HLC 23

Question 1

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
Subsequently:
* PZR PORV, V1402 experiences a MECHANICAL failure which results in V1402 failing OPEN
Which ONE of the following describes where PZR PORV 1402 will discharge to and what will provide the INITIAL indication in the Control Room?
PZR PORV 1402 discharges to the ____(1)____ and the INITIAL Control Room indication will be provided by the ____(2)____.
A.
(1) Quench Tank
(2) Acoustic Monitoring System LEDs LIT
B.
(1) Quench Tank
(2) PORV V1402 indicating lamp indicating RED
C.
(1) Reactor Drain Tank
(2) Acoustic Monitoring System LEDs LIT
D.
(1) Reactor Drain Tank
(2) PORV V1402 indicating lamp indicating RED

Answer 1

A.
(1) Quench Tank
(2) Acoustic Monitoring System LEDs LIT

Question 2

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 was manually tripped due to a LOCA
* 2-EOP-01, SPTAs are in progress at Step 6, VERIFY Core Heat Removal
Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?
In accordance with 2-EOP-01, SPTAs, Step 6, RCPs are required to be secured due to inadequate subcooling based on ____(1)____ subcooling less than ____(2)____.
A.
(1) RCS
(2) 10 °F
B.
(1) RCS
(2) 20 °F
C.
(1) REP CET
(2) 10 °F
D.
(1) REP CET
(2) 20 °F

Answer 2

B.
(1) RCS
(2) 20 °F

Question 3

Which ONE of the following describes the MINIMUM action times to be taken if Component Cooling Water (CCW) to the Reactor Coolant Pumps (RCPs) is lost in accordance with 1-AOP-01.09A1, 1A1 Reactor Coolant Pump?
1-AOP-01.09A1 directs the RCPs to be tripped ____(1)____ if CCW is lost AND ISOLATE Controlled Bleed Off if CCW is lost for greater than _____(2)_____ minutes.
A.
(1) Immediately
(2) 10
B.
(1) Immediately
(2) 30
C.
(1) within 10 minutes
(2) 10
D.
(1) within 10 minutes
(2) 30

Answer 3

D.
(1) within 10 minutes
(2) 30

Question 4

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 50% power and STABLE at time 12:00
* A RCS leak is in progress
* V2504, RWT to Charging pumps, is CLOSED and breaker is OFF
* Pressurizer Level is 43% and STABLE
* Letdown Flow is 29 gpm
* ALL Charging Pumps are running
* VCT Level is 50% and LOWERING
* RCP 1A1 CBO: 1.4 gpm
* RCP 1B1 CBO: 1.4 gpm
* RCP 1A2 CBO: 1.4 gpm
* RCP 1B2 CBO: 1.3 gpm
Which ONE of the following is the expected time that a LOSS of Charging would occur?
A. 12:11 - 12:12
B. 12:13 - 12:14
C. 12:15 - 12:16
D. 12:30 - 12:31

Answer 4

C. 12:15 - 12:16

Question 5

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is in Mode 5 entering a refueling outage
* RCS is SOLID
* RCS Pressure is 250 psia
* The 2A and 2B Shutdown Cooling Trains are in service
* 2A S/G NR level is 65%
* 2B S/G NR level is 5% draining in progress
Subsequently:
* The 2B LPSI pump trips
Which ONE of the following describes the Tech Spec compliance for shutdown cooling train?
Tech Spec 3.4.1.4.1, RCS Cold Shutdown – Loops Filled is currently ____(1)____ due to ____(2)____.
A.
(1) met
(2) S/G water levels being sufficient
B.
(1) met
(2) ONLY ONE train of SDC is required to be operable and in operation
C.
(1) NOT met
(2) S/G water levels being insufficient
D.
(1) NOT met
(2) BOTH Trains of SDC are required to be operable AND in operation

Answer 5

C.
(1) NOT met
(2) S/G water levels being insufficient

Question 6

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
Subsequently:
* Annunciator LA-10, CCW Surge Tank Compartment “A” Level Low ALARMS
* LG-14-2A, CCW Surge Tank Level indicates 29 inches and VERY SLOWLY LOWERING
* LG-14-2B, CCW Surge Tank Level indicates 30 inches and STABLE
* LCV-14-1, Demin Water to CCW Surge Tank, is CLOSED
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
IF V14103, LCV-14-1 Bypass Valve FAILS to OPEN the crew is required to align the _____(1)_____ Header to restore CCW Surge Tank Level in accordance with 2-AOP-14.01, Component Cooling Water Abnormal Operations.
_____(2)_____ “N” Header Isolation Valves have AUTOMATICALLY CLOSED.
A.
(1) Fire Water
(2) TWO
B.
(1) Fire Water
(2) FOUR
C.
(1) Service Water
(2) TWO
D.
(1) Service Water
(2) FOUR

Answer 6

A.
(1) Fire Water
(2) TWO

Question 7

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* PIC-1110X, Pressurizer Pressure Controller is selected
* Pressurizer pressure is being maintained at 2250 psia with Pressurizer Backup Heaters B1, B2 and B5 ON with a 10% output to the Pressurizer Proportional Heaters
Subsequently:
* PIC-1110X, Pressurizer Pressure controller OUTPUT slowly drifts HIGH due to a PT-1110X malfunction
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the OUTPUT on HIC-1100, Main Spray controller AND the effect on ACTUAL Pressurizer pressure?
HIC-1100, Main Spray Controller OUTPUT ____(1)____.
ACTUAL Pressurizer pressure ____(2)____.
A.
(1) RISES
(2) RISES
B.
(1) RISES
(2) LOWERS
C.
(1) LOWERS
(2) LOWERS
D.
(1) LOWERS
(2) RISES

Answer 7

B.
(1) RISES
(2) LOWERS

Question 8

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
Subsequently:
* The 2A Main Feedwater Pump TRIPS
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
In accordance with 2-AOP-09.04, Feedwater, Condensate, and Heater Drain Pump Abnormal Operations, the crew is required to trip the Reactor at a S/G Narrow Range level of ____(1)____.
If the MANUAL trip buttons failed to trip the Reactor and the Reactor did not AUTOMATICALLY trip, the crew is required to ____(2)____ in accordance with 2-EOP-01, SPTAs.
A.
(1) 35%
(2) LOCALLY OPEN TCB-1 through TCB-8
B.
(1) 50%
(2) LOCALLY OPEN TCB-1 through TCB-8
C.
(1) 35%
(2) DEENERGIZE LC 2A2 and LC 2B2 from RTGB-201
D.
(1) 50%
(2) DEENERGIZE LC 2A2 and LC 2B2 from RTGB-201

Answer 8

B.
(1) 50%
(2) LOCALLY OPEN TCB-1 through TCB-8

Question 9

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 Reactor has been tripped
* SGTR has occurred on the 2B Steam Generator
* 2-EOP-04, Steam Generator Tube Rupture is in progress at Step 10, Initiate lowering the RCS temperature to less than 510 °F
* RCS cooldown is in progress using SBCS
The following annunciators are in alarm:
* P-8, MSIS Channel A Actuation Blocked
* P-20, MSIS Channel B Actuation Block Permissive
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
MSIS will actuate at ____(1)____.
If NO operator action is taken and the MSIS setpoint is reached, the 2A MSIV ____(2)____ CLOSE.
A.
(1) 600 psia
(2) will
B.
(1) 600 psia
(2) will NOT
C.
(1) 626 psia
(2) will
D.
(1) 626 psia
(2) will NOT

Answer 9

A.
(1) 600 psia
(2) will

Question 10

Given the following timeline:
00:00:00 Unit 1 tripped from 100% power due to a loss of BOTH MFPs
S/G Narrow Range (NR) Levels are:
TIME:
00:01:00
S/G A: 23%
S/G B: 28%
00:03:00
S/G A:17%
S/G B: 23%
00:06:00
S/G A:15%
S/G B:19%
00:07:00
S/G A:14%
S/G B:18%

Which ONE of the following is the expected status of AFW at time 00:07:00?
The ‘B’ AFW header flow control valve(s) are ____(1)____.
The ‘C’ AFW pump Steam Supply will be from ____(2)____ S/G(s).
A.
(1) OPEN
(2) ONLY the A
B.
(1) OPEN
(2) BOTH the A and B
C.
(1) CLOSED
(2) ONLY the A
D.
(1) CLOSED
(2) BOTH the A and B

Answer 10

D.
(1) CLOSED
(2) BOTH the A and B

Question 11

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 tripped due to a Loss of Off-Site Power
* 1-EOP-09, LOOP/LOFC is in progress at Step 26, Cooldown the RCS
* RCS Pressure is 1825 psia
* Thot is 550 °F
* Tcold is 510 °F
* Rep CET is 560 °F
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
Current RCS Subcooling is ____(1)____.
IF RCS Pressure is maintained at 1825 psia, the RCS can be cooled down to anMINIMUM indicated RCS temperature of ____(2)____ in accordance with the provided reference.
(REFERENCE PROVIDED)
A.
(1) 63 °F
(2) ~ 430 °F
B.
(1) 63 °F
(2) ~ 450 °F
C.
(1) 73 °F
(2) ~ 430 °F
D.
(1) 73 °F
(2) ~ 450 °F

Answer 11

A.
(1) 63 °F
(2) ~ 430 °F

Question 12

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* 1MC Instrument Bus is being supplied by its associated alternate source
* 1C Instrument Inverter Maintenance is complete and available
Subsequently:
* The 1MA Instrument Bus is lost
* The US has directed placing the 1MA Instrument Bus on its associated alternate source in accordance with 1-AOP-49.02, 120V Instrument AC System (CLASS 1E)
Which ONE of the following describes the sequence required to restore the 1MA Instrument Bus?
The 1MC Instrument Bus must be removed from the ____(1)____ bus prior to restoring power to the 1MA Instrument Bus due to a(n) ____(2)____ interlock.
A.
(1) Isolimiter
(2) Electrical
B.
(1) Isolimiter
(2) Mechanical
C.
(1) Maintenance Bypass
(2) Electrical
D.
(1) Maintenance Bypass
(2) Mechanical

Answer 12

D.
(1) Maintenance Bypass
(2) Mechanical

Question 13

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* The 1B and 1BB Battery Chargers are BOTH in service
Subsequently:
* A Loss of Off Site Power occurs
* The 1B EDG output breaker fails to auto CLOSE
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
When the 1B EDG output breaker is CLOSED, restoration of the 1B and 1BB Battery Chargers ____(1)____ AUTOMATICALLY return to service on the 1B DC Bus.
IF the 1B EDG output breaker is NOT closed, TS 3.8.2.3, D.C. Distribution – Operating, ____(2)____ require action within 1 hour.
A.
(1) will
(2) does
B.
(1) will
(2) does NOT
C.
(1) will NOT
(2) does
D.
(1) will NOT
(2) does NOT

