

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining a person's risk of contracting an infectious disease following exposure?
Select one:
a. The organism's mode of entry
b. The virulence of the organism
c. The age and sex of the patient
d. Host resistance of the individual

Answer 16

c. The age and sex of the patient

Question 17

According to the Ryan White Comprehensive AIDS Resources Emergency Act, the medical facility must:
Select one:
a. release the source patient’s status to the designated infection control officer.
b. hold the source patient’s laboratory results for 24 hours before releasing them.
c. avoid releasing the source patient’s status to anyone due to HIPAA regulations.
d. release the source patient’s HIV and hepatitis B status to the exposed employee.

Answer 17

a. release the source patient’s status to the designated infection control officer.

Question 18

A common sign of the measles is:
Select one:
a. petechiae.
b. a blotchy red rash.
c. severe diarrhea.
d. a purpuric rash.

Answer 18

b. a blotchy red rash.

Question 19

Work restriction guidelines enforced by OSHA require an employee to use sick time for an illness, unless:
Select one:
a. the employee opted to take the hepatitis B vaccine.
b. a physician deems that the illness was unavoidable.
c. the illness is the result of an occupational exposure.
d. the illness occurred after the post-hire probation period.

Answer 19

c. the illness is the result of an occupational exposure.

Question 20

In contrast to body substance isolation precautions, standard precautions:
Select one:
a. is a term used to describe infection control practices that reduce the risk of exposure to blood.
b. describe a universal approach in which all blood and bodily fluids are assumed to be infectious.
c. emphasize protection from moist body substances that may transmit bacterial or viral infections.
d. specify that sweat is an effective carrier of infectious diseases, even if the sweat makes contact with intact skin.

Answer 20

c. emphasize protection from moist body substances that may transmit bacterial or viral infections.

Question 21

Following a significant exposure, the source patient is routinely tested for all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. HIV.
b. HCV antibody. 
c. HBV antigen.
d. HBV antibody.

Answer 21

d. HBV antibody.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT included in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's list of recommended immunizations and tests for health care providers?
Select one:
a. Annual HIV testing 
b. Hepatitis B vaccine
c. Tuberculosis testing
d. Measles, mumps, and rubella

Answer 22

a. Annual HIV testing

Question 23

In older adults, shingles arises when the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ virus resides in the ganglion of a nerve.
Select one:
a. rubella
b. varicella 
c. rubeola
d. herpes

Answer 23

b. varicella

Question 24

After an employee who believes he or she has been exposed to an infectious disease notifies the designated infection control officer (DICO), the DICO should:
Select one:
a. execute the postexposure plan within 24 to 36 hours.
b. determine whether an actual exposure occurred.
c. immediately refer the employee to a designated physician.
d. obtain the patient’s consent to have his or her blood drawn.

Answer 24

b. determine whether an actual exposure occured.

Question 25

Rubella is characterized by:
Select one:
a. enlarged lymph nodes.
b. visual disturbances.
c. abdominal discomfort.
d. an isolated facial rash.

Answer 25

a. enlarged lymph nodes.