Answer 13

A.
(1) will
(2) does

Question 14

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 experienced a SGTR
* RCS Pressure is 1650 psia
Which ONE of the following describes the response of MV-21-2 and MV-21-3, (Intake Cooling Water Header to Turbine Cooling Water Heat Exchangers (HXs) AND the reason for the response?
MV-21-2 and MV-21-3 will ____________.
A. CLOSE; to ensure sufficient cooling flow to the CCW HXs
B. CLOSE; to ensure the Intake Cooling Water Pumps will NOT be at runout flow
C. remain OPEN; to ensure cooling flow to the Open Blowdown Cooling System HXs to support S/G sampling
D. remain OPEN; to ensure cooling flow to the Open Blowdown Cooling System HXs to maintain isolated S/G level in band

Answer 14

A. CLOSE; to ensure sufficient cooling flow to the CCW HXs

Question 15

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 has tripped due to a Loss of Offsite Power
* Instrument Air was restored in accordance with 1-EOP-99, Appendix H, Operation of the 1A and 1B Instrument Air Compressors
Subsequently:
* A Small Break LOCA occurs
* RCS Pressure is 1200 psia and STABLE
* Containment Pressure is 5.3 psig and STABLE
* Pressurizer Level is 35% and SLOWLY RISING
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the 1A and 1B Instrument Air Compressors and the reason Instrument Air is restored in the EOPs?
1A and 1B Instrument Air Compressors will STOP and must be RESET ____(1)____ to RESTORE ____(2)____.
A.
(1) locally
(2) Letdown
B.
(1) locally
(2) the ADVs
C.
(1) from the Control Room
(2) Letdown
D.
(1) from the Control Room
(2) the ADVs

Answer 15

B.
(1) locally
(2) the ADVs

Question 16

Given the following conditions:
* BOTH Units are at 100% power
* Turnpike Line is out of service for scheduled maintenance
* Severe Weather Preparations are in progress
Subsequently:
* Midway Line 1 and Midway Line 2 are LOST
Which ONE of the following describes the required operator action(s) in accordance with 0-AOP-53.04, Reduced Offsite Transmission Capacity?
Trip ____(1)____ within a MAXIMUM of ____(2)____ minutes
A.
(1) BOTH Units
(2) 4
B.
(1) BOTH Units
(2) 15
C.
(1) selected Unit ONLY
(2) 4
D.
(1) selected Unit ONLY
(2) 15

Answer 16

C.
(1) selected Unit ONLY
(2) 4

Question 17

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 tripped
* The “B” side 4.16Kv and 6.9Kv busses did not transfer to the startup transformer post trip
* The 2B EDG is supplying 2B3 4.16Kv vital bus
* 2-EOP-01, SPTAs is complete
* 2-EOP-02, Reactor Trip Recovery has been entered
Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate Pressurizer Pressure to maintain in accordance with 2-EOP-02?
Maintain Pressurizer Pressure between ________ psia.
A. 1800 and 1850
B. 1800 and 2300
C. 1850 and 2250
D. 2225 and 2275

Answer 17

A. 1800 and 1850

Question 18

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 has experienced an ESDE inside containment
* 2A S/G pressure is 740 psia
* 2B S/G pressure is 850 psia
* Containment pressure is 3.1 psig
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The Reactor AUTOMATICALLY tripped ON ____(1)____.
In accordance with 2-EOP-01, SPTAs, RCS Heat Removal, S/G Pressure ____(2)____ reached the value requiring manual closure of the MSIVs.
A.
(1) TM/LP
(2) HAS
B.
(1) TM/LP
(2) HAS NOT
C.
(1) Containment pressure
(2) HAS
D.
(1) Containment pressure
(2) HAS NOT

Answer 18

C.
(1) Containment pressure
(2) HAS

Question 19

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 20% power
* Reg Group 5 CEAs are at 101 inches withdrawn
Subsequently:
* Reg Group 5 CEA # 8 slips to 87 inches withdrawn
* The Crew has entered 2-AOP-66.01, Dropped or Misaligned CEA Abnormal Operations
* Att. 5, CEA Functional Test and Operability Determination is being performed
* The BRCO is directed to withdraw CEA # 8, Three (3) inches
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
Based on the current CEA position, a Control Motion Inhibit (CMI)____(1)____ be present.
IF CEA # 8 had DROPPED to the bottom of the core, for the same 3 inch rod withdrawal to test operability of the CEA, the reactivity change for the DROPPED CEA will be ____(2)____ the reactivity change for the SLIPPED CEA 3 inch CEA withdrawal.
A.
(1) will
(2) the SAME
B.
(1) will
(2) LESS THAN
C.
(1) will NOT
(2) the SAME
D.
(1) will NOT
(2) LESS THAN

Answer 19

B.
(1) will
(2) LESS THAN

Question 20

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 tripped from 100% power two (2) minutes ago due to a Loss of Offsite Power
* The 2A EDG failed to start
* The 2B Charging Pump is running
* CEA 40 is stuck at 5 inches withdrawn
* 2-EOP-01, SPTAs, Step 1, VERIFY reactor trip is in progress
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
In accordance with 2-EOP-01, SPTAs, Emergency Boration ____(1)____ required;
____(2)____.
A.
(1) is NOT
(2) CEA portion of 2-EOP-01, Step 1 is complete
B.
(1) is
(2) Emergency Borate via the Gravity Feed valve V2508
C.
(1) is
(2) Emergency Borate via the ‘B’ Boric Acid Makeup pump to the Boron Load Control valve V2525
D.
(1) is
(2) Emergency Borate via the ‘B’ Boric Acid Makeup pump to the Emergency Borate valve V2514

Answer 20

B.
(1) is
(2) Emergency Borate via the Gravity Feed valve V2508

Question 21

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 experienced a Reactor Trip due to an ESDE on the 1A S/G
* 1-EOP-01, SPTAs are in progress at Step 7.D, RCS Heat Removal, VERIFY RCS TAVG
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
In accordance with 1-EOP-01, Step 7.D, Emergency Boration is required when RCS TCOLD is less than ____(1)____.
In accordance Tech Spec 3.1.1.1, Shutdown Margin, the MINIMUM required boration flow rate is ____(2)____?
A.
(1) 500 °F
(2) 40 gpm
B.
(1) 500 °F
(2) 44 gpm
C.
(1) 515 °F
(2) 40 gpm
D.
(1) 515 °F
(2) 44 gpm

Answer 21

A.
(1) 500 °F
(2) 40 gpm

Question 22

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is performing a Reactor Startup in accordance with 2-GOP-302, Reactor Plant Startup – Mode 3 to Mode 2 at Step 4.5.2, Critical Approach
* 2-GOP-302, Attachment 4, Reactor Precritical Checklist has been completed
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The SU Channels will AUTOMATICALLY secure at ____(1)____.
IF a SU Channel FAILS to secure at the required setpoint, the crew is required to ____(2)____ in accordance with 2-GOP-302.
A.
(1) 1 x 104 cps
(2) NOTIFY I&C to de-energize the respective startup channel
B.
(1) 1 x 104 cps
(2) PLACE the respective SU Channel High Volts Removal switch to OFF
C.
(1) 1 x 105 cps
(2) NOTIFY I&C to de-energize the respective startup channel
D.
(1) 1 x 105 cps
(2) PLACE the respective SU Channel High Volts Removal switch to OFF

Answer 22

B.
(1) 1 x 104 cps
(2) PLACE the respective SU Channel High Volts Removal switch to OFF

Question 23

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 has experienced a Steam Generator Tube Leak
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
In accordance with TS 3.4.6.2, Reactor Coolant System Leakage, the allowed leakage limit is ____(1)____ gallons per day primary-to-secondary leakage through ____(2)____.
A.
(1) 100
(2) any ONE S/G
B.
(1) 100
(2) BOTH S/Gs combined
C.
(1) 150
(2) any ONE S/G
D.
(1) 150
(2) BOTH S/Gs combined

Answer 23

C.
(1) 150
(2) any ONE S/G

Question 24

Given the following conditions:
* A Unit 2 spent fuel assembly has been dropped in the Fuel Handling Building
* Fuel Handling Radiation Monitors indicate on the RMCS:
SA
GAG-007 RED
GAG-009 YELLOW
GAG-011 YELLOW
SB
GAG-008 RED
GAG-010 YELLOW
GAG-012 RED

Which ONE of the following describes the status of the Fuel Handling Building
Ventilation System?
The Fuel Handling Building Normal ventilation ________.
A. remains in its normal configuration
B. ISOLATES, but the Spent Fuel Pool exhaust does NOT transfer to the Shield Building Ventilation System
C. ISOLATES, and the Spent Fuel Pool exhaust transfers to BOTH trains of the Shield Building Ventilation System
D. ISOLATES, and the Spent Fuel Pool exhaust transfers to ONLY one train of the Shield Building Ventilation System

Answer 24

C. ISOLATES, and the Spent Fuel Pool exhaust transfers to BOTH trains of the Shield Building Ventilation System

Question 25

Which ONE of the following describes the INSTALLED firefighting capabilities for the Reactor Containment Building?
Unit 1 ____(1)____ have hose stations inside containment.
Unit 2 ____(2)____ have hose stations inside containment.
A.
(1) does
(2) does
B.
(1) does
(2) does NOT
C.
(1) does NOT
(2) does
D.
(1) does NOT
(2) does NOT

Answer 25

C.
(1) does NOT
(2) does

Question 26

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 Control Room has been evacuated due to a Fire
* 2-ONP-100.02, Control Room Inaccessibility is in progress
* ALL Immediate Actions in the Control Room are complete
* RCS Pressure is 1700 psia
* RCS Tcold is 548 °F
* Pressurizer Level is 38%
Which ONE of the following describes the Unit 2 subcooling value that is required to be used in accordance with 2-ONP-100.02 and the required action in accordance with 2-ONP-100.02?
Subcooling value is ____(1)____. The Crew is required to ____(2)____ RCS Pressure.
(REFERENCE PROVIDED)
A.
(1) 15 °F
(2) RAISE
B.
(1) 15 °F
(2) MAINTAIN
C.
(1) 65 °F
(2) RAISE
D.
(1) 65 °F
(2) MAINTAIN

Answer 26

A.
(1) 15 °F
(2) RAISE

Question 27

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is performing 2-EOP-15, Functional Recovery
* RCS Pressure Control Safety Function is NOT met
* Containment Isolation Safety Function is NOT met
Which ONE of the following describes the operator that SHOULD be responsible for recovering the following Safety Functions in accordance with ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence?
ADM-11.16, states that RCS Pressure Control actions should be the responsibility of the ____(1)____ RCO.
ADM-11.16, states that Containment Isolation actions should be the responsibility of the ____(2)____ RCO.
A.
(1) DESK
(2) DESK
B.
(1) DESK
(2) BOARD
C.
(1) BOARD
(2) DESK
D.
(1) BOARD
(2) BOARD

Answer 27

C.
(1) BOARD
(2) DESK

Question 28

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is in Mode 2 performing a Reactor Startup
* Critical Rod Height Data is being taken
* Reactor Power is 5 X 10-4%
* The Board RCO notes:
* RCP 1A1 amps are 160
* RCP 1A2 amps are 425
* RCP 1B1 amps are 415
* RCP 1B2 amps are 420
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The Reactor ____(1)____ AUTOMATICALLY TRIP.
In accordance with ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence, IF the Reactor DOES trip, the crew is required to FIRST ____(2)____.
A.
(1) will
(2) trip the RCP
B.
(1) will NOT
(2) trip the RCP
C.
(1) will
(2) VERIFY the Reactor Trip
D.
(1) will NOT
(2) VERIFY the Reactor Trip

Answer 28

C.
(1) will
(2) VERIFY the Reactor Trip

Question 29

Which ONE of the following describes the design feature that limits the amount of Controlled Bleed Off (CBO) flow from an RCP?
CBO is limited to ____(1)____ gpm by a Flow Limiting ____(2)____.
A.
(1) 4
(2) Orifice
B.
(1) 4
(2) Check Valve
C.
(1) 10
(2) Orifice
D.
(1) 10
(2) Check Valve

Answer 29

D.
(1) 10
(2) Check Valve

Question 30

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
Subsequently:
* LT-2227, Volume Control Tank (VCT) Level Transmitter fails LOW
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
Charging Pump suction will be aligned to the ____(1)____.
LT-2227 provides VCT Level indication on ____(2)____.
A.
(1) VCT
(2) DCS ONLY
B.
(1) VCT
(2) RTGB-205 and DCS
C.
(1) Refueling Water Tank
(2) DCS ONLY
D.
(1) Refueling Water Tank
(2) RTGB-205 and DCS

Answer 30

C.
(1) Refueling Water Tank
(2) DCS ONLY

Question 31

On Unit 2, which ONE of the following describes the interlocks associated with Shutdown Cooling (SDC) and the Hot Leg Suction Valves?
RCS Pressure must be less than a MAXIMUM of ____(1)____ psia to OPEN.
IF RCS Pressure RISES above a MINIMUM of ____(2)____ psia they will auto CLOSE.
A.
(1) 267
(2) 350
B.
(1) 267
(2) 500
C.
(1) 276
(2) 350
D.
(1) 276
(2) 500

Answer 31

D.
(1) 276
(2) 500

Question 32

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* The feeder breaker to MCC-2B5 (2-40520) trips OPEN
Which ONE of the following describes the number of HPSI and LPSI Cold Leg Injection Valves that have been DE-ENERGIZED?
HPSI VALVES / LPSI VALVES
A. 1/1
B. 1/2
C. 2/1
D. 2/2

Answer 32

C. 2/1

Question 33

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* The 2A CCW Essential Header has been removed from service for emergent maintenance
Which ONE of the following ECCS pumps is impacted by the 2A CCW Essential Header being removed from service?
The ____(1)____ pumps are impacted.
In accordance with 2-EOP-03, LOCA, during an emergency the HPSI Pump ____(2)____ be operated for a finite period of time.
A.
(1) CS and HPSI ONLY
(2) can
B.
(1) CS, HPSI and LPSI
(2) can
C.
(1) CS and HPSI ONLY
(2) can NOT
D.
(1) CS, HPSI and LPSI
(2) can NOT

Answer 33

A.
(1) CS and HPSI ONLY
(2) can

Question 34

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 has just completed drawing a bubble from a solid plant condition
* Pressurizer pressure is 200 psia
* RCS temperature is 190°F
* A PORV is passing fluid to a downstream pressure of 1.0 psig
Which ONE of the following describes the:
(1) expected PORV tailpipe temperature AND
(2) Technical Specification Limiting Condition for Operation leakage limit for this type of leakage?
A.
(1) ~310ºF
(2) 1 gpm
B.
(1) ~310ºF
(2) 10 gpm
C.
(1) ~380ºF
(2) 1 gpm
D.
(1) ~380ºF
(2) 10 gpm

Answer 34

C.
(1) ~380ºF
(2) 1 gpm

Question 35

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 has experienced a SGTR resulting in a SIAS
* The crew has directed performance of 2-EOP-99, Appendix J, Restoration of CCW and CBO to the RCPs
Which ONE of the following describes the operation of the CCW “N” Header Isolation Valves?
Restore “N” Header flow from ____(1)____ CCW train(s).
When SIAS is RESET, the “N” Header valves that were previously OPENED will ____(2)____.
A.
(1) ONE
(2) REMAIN OPEN
B.
(1) ONE
(2) AUTOMATICALLY CLOSE
C.
(1) BOTH
(2) REMAIN OPEN
D.
(1) BOTH
(2) AUTOMATICALLY CLOSE

Answer 35

B.
(1) ONE
(2) AUTOMATICALLY CLOSE

Question 36

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 tripped from 100% power due to a ESDE inside containment
* 2-EOP-05, ESDE is in progress at step 28, Verify Letdown in service
* RCS Pressure is 2200 psia and being controlled by aux spray
* Pressurizer Level is 80% and slowly RISING
* Pressurizer Water Temp on TIA-1101 is 570 °F
* SIAS has been RESET per 2-EOP-99 Appendix P, Restoration of Components Actuated by ESFAS
Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?
IF letdown is established and Pressurizer Level is lowered to 65%, RCS pressure ________.
A. can be controlled at its current value by controlling aux spray
B. can be controlled at its current value by the operation of PZR heaters
C. will drop uncontrollably to < 1300 psia and SIAS will automatically actuate
D. will drop uncontrollably to < 1300 psia but SIAS will NOT automatically actuat

Answer 36

C. will drop uncontrollably to < 1300 psia and SIAS will automatically actuate

Question 37

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
Subsequently:
* A loss of the MA 120 VAC Instrument Bus occurs
* The Crew has just entered 1-AOP-49.02, 120V Instrument AC System (Class 1E)

Which ONE of the following failures would result in a Reactor Trip?
A. Channel B Tcold fails LOW
B. Channel D Thot fails HIGH
C. Channel C WRNI fails HIGH
D. Channel B CCW flow transmitter fails LOW

Answer 37

B. Channel D Thot fails HIGH

Question 38

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* 1A Steam Generator (SG) Pressure Channel “A” has failed LOW
Subsequently:
* The 1B SG Pressure Channel “B” fails LOW
Which ONE of the following describes the expected Main Steam Isolation (MSIS) AND Reactor Protection System (RPS) response?
MSIS ____(1)____ actuate and RPS ____(2)____ trip the Reactor.
A.
(1) will
(2) will
B.
(1) will
(2) will NOT
C.
(1) will NOT
(2) will
D.
(1) will NOT
(2) will NOT

Answer 38

C.
(1) will NOT
(2) will

Question 39

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* Containment Fan Coolers (CFC) B, C and D are running in FAST speed
Subsequently:
* Unit 2 trips due to a Loss of Offsite Power(LOOP)
* The 2A CCW Pump trips upon bus being energized from the 2A EDG
Which ONE of the following describes the status of the CFCs and their cooling water flow?
ALL CFCs are running in ____(1)____ speed AND ONLY the ____(2)____ CFCs have CCW flow.
A.
(1) SLOW
(2) B and D
B.
(1) FAST
(2) B and D
C.
(1) SLOW
(2) C and D
D.
(1) FAST
(2) C and D

Answer 39

D.
(1) FAST
(2) C and D

Question 40

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* HVE-21A, CEDM Cooling Fan is running
* Containment Air Temperature is 92 °F
Subsequently:
* Annunciator X-8, CEDM COOLING HVE-21A FLOW LOW/OVRLD/TRIP alarms
* HVE-21A Ammeter indicates 0 amps
Which ONE of the following describes the response of HVE-21B, CEDM Cooling Fan and the operational requirements?
HVE-21B ____(1)____ AUTOMATICALLY start.
IF CEDM Fan Cooling is NOT restored within 45 minutes of being lost, a ____(2)____ is required in accordance with 2-AOP-25.01, Loss of RCB Cooling Fans.
A.
(1) will
(2) Reactor Trip
B.
(1) will
(2) Normal Shutdown
C.
(1) will NOT
(2) Reactor Trip
D.
(1) will NOT
(2) Normal Shutdown

Answer 40

A.
(1) will
(2) Reactor Trip

Question 41

Given the following conditions:
00:00:00 Unit 2 tripped due to a LOCA
SIAS has actuated
00:01:00
CNTMT PRESS A 5.6 psig
CNTMT PRESS B 5.0 psig
CNTMT PRESS C 5.5 psig
CNTMT PRESS D 5.1 psig
01:00:00
Containment Pressure peaked at 15 psig
03:00:00
2-EOP-03, LOCA, Step 43, Check if Containment Spray can be terminated, is in progress

At time 00:01:00 Containment Spray ____(1)____ actuated.
At time 03:00:00, in accordance with 2-EOP-03, Step 43, Containment Pressure MUST be less than a MAXIMUM of ____(2)____ for Containment Spray to be TERMINATED
A.
(1) has
(2) 3.5 psig
B.
(1) has
(2) 5.0 psig
C.
(1) has NOT
(2) 3.5 psig
D.
(1) has NOT
(2) 5.0 psig

Answer 41

A.
(1) has
(2) 3.5 psig

Question 42

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* A Loss of Load Event occurs
* S/G A Pressure peaked at 950 psig
* S/G B Pressure peaked at 1050 psig
Which ONE of the following describes the TOTAL number of MSSVs that are OPEN?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16

Answer 42

B. 8

Question 43

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 45% power
* The 1B MFW Pump is being restored following maintenance
Subsequently:
* The 1A MFW Pump trips resulting in a Reactor Trip
* ALL AFW pumps have failed
* SPTAs are complete
* 1A S/G WR level = 15%
* 1B S/G WR level = 17%
* The 1B MFW pump is available
* 1-EOP-06, Total Loss of Feed has been entered
Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate actions required and feed rate to the S/G(s) when restoring MFW?
In accordance with 1-EOP-06, the crew will use the 1B MFW pump to feed at a rate ____(1)____.
1-EOP-06, allows flow to be raised after ____(2)____.
A.
(1) as low as possible
(2) feeding for 5 minutes
B.
(1) as low as possible
(2) rising S/G level is observed
C.
(1) limited to 150 gpm
(2) feeding for 5 minutes
D.
(1) limited to 150 gpm
(2) rising S/G level is observed

Answer 43

A.
(1) as low as possible
(2) feeding for 5 minutes

Question 44

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is performing a Turbine startup in accordance with 2-GOP-201, Reactor Plant Startup - Mode 2 to Mode 1
* The Reactor is at 11% and STABLE
* The Turbine is at 520 rpm and RISING
* The Crew is ready to go to the NEXT Turbine Roll Up HOLD point
Which ONE of the following describes the Turbine Speed the crew will STOP at NEXT and the means by which turbine speed is being controlled?
In accordance with 2-GOP-201, turbine speed will be INCREASED to a MAXIMUM of ____(1)____ RPM, utilizing the____(2)____ valves.
A.
(1) 1750
(2) throttle
B.
(1) 1750
(2) governor
C.
(1) 1800
(2) throttle
D.
(1) 1800
(2) governor

Answer 44

A.
(1) 1750
(2) throttle

Question 45

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 2% power
* S/G water level is being maintained with the Motor Driven AFW pumps
Subsequently:
* The 1A Auxiliary Feedwater pump trips
Which ONE of the following describes the expected plant response BEFORE the automatic Reactor and Turbine Trip on Low Steam Generator (S/G) Level?
Reactor Coolant System (RCS) Pressure will ____________.
A. RISE, because the RCS delta T power RISES
B. RISE, because the RCS temperature RISES due to increased S/G temperatures
C. LOWER, because the increased boiling rate in the S/G tube bundle region LOWERS Tavg
D. LOWER, because the S/G level initially RISES, causing a contraction of the RCS inventory

Answer 45

B. RISE, because the RCS temperature RISES due to increased S/G temperatures

Question 46

Which ONE of the following describes the indications of an ELECTRICAL overspeed trip on the 2C AFW Pump?
When Annunciator G-46, 2C AFW Pump Turbine Failure/Trip/SS Isol, alarm is acknowledged and RESET, the Alarm window will ____(1)____ and the indication for MV-08-3, Trip and Throttle valve will show ____(2)____.
A.
(1) CLEAR
(2) GREEN light ONLY
B.
(1) CLEAR
(2) BOTH RED and GREEN lights
C.
(1) remain LOCKED IN
(2) GREEN light ONLY
D.
(1) remain LOCKED IN
(2) BOTH RED and GREEN lights

Answer 46

A.
(1) CLEAR
(2) GREEN light ONLY

Question 47

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* The 1A2 to 1A3 tie breaker opened
* The 1A EDG automatically loaded onto the 1A3 bus
* The crew is in the process of restoring off-site supply to the 1A3 bus
* 1-AOP-47.01A, Loss of A Safety Related AC Bus - Train A, Att. 7 Restoration of Offsite Power with EDG 1A in Operation, is in progress
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below in accordance with 1-AOP-47.01A?
When paralleling with off-site power, the synchroscope is required to be rotating in the ____(1)____ direction.
When the 4.16 KV Bus Tie 1A3 -1A2 (3-2 Tie) breaker is CLOSED, the operator will place the DG Governor to ____(2)____.
A.
(1) clockwise
(2) RAISE
B.
(1) clockwise
(2) LOWER
C.
(1) counter-clockwise
(2) RAISE
D.
(1) counter-clockwise
(2) LOWER

Answer 47

C.
(1) counter-clockwise
(2) RAISE

Question 48

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* The 1AA Battery Charger is out of service
* Annunciator B-20, 125V DC Bus/ 1A Batt Chgr/ Batt Rm Fan Trouble, has just alarmed
* The SNPO has been dispatched to verify the status of the 1A battery charger
Which ONE of the following describes a Main Control Room indication that can be used to determine that the 1A vital DC bus is powered from the associated battery and not from the associated battery charger?
A. A white light above the 1A DC Bus voltmeter on RTGB 101 is lit
B. The 1A DC Bus ammeter on RTGB 101 indicates a discharge rate ONLY
C. The 1A DC Bus voltmeter on RTGB 101 indicates 130VDC slowly lowering ONLY
D. Both an ammeter on RTGB 101 indicates a discharge rate AND the voltmeter on RTGB 101 indicates 130VDC slowly lowering

Answer 48

C. The 1A DC Bus voltmeter on RTGB 101 indicates 130VDC slowly lowering ONLY

Question 49

Which ONE of the following DIRECTLY supplies power to the Unit 2, 2A EDG Air Compressor?
A. PP 211
B. MCC 2A7
C. LC 2A2
D. LC 2A5

Answer 49

B. MCC 2A7

Question 50

Given the following timeline:
00:00:00 Unit 1 tripped and a LOCA and SIAS occurred
00:05:00 AFAS 1 and 2 actuated
00:06:00 AFW is throttled to BOTH S/Gs
00:30:00 LOOP occurs and the 1A EDG output breaker fails to CLOSE
00:31:00 The 1A EDG output breaker is MANUALLY CLOSED
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the AFW system after the 1A EDG breaker is manually CLOSED?
The 1A AFW pump will START ____(1)____.
The 1A AFW Pump Flow Control Valves will ____(2)____.
A.
(1) IMMEDIATELY
(2) GO FULL OPEN
B.
(1) IMMEDIATELY
(2) REMAIN THROTTLED OPEN
C.
(1) after a 15 second time delay
(2) GO FULL OPEN
D.
(1) after a 15 second time delay
(2) REMAIN THROTTLED OPEN

Answer 50

C.
(1) after a 15 second time delay
(2) GO FULL OPEN

Question 51

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* RC-26-61, Control Room Outside Air Int (North OAI Radiation Monitor) has failed
* HVA/ACC-3A, A Control Room Air Conditioner is running
* 2-AOP-25.02, Ventilation Systems is in progress
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Control Room Outside Air Intake (CROAI) ducts and the required actions?
____(1)____ CROAI intake duct(s) isolate(s).
Manual action ____(2)____ required to re-pressurize the control room envelope in accordance with 2-AOP-25.02.
A.
(1) ONLY the NORTH
(2) is
B.
(1) ONLY the NORTH
(2) is NOT
C.
(1) BOTH the NORTH and the SOUTH
(2) is
D.
(1) BOTH the NORTH and the SOUTH
(2) is NOT

Answer 51

C.
(1) BOTH the NORTH and the SOUTH
(2) is

Question 52

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* Containment Fan Cooler HVS-1A/1B/1C/1D are running
* HVA-3A and HVA-3B Control Room Air Conditioners are running
* Crew is performing 1-OSP-03.06B, 1B LPSI Pump Code Run
Subsequently:
* Flow is lost to the Unit 1 “B” CCW Header
Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the plant?
A. Spent Fuel Pool temperatures will RISE
B. 1B LPSI Pump Seal Temperatures will RISE
C. HVA-3B Control Room Air Conditioner will trip
D. Containment Fan Cooler HVS-1B outlet air temperatures RISE

Answer 52

B. 1B LPSI Pump Seal Temperatures will RISE

Question 53

On Unit 2, which ONE of the following describes the Cooling Water arrangement to the instrument air compressors?
NORMAL Cooling water flow is supplied by ____(1)____.
The Instrument Air Compressor EMERGENCY Cooling water can be aligned to ____(2)____ Instrument Air Compressors.
A.
(1) CCW
(2) ONLY the A and B
B.
(1) CCW
(2) A, B, C and D
C.
(1) TCW
(2) ONLY the A and B
D.
(1) TCW
(2) A, B, C and D

Answer 53

C.
(1) TCW
(2) ONLY the A and B

Question 54

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
IAW 2-NOP-68.01, Containment Building Access Hatches-Operation, interlocks that are installed to prevent both airlock doors from being open at the same time must be functional ____(1)____.
A control room annunciator alarms to alert the control room operators ____(2)____ door(s) is(are) OPEN.
A.
(1) in Modes 1 through 4
(2) ONLY if BOTH the “inner” AND “outer”
B.
(1) in Modes 1 through 4
(2) if EITHER the “inner” OR “outer”
C.
(1) ONLY in Modes 1 through 3
(2) ONLY if BOTH the “inner” AND “outer”
D.
(1) ONLY in Modes 1 through 3
(2) if EITHER the “inner” OR “outer”

Answer 54

B.
(1) in Modes 1 through 4
(2) if EITHER the “inner” OR “outer”

Question 55

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* An Event is in progress with the following timeline
TIME:
00:00:00
RCS Pressure 2252 psia
CNTMT ΔP (-) 2.0 in H20 (+) 9.0 in H20
Reactor Cavity Leakage 0.3 gpm
CNTMT Particulate Radiation 2.74 E2 cpm
00:10:00
RCS Pressure 2228 psia
CNTMT ΔP 11.0 gpm
CNTMT Particulate Radiation 2.74 E2 cpm

The following alarms are received simultaneously:
* Annunciator N-46, Reactor Cavity Leakage HIGH
* Annunciator T-15, CNTMT Fan CLR HVS-1C/1D Temp HIGH
Which ONE of the following describes the event in progress and which alarm will be addressed FIRST?
The Event in progress is a(n) ____(1)____ .
In accordance with OP-AA-100-1000, Conduct of Operations, Annunciator ____(2)____ will be addressed FIRST.
A.
(1) RCS Leak
(2) N-46, Reactor Cavity Leakage
B.
(1) RCS Leak
(2) T-15, CNTMT Fan CLR HVS-1C/1D Temp HIGH
C.
(1) Main Steam Leak
(2) N-46, Reactor Cavity Leakage
D.
(1) Main Steam Leak
(2) T-15, CNTMT Fan CLR HVS-1C/1D Temp HIGH

Answer 55

C.
(1) Main Steam Leak
(2) N-46, Reactor Cavity Leakage

Question 56

Which ONE of the following describes the CEDM MG sets power arrangement?
The CEDM MG sets are powered from the ____(1)____ 480V AC ____(2)____.
A.
(1) A1 and B1
(2) MCC
B.
(1) A1 and B1
(2) Load Centers
C.
(1) A2 and B2
(2) MCC
D.
(1) A2 and B2
(2) Load Centers

Answer 56

D.
(1) A2 and B2
(2) Load Centers

Question 57

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* ONE (1) Charging Pump is operating
* Position Limiter Bypass Switch is in NORMAL
* Pressurizer Level Control is selected to Channel “Y”
* Pressurizer Heater Low Level Cutoff Switch is selected to BOTH
Subsequently:
* Pressurizer Level Transmitter Channel “Y” fails LOW
Which ONE of the following describes the response of Charging and Letdown?
Letdown flow will go to ____(1)____ gpm.
____(2)____ Charging Pump(s) will be running.
A.
(1) 0
(2) 2
B.
(1) 0
(2) 3
C.
(1) 29
(2) 2
D.
(1) 29
(2) 3

Answer 57

D.
(1) 29
(2) 3

Question 58

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 has tripped due to an Excess Steam Demand (ESDE) inside containment.
The following Containment and Steam Generator (S/G) conditions existed at the listed times:
TIME: 01:00:00
Contaiment pressure (psig) 3.7
S/G 1A pressure (psia) 860
S/G 1A FW Hdr pressure (psia) 860
S/G 1A NR level 18%
S/G 1B pressure (psia) 860
S/G 1B FW Hdr pressure (psia) 860
S/G 1B NR level 21%
01:02:00
Contaiment pressure (psig) 4.1
S/G 1A pressure (psia) 700
S/G 1A FW Hdr pressure (psia) 700
S/G 1A NR level 12%
S/G 1B pressure (psia) 700
S/G 1B FW Hdr pressure (psia) 700
S/G 1B NR level 18%

01:04:00
Contaiment pressure (psig) 4.3
S/G 1A pressure (psia) 580
S/G 1A FW Hdr pressure (psia) 580
S/G 1A NR level 4%
S/G 1B pressure (psia) 590
S/G 1B FW Hdr pressure (psia) 590
S/G 1B NR level 16%

01:06:00
Contaiment pressure (psig) 4.4
S/G 1A pressure (psia) 430
S/G 1A FW Hdr pressure (psia) 430
S/G 1A NR level 0%
S/G 1B pressure (psia) 590
S/G 1B FW Hdr pressure (psia) 590
S/G 1B NR level 18%

01:08:00
Contaiment pressure (psig) 4.5
S/G 1A pressure (psia) 300
S/G 1A FW Hdr pressure (psia) 300
S/G 1A NR level 0%
S/G 1B pressure (psia) 590
S/G 1B FW Hdr pressure (psia) 590
S/G 1B NR level 21%

• NO operator actions have been taken
  At 01:08:00 hours, which ONE of the following describes the status of Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW) components?
  A. AFW pumps 1A, 1B and 1C are running with ONLY the AFW motor-operated discharge valves to S/G 1B OPEN (MV-09-10, MV-09-12)
  B. AFW pumps 1B and 1C are running with ALL AFW motor-operated discharge valves OPEN (MV-09-09, MV-09-11, MV-09-10, MV-09-12)
  C. AFW pumps 1B and 1C are running with ONLY the AFW motor-operated discharge valves to S/G 1B OPEN (MV-09-10 and MV-09-12)
  D. AFW pumps 1A, 1B and 1C are running with ALL AFW motor-operated discharge valves OPEN (MV-09-09, MV-09-11, MV-09-10, MV-09-12)

Answer 58

A. AFW pumps 1A, 1B and 1C are running with ONLY the AFW motor-operated discharge valves to S/G 1B OPEN ( MV-09-10, MV-09-12)

Question 59

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
A MINIMUM Hydrogen gas accumulation of ≥ ____(1)____ concentration by volume is where combustion can occur.
In accordance with 2-EOP-03, LOCA, Hydrogen concentration is reduced by ____(2)____.
A.
(1) 2.0%
(2) the Hydrogen Recombiners
B.
(1) 2.0%
(2) placing the Containment Main Purge system in service
C.
(1) 4.0%
(2) the Hydrogen Recombiners
D.
(1) 4.0%
(2) placing the Containment Main Purge system in service

Answer 59

C.
(1) 4.0%
(2) the Hydrogen Recombiners

Question 60

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is in Mode 6
* “A” Train Containment Purge is in operation aligned to the Refueling Cavity
* I&C has set the CIS Radiation Monitors trip setpoints to the value required for Moving Recently Irradiated Fuel
* The Upper Guide Structure is being lifted
Subsequently:
* A CIS monitor reads 95 mR/Hr
* B CIS monitor reads 102 mR/Hr
* C CIS monitor reads 85 mR/Hr
* D CIS monitor reads 87 mR/Hr
Which ONE of the following describes the response (if any) of the Containment Purge System?
Containment Purge ____________.
A. is AUTOMATICALLY secured
B. remains in the current configuration
C. suction AUTOMATICALLY aligns to the Reactor Cavity
D. discharge AUTOMATICALLY aligns to the Shield Building Exhaust system

Answer 60

A. is AUTOMATICALLY secured

Question 61

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is shutdown for a refueling outage
* A Full Core Off-Load is in progress
* The 2A and 2B Spent Fuel (SFP) Pumps are running
Subsequently:
* Annunciator N-44, FUEL POOL PUMPS MOTOR OVRLD alarms
The SNPO makes the following report:
* The 2A SFP Cooling Pump is running
* The 2B SFP Cooling Pump is NOT running
* The 2B SFP Pump Local Control Station indicates GREEN light ON; RED light OFF
Which ONE of the following describes the required actions?
In accordance with 2-AOP-04.01, Fuel Pool Cooling System, the Full Core Off-Load ____(1)____ continue.
In accordance with 2-ARP-N44 the 2B SFP Cooling Pump can be restored by resetting the ____(2)____.
A.
(1) may
(2) Breaker
B.
(1) may NOT
(2) Breaker
C.
(1) may
(2) Thermal Overload
D.
(1) may NOT
(2) Thermal Overload

Answer 61

D.
(1) may NOT
(2) Thermal Overload

Question 62

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is performing Physics Testing following a refueling outage
* 2-PTP-81, Reload Startup Physics Testing is in progress
* MTC is slightly positive
* The Reactor is critical at 5 x 10-4 %
* PIC-08-1A, 2A SG Atmos Dump Vlv is in AUTOMATIC
* MV-08-18A, 2A SG Atmos Dump Vlv is 15% OPEN
* PIC-08-1B, 2B SG Atmos Dump Vlv is in MANUAL
* MV-08-19B, 2B SG Atmos Dump Vlv is 15% OPEN
Subsequently:
* PIC-08-1A, DRIFTS, RAISING the OUTPUT demand 8%
Which ONE of the following describes the plant response?
RCS Temperature will ____(1)____.
Reactor Power will ____(2)____.
A.
(1) RISE
(2) RISE
B.
(1) RISE
(2) LOWER
C.
(1) LOWER
(2) RISE
D.
(1) LOWER
(2) LOWER

Answer 62

D.
(1) LOWER
(2) LOWER

Question 63

Which ONE of the following describes the Digital Electro Hydraulic (DEH) system operation regarding the Overspeed Protection Control (OPC) for the Main Turbine?
The OPC circuit will actuate at a MINIMUM of ____(1)____ of rated turbine speed.
This will CLOSE the Governor and ____(2)____ valves.
A.
(1) 103%
(2) Throttle
B.
(1) 103%
(2) Intercept
C.
(1) 111%
(2) Throttle
D.
(1) 111%
(2) Intercept

Answer 63

B.
(1) 103%
(2) Intercept

Question 64

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is performing a Liquid Release
Subsequently:
* Annunciator N-37, LIQUID WASTE RAD HIGH, goes into ALARM
Which ONE of the following describes the required actions in accordance with 1-ARPN37
Liquid Waste Rad High?
A. Throttle V21462, Final Effluent Discharge Valve, to lower the liquid release rate.
B. If current radiation levels are higher than the Liquid Release permit limit, then MANUALLY CLOSE FCV-6627X Liquid Waste Flow Valve.
C. Ensure BOTH the Waste Monitor Pump being used for the liquid release has AUTOMATICALLY stopped and FCV-6627X indicates CLOSED
D. Ensure FCV-6627X, Liquid Waste Flow Valve indicates CLOSED AND FR-6627, Liquid Waste Flow indicates 0 gpm, the Waste Monitor Pump continues to run

Answer 64

D. Ensure FCV-6627X, Liquid Waste Flow Valve indicates CLOSED AND FR-6627, Liquid Waste Flow indicates 0 gpm, the Waste Monitor Pump continues to run

Question 65

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 45% power
* Reactor Regulating System-1 (RRS-1) is Selected
* RRS-1 Loop 1 Selector Switch (S-1) is ON
Subsequently:
* Control Channel Thot RTD, TE-1111X fails HIGH
Which ONE of the following describes how this failure affects the Steam Bypass Control System (SBCS) and the required actions?
IF a Reactor Trip were to occur, SBCS valves ____(1)____ quick open.
In accordance with 1-AOP-01.10, Pressurizer Pressure and Level, the crew is required to ____(2)____.
A.
(1) will
(2) SELECT RRS-2
B.
(1) will
(2) PLACE Loop 2 Selector Switch (S-2) to ON
C.
(1) will NOT
(2) SELECT RRS-2
D.
(1) will NOT
(2) PLACE Loop 2 Selector Switch (S-2) to ON

Answer 65

C.
(1) will NOT
(2) SELECT RRS-2

Question 66

On Unit 1 which ONE of the following parameters can NOT be verified during the performance of the EOPs using the various Distributed Control System (DCS) displays?
A. ECCS Flow
B. CCW Flow rate to the RCPs
C. Subcooled Margin per Figure 1A
D. Secondary Main Steam Line Radiation monitors

Answer 66

B. CCW Flow rate to the RCPs

Question 67

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* A Turbine Cooling Water Leak has developed on the “A” Isophase Bus Cooling Duct
* 2-AOP-13.01, Turbine Cooling Water has been entered
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
When performing local actions to isolate the leak, PEER CHECKS ____(1)____ required in accordance with OP-AA-100-1000, Conduct of Operations.
After the leak has been repaired and the Equipment Clearance Order is being cleared in accordance with OP-AA-101-1000, Clearance and Tagging, when locally setting the position of THROTTLE Valve, V-13339, 2A Isophase Bus Air Cooler Outlet ____(2)____ verification should be used.
A.
(1) are
(2) concurrent
B.
(1) are
(2) independent
C.
(1) are NOT
(2) concurrent
D.
(1) are NOT
(2) independent

Answer 67

C.
(1) are NOT
(2) concurrent

Question 68

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is moving fuel in the reactor core
* ALL Wide Range Neutron flux monitors are operating
* The audible count rate selected to “A” Channel
* ALL CIS monitors are OPERABLE
In accordance with Unit 1 Technical Specifications, which ONE of the following events would require the immediate suspension of fuel movement in the reactor core?
Loss of the ____________,
A. Channel “A” CIS monitor
B. audible count rate in the Containment
C. audible count rate in the Control Room
D. Channel “B” and “D” Wide Range Neutron flux monitors

Answer 68

B. audible count rate in the Containment

Question 69

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* I&C is to perform a calibration on RSC-26-2, A ECCS Rad Monitor
* The calibration has just started and will be completed during the shift
Which ONE of the following describes the requirement to place RSC-26-2 into the Equipment Out of Service (EOOS) Log (Action Tracking) in accordance with ADM-09.22, Equipment Out of Service?
A. RSC-26-2 is NOT a Tech Spec Rad Monitor, therefore NO EOOS Log entry is required
B. RSC-26-2 MUST always be entered into the EOOS Log if out of service (Inoperable)
C. RSC-26-2 WILL need to be entered into the EOOS Log if it is NOT back in service (Operable) within 4 hours of being out of service
D. Since RSC-26-2 is expected to be back in service (Operable) before the end of the current shift, entry into the EOOS Log is at the discretion of the SM/US/WCCS

Answer 69

D. Since RSC-26-2 is expected to be back in service (Operable) before the end of the current shift, entry into the EOOS Log is at the discretion of the SM/US/WCCS

Question 70

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 hung an equipment clearance order on V3540, HPSI TO HOT LOOP 2A VALVE
* As a result, Annunciator Q-26, HPSI TO HOT LEG 2A V3540/V3550 OVRLD alarmed and remained locked in
* The alarm was NOT discussed during the pre-job brief
Which ONE of the following describes the type of alarm and how the alarm will be identified in the control room?
In accordance with the OP-AA-100-1000, Conduct of Operations, this annunciator is defined as ____(1)____.
This annunciator window will be identified by placing a ____(2)____ mylar film on the window.
A.
(1) EXPECTED
(2) GREEN
B.
(1) EXPECTED
(2) YELLOW
C.
(1) UN-EXPECTED
(2) GREEN
D.
(1) UN-EXPECTED
(2) YELLOW

Answer 70

C.
(1) UN-EXPECTED
(2) GREEN

Question 71

Which ONE of the following describes the location and Tech Spec applicability of the following Unit 2 Radiation Monitors?
The Containment High Range Radiation Monitors are located ____(1)____ containment and they ____(2)____ Tech Spec Radiation Monitors.
A.
(1) inside
(2) are
B.
(1) inside
(2) are NOT
C.
(1) outside
(2) are
D.
(1) outside
(2) are NOT

Answer 71

A.
(1) inside
(2) are

Question 72

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is in a refueling outage
* You are to brief 2 jobs:
* ECO for racking out the 1C CCW Pump breaker
* Irradiated Fuel Assembly inspections in the Spent Fuel Pool (SFP)
* BOTH Areas are posted as radiation areas
* The SFP is posted as a contaminated area
Which ONE of the following describes the Radiation Work Permit (RWP) requirements for entry into these areas in accordance with ADM-05.03, Radiation Work Permits?
The 1C CCW Pump ECO job requires a ____(1)____.
The Irradiated Fuel Assembly inspections job requires a ____(2)____.
A.
(1) Job Specific RWP
(2) Job Specific RWP
B.
(1) Job Specific RWP
(2) Operations General entry RWP
C.
(1) Operations General entry RWP
(2) Job Specific RWP
D.
(1) Operations General entry RWP
(2) Operations General entry RWP

Answer 72

C.
(1) Operations General entry RWP
(2) Job Specific RWP

Question 73

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is experiencing a LOCA
* 1-EOP-03, LOCA is in progress
* RCS Pressure is 1300 psia and STABLE
* Containment Temperature is 214 °F
* Containment Pressure is 8.0 psig and RISING
Subsequently:
* CSAS actuates
* Containment Temperature LOWERS to 187 °F
* Containment Pressure LOWERS to 5.0 psig
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
Prior to CSAS, the CAUTION in 1-EOP-03, states that the crew should use ____(1)____ to verify subcooling.
After the CSAS, the CAUTION in 1-EOP-03, states that the crew should use ____(2)____ to verify subcooling.
A.
(1) Figure 1A
(2) Figure 1A
B.
(1) Figure 1A
(2) Figure 1B
C.
(1) Figure 1B
(2) Figure 1A
D.
(1) Figure 1B
(2) Figure 1B

Answer 73

C.
(1) Figure 1B
(2) Figure 1A

Question 74

Given the following conditions:
* A Fire Notifier Panel trouble alarm is received
Subsequently:
* The Unit 2 Control Room Notifier Fire Panel fails
* I & C has been notified of the failure
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The crew will be informed of the TROUBLE alarm by an ____(1)____.
When the Notifier Fire Panel fails, in accordance with 0-NOP-79.01, Fire Detection System, the crew is required to ____(2)____.
A.
(1) audible alarm ONLY
(2) Notify Security to commence continuous roving fire watches to ALL vital areas on Unit 2
B.
(1) audible alarm ONLY
(2) Station an Operator at the FS-90 Master Local Fire Alarm Panel on Unit 2 to monitor and report fire alarms to the Unit 2 Control Room
C.
(1) audible alarm and a flashing strobe light
(2) Notify Security to commence continuous roving fire watches to ALL vital areas on Unit 2
D.
(1) audible alarm and a flashing strobe light
(2) Station an Operator at the FS-90 Master Local Fire Alarm Panel on Unit 2 to monitor and report fire alarms to the Unit 2 Control Room

Answer 74

B.
(1) audible alarm ONLY
(2) Station an Operator at the FS-90 Master Local Fire Alarm Panel on Unit 2 to monitor and report fire alarms to the Unit 2 Control Room

Question 75

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 has tripped due to a S/G Tube Rupture and a Loss of Coolant Accident
* The ruptured S/G has been isolated
* 1-EOP-99, Figure 2 is MET
* Containment Temp is 185 °F
* REP CET is 460 °F
* Pressurizer pressure is 600 psia
Which ONE of the following is the MAXIMUM cooldown limit in any ONE hour period?
(REFERENCE PROVIDED)
A. 30 °F
B. 50 °F
C. 70 °F
D. 100 °F

Answer 75

D. 100 °F

Question 76

Given the following timeline:
12:00:00 Unit 1 is in Mode 5
RCS level is 33 ft
The 1A train of SDC is in service the 1B train is in Standby
12:03:00
RCS Level is 32 ft and LOWERING
1-AOP-01.08, RCS Leakage is entered
12:05:00
The SDC Pump Trip Criteria on RCS Level is MET
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
1-AOP-01.08 requires the SDC Pumps to be secured at a MINIMUM level of ____(1)____.
IF at 12:20:00, the crew has NOT restored RCS Level and SDC flow; the Crew is required to ____(2)____.
Note: 1-ONP-01.04, Plant Condition 4 SDC in Operation with Reduced Inventory
A.
(1) 31 ft 3 inches
(2) GO TO 1-ONP-01.04
B.
(1) 31 ft 3 inches
(2) remain in 1-AOP-01.08 and Initiate Safety Function status checks of 1-ONP-01.04
C.
(1) 29 ft 9.5 inches
(2) GO TO 1-ONP-01.04
D.
(1) 29 ft 9.5 inches
(2) remain in 1-AOP-01.08 and Initiate Safety Function status checks of 1-ONP-01.04

Answer 76

C.
(1) 29 ft 9.5 inches
(2) GO TO 1-ONP-01.04

Question 77

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 has experienced a SGTR
* 1-EOP-04, SGTR is in progress at step 10 INITIATE lowering RCS
Temperature to less than 510 °F
Which ONE of following completes the statement below?
The RCS is cooled down to less than a ____(1)____ of 510 °F, in accordance with 1-EOP-04, Step 10.
The purpose of this action ____(2)____ to prevent a MSSV from lifting after the S/G is isolated in accordance with CEN 152, BD-E-4, SGTR Basis.
A.
(1) Thot
(2) is
B.
(1) Thot
(2) is NOT
C.
(1) Rep CET
(2) is
D.
(1) Rep CET
(2) is NOT

Answer 77

A.
(1) Thot
(2) is

Question 78

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 has tripped due to the loss of the 2A Main Feedwater Pump
* A Main Steam Safety Valve (MSSV) on the 2A Steam Generator stuck OPEN and has failed to reseat
* A Steam Generator Tube leak on the 2B S/G was identified post trip
* The crew has entered 2-EOP-15, Functional Recovery
* The MSIVs were CLOSED
* 2A S/G pressure is 710 psia LOWERING
* 2B S/G pressure is 790 psia STABLE
Which ONE of the following describes:
(1) the MOST affected S/G?
AND
(2) when the faulted S/G is NO longer considered FAULTED?
A.
(1) 2A S/G is the MOST affected S/G
(2) When the MSSV is gagged
B.
(1) 2A S/G is the MOST affected S/G
(2) When 2-EOP-99, Appendix R, Steam Generator Isolation is complete
C.
(1) 2B S/G is the MOST affected S/G
(2) When the MSSV is gagged
D.
(1) 2B S/G is the MOST affected S/G
(2) When 2-EOP-99, Appendix R, Steam Generator Isolation is complete

Answer 78

A.
(1) 2A S/G is the MOST affected S/G
(2) When the MSSV is gagged

Question 79

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* 1A EDG is out of service
* The 1AB Electrical Busses are aligned to the “B” side
Subsequently:
* A Loss of Off-Site Power and Reactor Trip occurs
* The 1A DC bus is energized from the 1AB Battery Charger
* ONLY the 1AB DC has been aligned to the “A” side
Which ONE of the following describes the battery rating and the requirements regarding the 1A DC Busses?
The 1A DC Battery is rated to operate for a MAXIMUM of ____(1)____ hours without the assistance of a battery charger during emergency operations.
Per ADM-11.16, the 1AB battery charger ____(2)____ be used to satisfy Tech Spec
Surveillance Requirement for verifying D.C. Train operability per 4.8.2.3.1, D.C. Distribution – Operating.
NOTE: ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence
A.
(1) 2
(2) can
B.
(1) 2
(2) can NOT
C.
(1) 4
(2) can
D.
(1) 4
(2) can NOT

Answer 79

D.
(1) 4
(2) can NOT

Question 80

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
Subsequently:
* Annunciator, A-43, 120V AC INSTR BUS MB/ INVERTER TROUBLE ALARMS
* The BRCO reports ALL lights on RPS channel “B” are OFF
Which ONE of the following describes the impact on the plant, and the appropriate response?
____(1)____ Trip Circuit Breakers will OPEN.
In accordance with ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence, the Unit will enter ____(2)____.
NOTE: Unit 1 Tech Specs (TS), 3.8.2.1, ONSITE Power Distribution – Operating Unit 2 Tech Specs (TS), 3.8.3.1, ONSITE Power Distribution – Operating
A.
(1) 2
(2) Unit 1 TS, 3.8.2.1 ONLY
B.
(1) 2
(2) Unit 1 TS, 3.8.2.1 and administratively apply the actions of the Unit 2 TS 3.8.3.1
C.
(1) 4
(2) Unit 1 TS, 3.8.2.1 ONLY
D.
(1) 4
(2) Unit 1 TS, 3.8.2.1 and administratively apply the actions of the Unit 2 TS 3.8.3.1

Answer 80

D.
(1) 4
(2) Unit 1 TS, 3.8.2.1 and administratively apply the actions of the Unit 2 TS 3.8.3.1

Question 81

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 has experienced a Total Loss of Feedwater
* 1-EOP-06, Total Loss of Feedwater is in progress at Step 11, Verify RCS Heat Removal
* 1A S/G level is 17% wide range
* 1B S/G level is 4% wide range
* The Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADVs) are FULL OPEN
* Tcold has RISEN steadily from 535° to 541°F over the past 3 minutes
Which ONE of the following describes the parameter requiring Once Through Cooling (OTC) in accordance with 1-EOP-06, and the required procedure path for performing OTC?
Based on ____(1)____, the US directs ____(2)____.
Note: 1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery
A.
(1) S/G Levels
(2) exiting 1-EOP-06, go to 1-EOP-15, Step 1 and initiate once-through cooling when the required HR-3 step is reached
B.
(1) S/G Levels
(2) initiating once-through cooling by referring to 1-EOP-15, HR-3 success path 3 then exiting 1-EOP-06 and entering 1-EOP-15 at step 1
C.
(1) Tcold RISE
(2) exiting 1-EOP-06, go to 1-EOP-15, Step 1 and initiate once-through cooling when the required HR-3 step is reached
D.
(1) Tcold RISE
(2) initiating once-through cooling by referring to 1-EOP-15, HR-3 success path 3 then exiting 1-EOP-06 and entering 1-EOP-15 at step 1

Answer 81

D.
(1) Tcold RISE
(2) initiating once-through cooling by referring to 1-EOP-15, HR-3 success path 3 then exiting 1-EOP-06 and entering 1-EOP-15 at step 1

Question 82

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 has experienced a Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA)
* The Crew is performing the steps of 2-EOP-03, LOCA
* RCS Pressure is 280 psia
* Rep CET Temperature is 660°F
* The Crew has transitioned to 2-EOP-15, Functional Recovery
* Containment Temperature is 225°F and RISING
* Containment Pressure is 44 psia and RISING
* Annunciator, S-17 CNTMT Press High CSAS Channel Trip is LIT
10 minutes later:
* Annunciator, S-17 CNTMT Press High CSAS Channel Trip CLEARS
Which ONE of the following describes a possible cause of S-17 clearing, and based on that cause, describe the correct emergency classification without using Emergency Coordinator judgement to elevate the classification in accordance with EPIP-01, Classification of Emergencies?
S-17 CLEARED due to the ____(1)____ and the appropriate classification is a ____(2)____.
(REFERENCE PROVIDED)
A.
(1) Containment Failing
(2) SAE
B.
(1) Containment Failing
(2) GE
C.
(1) Containment Spray reduced Containment pressure
(2) SAE
D.
(1) Containment Spray reduced Containment pressure
(2) GE

Answer 82

B.
(1) Containment Failing
(2) GE

Question 83

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is in 2-EOP-04, Steam Generator Tube Rupture, with a Loss of Offsite Power
* The 2B S/G has been isolated
* The “CLOSE” fuses for RCPs 2B1 & 2B2 have been removed
Which ONE of the following describes the 2-EOP-04 bases for removal of the “CLOSE” fuses?
Upon power restoration, an RCP start could result in ________.
A. a RCP seal failure
B. a positive reactivity event
C. operating RCPs outside of NPSH requirements
D. a pressure spike that could exceed the upper limits of Figure 1A

Answer 83

B. a positive reactivity event

Question 84

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power performing 1-OSP-99.08, A Train Quarterly Non Check Valve Cycle Test
* V5200 and V5203, RCS Hot Leg Sample Isolation valves have just been exercised
* V5200 closed stroke time was satisfactory
* V5203 EXCEEDED the max allowable closed stroke time
* Post testing, V5200 and V5203 were verified to be CLOSED in the control room and locally
Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?
In accordance with ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence and Unit 1 TS, 3.6.3.1, Containment Isolation Valves, ________.
A. no additional action is required as long as V5200 and V5203 remain CLOSED
B. within 4 hours, at a MINIMUM, EITHER V5200 OR V5203 MUST be deactivated by removing control power fuses
C. within 4 hours, at a MINIMUM, BOTH V5200 and V5203 MUST be deactivated by removing control power fuses
D. within 4 hours, at a MINIMUM, BOTH V5200 MUST be deactivated by removing control power fuses AND a manual isolation valve in the flow path must be CLOSED

Answer 84

B. within 4 hours, at a MINIMUM, EITHER V5200 OR V5203 MUST be deactivated by removing control power fuses

Question 85

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 has tripped with a Loss of Offsite power
* The 1A EDG failed to START
* The Crew is about to exit 1-EOP-01, Standard Post Trip Actions
* Pressurizer pressure is 900 psia and RISING
* ECCS flow is 450 gpm
* Pressurizer level is 15% and RISING
* CET is 338°F and Thot is 330°F slowly LOWERING
* 1A SG is 30 psia and STABLE
* 1B SG is 750 psia and STABLE
* 1A SG level is 5% Wide range with ‘0’ AFW flow
* 1B SG level is 25% Narrow range and RISING with 150 gpm AFW flow
* Containment pressure is 0 psig
* Reactor vessel level indicates 4-8 covered
* SJAE radiation monitor had a RISING trend prior to the trip
Which ONE of the following describes the required procedure selection and actions?
The US ____(1)____ required to implement 1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery and depressurize the RCS using Aux. Spray for the purpose of ____(2)____.
(REFERENCE PROVIDED)
A.
(1) is
(2) LOWERING subcooling
B.
(1) is
(2) RAISING Safety Injection flow
C.
(1) is NOT
(2) LOWERING subcooling
D.
(1) is NOT
(2) RAISING Safety Injection flow

Answer 85

A.
(1) is
(2) LOWERING subcooling

Question 86

Given the following timeline:
00:00:00
Unit 2 is at 100% power
RCS Pressure: 2250 psia
2A1 Middle Seal Cavity Pressure: 2150 psig
2A1 Upper Seal Cavity Pressure: 1000 psig
2A1 Bleedoff Cavity Pressure: 110 psig
2-AOP-01.09A1, 2A1 Reactor Coolant Pump has been entered
00:30:00
The Reactor is manually tripped due to degrading conditions that meet
trip criteria described in 2-AOP-01.09A1
Which ONE of the following describes the status of the 2A1 RCP seals and the required report of the event in accordance with LI-AA-102-1001, Regulatory Reporting?
At time 00:00:00, the 2A1 RCP ____(1)____ is(are) failed.
In accordance with LI-AA-102-1001, the required report is a(n) ____(2)____ report.
(REFERENCE PROVIDED)
A.
(1) LOWER seal ONLY
(2) 4 hour
B.
(1) LOWER seal ONLY
(2) 8 hour
C.
(1) LOWER and MIDDLE seals
(2) 4 hour
D.
(1) LOWER and MIDDLE seals
(2) 8 hour

Answer 86

A.
(1) LOWER seal ONLY
(2) 4 hour

Question 87

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is in Mode 4 performing a cooldown for a refueling outage
* RCS Temperature is 305 °F
* “A” and “B” SDC Trains are in service
* ALL “AB” Electrical Busses are aligned to the “B” side
Subsequently:
* The 1A Component Cooling Water (CCW) pump trips
The crew has entered 1-AOP-14.01, Component Cooling Water Abnormal Operations and performed the following actions:
* ONLY the 1AB 4160 VAC bus is aligned to the “A” side
* The 1C CCW pump has been mechanically aligned to the to the “A” side
* Cooling Water Flow has been isolated to the Shutdown Cooling (SDC) HX
* The 1C CCW pump has been started
Which ONE of the following describes the reason the cooling water flow is isolated to the SDC HX prior to start of the 1C CCW pump in accordance with 1-AOP-14.01, and the Tech Specs compliance after the 1C CCW pump has been started?
The cooling water flow is isolated to limit flashing on the ____(1)____ side of the SDC HX.
When the 1C CCW pump has been started, Tech Spec 3.7.3, Component Cooling Water System is ____(2)____.
A.
(1) CCW
(2) met
B.
(1) CCW
(2) NOT met
C.
(1) RCS
(2) met
D.
(1) RCS
(2) NOT met

Answer 87

B.
(1) CCW
(2) NOT me

Question 88

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
Subsequently:
* Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWT) Level Transmitter LIS-07-2A fails LOW
* 2-AOP-99.01, Loss of Tech Spec Instrumentation has been entered
Which ONE of the following describes the required action(s) and the Tech Spec implication for continued operation?
2-AOP-99.01, ____(1)____ allow placing the RWT Low Level Bistable in BYPASS.
In accordance with TS 3.3.2, ESFAS Instrumentation, when the bistable action is complete, operation ____(2)____ be continued until the NEXT cold shutdown.
A.
(1) does
(2) can
B.
(1) does
(2) can NOT
C.
(1) does NOT
(2) can
D.
(1) does NOT
(2) can NOT

Answer 88

B.
(1) does
(2) can NOT

Question 89

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* Pressurizer Level Control is selected to Channel “Y”
* Pressurizer Backup Heaters B1 are out of service due to a breaker failure
Subsequently:
* Pressurizer Level Transmitter, LT-1100Y fails LOW
* 2-AOP-01.10, Pressurizer Pressure and Level, Att. 5, Recovering Power to Pressurizer Heaters has been completed
Which ONE of the following describes the heaters that can be recovered and the applicable Tech Spec requirements?
Based on the given conditions ____(1)____ can be recovered. Tech Spec 3.4.3,
Pressurizer, Action (b) ____(2)____ required to be entered.
(REFERENCE PROVIDED)
A.
(1) B2 and B3 heaters ONLY
(2) is
B.
(1) B2 and B3 heaters ONLY
(2) is NOT
C.
(1) B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 heaters
(2) is
D.
(1) B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 heaters
(2) is NOT

Answer 89

A.
(1) B2 and B3 heaters ONLY
(2) is

Question 90

Given the following Unit 1 timeline:
* 1-EOP-03 is in progress
Time:
1352
RCS pressure: 310 psia
CET: 400 °F
ECCS Flow: 750 gpm
Pressurizer level: 20%
A S/G NR level: 55%
B S/G NR level: 56%
Containment Temp: 185 °F
RVLMS Sensors 4-8: covered
1417
RCS pressure: 300 psia
CET: 390 °F
ECCS Flow: 800 gpm
Pressurizer level: 40%
A S/G NR level: 51%
B S/G NR level: 52%
Containment Temp: 185 °F
RVLMS Sensors 4-8: covered

Which ONE of the following describes the EOP implementation strategy?
NOTE: 1-EOP-03, Loss of Coolant Accident
1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery
(REFERENCE PROVIDED)
A. Continue with 1-EOP-03 and depressurize the RCS to increase ECCS flow
B. Exit to 1-EOP-15, IC-2 will be the first safety function that will be addressed
C. Exit to 1-EOP-15, HR-2 will be the first safety function that will be addressed
D. Continue with 1-EOP-03, throttle HPSI flow per Appendix S, Safety Injection Throttling and Restoration

Answer 90

C. Exit to 1-EOP-15, HR-2 will be the first safety function that will be addressed

Question 91

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* JI-006A, Axial Power Shape (ASI) indicates FULL Scale MAX Positive
* Beacon is in service with ALL In-Core detectors OPERABLE
The following Annunciators are LIT:
* L-9, Reactor Power High Channel Trip
* L-22, Local Power Density Channel Trip
* L-34, Nuclear/ΔT Power Channel Deviation
* L-36, TM/LP Channel Trip
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The ____(1)____ detector has failed HIGH.
Azimuthal Power Tilt per TS 3.2.4, Azimuthal Power Tilt - Tq ____(2)____ required to be determined at least once per 12 hours.
A.
(1) UPPER
(2) is
B.
(1) UPPER
(2) is NOT
C.
(1) LOWER
(2) is
D.
(1) LOWER
(2) is NOT

Answer 91

C.
(1) LOWER
(2) is

Question 92

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* A Containment Entry is planned
* Site Safety reports the Containment Atmosphere for Carbon Monoxide (CO) is too HIGH to support entry
* A continuous containment purge is required to reduce the “CO” concentration
Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate purge method and the Tech Spec entry requirements?
The Crew will perform the purge using ____(1)____ and apply Tech Spec ____(2)____
A.
(1) HVE-7 A/B, Cont CNTMT/H2 Purge Fan, through the Continuous Purge (mini-purge) mode filter train IAW 1-NOP-25.02, Hydrogen Purge System
(2) 3.6.3.1, Containment Isolation Valves, action statement to isolate the flow path within the specified time
B.
(1) HVE-7 A/B, Cont CNTMT/H2 Purge Fan, through the Continuous Purge (mini-purge) mode filter train IAW 1-NOP-25.02, Hydrogen Purge System
(2) 3.6.1.1, Containment Vessel Integrity for the required contingency actions using a dedicated operator in continuous communication with the control room
C.
(1) HVE-8 A/B, Centrifugal Fan for Containment, Purge System through the Main Purge IAW 1-NOP-06.20, Controlled Gaseous Batch Release to Atmosphere
(2) 3.6.3.1, Containment Isolation Valves, action statement to isolate the flow path within the specified time
D.
(1) HVE-8 A/B, Centrifugal Fan for Containment, Purge System through the Main Purge IAW 1-NOP-06.20, Controlled Gaseous Batch Release to Atmosphere
(2) 3.6.1.1, Containment Integrity Bases Station a dedicated operator in continuous communication with the control room

Answer 92

B.
(1) HVE-7 A/B, Cont CNTMT/H2 Purge Fan, through the Continuous
Purge (mini-purge) mode filter train IAW 1-NOP-25.02, Hydrogen Purge System
(2) 3.6.1.1, Containment Vessel Integrity for the required contingency actions using a dedicated operator in continuous communication with the control room

Question 93

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* A team has entered the Unit 2 Containment for a valve inspection
* A blown fuse results in a loss of the power to RIS-26-3, “A” Channel Containment (CIS) Radiation Monitor
* The crew has entered 2-AOP-26.02, Area Radiation Monitors
* The crew has bypassed the failed ESFAS channel
Subsequently:
* I&C reports the repair is expected to take 50 hours to complete
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The containment evacuation alarm ____(1)____ AUTOMATICALLY upon the fuse failure.
In accordance with TS 3.3.2, ESFAS Instrumentation and based on the expected time to repair, the “A” CIS Radiation bistable ____(2)____ during the entire repair window.
A.
(1) sounded
(2) MUST be placed in trip
B.
(1) did not sound
(2) MUST be placed in trip
C.
(1) sounded
(2) MAY be maintained in bypass
D.
(1) did not sound
(2) MAY be maintained in bypass

Answer 93

C.
(1) sounded
(2) MAY be maintained in bypass

Question 94

Given the following conditions:
* BOTH Units are at 100% power
* MINIMUM Shift Crew Complement is filling ALL required positions
POSITION QUALIFICATION
SM SM SRO ONLY
U1 US SRO ONLY
U2 US SRO / STA ONLY
STA SRO / STA ONLY
* At 03:30 the Unit 1 Desk RCO (DRCO) had to leave site due to an emergency
In accordance with OPS Policy 201, Shift Complement, which ONE of the following describes how the position can be filled.
The VACANT DRCO Position ________.
A. can be left VACANT until the scheduled end of shift
B. can be filled by the STA fulfilling DRCO/STA dual roles
C. MUST be filled by the Call out of a Licensed Operator ONLY
D. can be filled by the U1 US filling the DRCO Position after being relieved by the STA fulfilling US/STA dual roles

Answer 94

D. can be filled by the U1 US filling the DRCO Position after being relieved by the STA fulfilling US/STA dual roles

Question 95

Given the following conditions:
* An Event requiring activation of the ERO is in progress
* NO Radioactive releases have occurred
Which ONE of the following describes the MINIMUM Emergency Action Level declaration that a Site Evacuation of non-essential personnel is mandatory, and the location that Extra Licensed Operators will report?
Site Evacuation of non-essential personnel is required at ____(1)____ .
Extra LICENSED Operators report to the ____(2)____ .
A.
(1) ALERT
(2) OSC
B.
(1) ALERT
(2) Control Room
C.
(1) Site Area Emergency
(2) OSC
D.
(1) Site Area Emergency
(2) Control Room

Answer 95

D.
(1) Site Area Emergency
(2) Control Room

Question 96

Given the following conditions:
* 2 Departments, Electrical and I&C Maintenance are scheduled to work on the 1A1 Debris Filter System CONCURRENTLY utilizing a generic troubleshooting guide
* The work is expected to take 2 shifts
* They are requesting to use DIRECT CONTROL in accordance with OP-AA-101-1000, Clearance and Tagging
* The Electrical Disconnect switch is within line of sight of the work site
* BOTH the Electrical and I&C Maintenance Departments have verified the disconnect will completely isolate the energy source
Which ONE of the following describes who is responsible for authorizing use of DIRECT CONTROL and if DIRECT CONTROL can be authorized in this case?
The ____(1)____ authorizes use of DIRECT CONTROL.
Regarding the evolution described above, DIRECT CONTROL ____(2)____ be authorized.
A.
(1) Operations Manager
(2) can
B.
(1) Operations Manager
(2) can NOT
C.
(1) Operations Shift Supervision
(2) can
D.
(1) Operations Shift Supervision
(2) can NOT

Answer 96

D.
(1) Operations Shift Supervision
(2) can NOT

Question 97

Which ONE of the following describes evolutions that are defined as an Infrequently
Performed Evolution in accordance with OP-AA-1000, Conduct of Infrequently
Performed Tests or Evolutions (IPTE), Attachment 2, Infrequently Performed Evolutions?
1-PTP-91, Unit 1 Initial Criticality Following Refueling, ____(1)____ listed as an IPTE.
1-OSP-66.01, Control Element Assembly Exercise, ____(2)____ listed as an IPTE.
A.
(1) is
(2) is
B.
(1) is
(2) is NOT
C.
(1) is NOT
(2) is
D.
(1) is NOT
(2) is NOT

Answer 97

B.
(1) is
(2) is NOT

Question 98

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* A radioactive liquid release is in progress from the 1B Waste Monitor Storage Tank
* Liquid Release Permit # 17-52 was issued to authorize this release
* After 30 minutes, liquid radwaste discharge radiation monitor channel R-6627(channel #43) alarms, the monitor indicates off-scale HIGH
* The Desk RCO reports that all the actions of 1-AOP-06.02,Uncontrolled Release of Radioactive Liquids, have been completed
* I&C reports that Channel R-6627 has failed HIGH and will be out of service for at least 60 days
Which ONE of the following describes the required actions to properly complete the discharge from the 1B Waste Monitor Storage Tank?
A. Issue a new release permit with independent samples and valve lineup verifications
B. Restart the release using permit #17-52, after performing a second independent release rate calculation
C. Issue a new release permit using periodic radioactive tank analysis (grab samples) in lieu of an OPERABLE radiation monitor
D. Restart the release using permit #17-52 with periodic radioactive tank analysis (grab samples) in lieu of an OPERABLE radiation monitor

Answer 98

A. Issue a new release permit with independent samples and valve lineup verifications

Question 99

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is implementing 1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery
The STA reports the following safety function status:
* RCS Pressure Control is met by PC-3, Saturated Control
* RCS Inventory Control is met by IC-2, Safety Injection
* Cntmt Press & Temp is NOT met
* Containment Isolation is NOT met
Which ONE of the following describes the priority for performing the 1-EOP-15 Success Paths?
A. CI-1, CTPC-3, IC-2, PC-3
B. CI-1, CTPC-3, PC-3, IC-2
C. CTPC-3, CI-1, IC-2, PC-3
D. CTPC-3, CI-1, PC-3, IC-2

Answer 99

A. CI-1, CTPC-3, IC-2, PC-3

Question 100

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 has experienced a Large Break LOCA
* General Emergency has been declared
* BOTH the Technical Support Center (TSC) and the Operational Support Center (OSC) are OPERATIONAL
Subsequently:
* The Unit 1 SNPO has been dispatched to perform operations in an attempt to control effluent releases to avoid extensive exposure of large populations
Which ONE of the following describes the MAXIMUM TEDE exposure limit for the task and whose authorization is required?
In accordance with EPIP-02, Duties and Responsibilities of the Emergency Coordinator the MAXIMUM TEDE limit is ____(1)____ .
In accordance with EPIP-05, Activation and Operation of the Operational Support Center, the SM ____(2)____ authorize the exposure.
A.
(1) 10 REM
(2) can
B.
(1) 10 REM
(2) can NOT
C.
(1) 25 REM
(2) can
D.
(1) 25 REM
(2) can NOT

Answer 100

D.
(1) 25 REM
(2) can NOT