HLC 21 Flashcards
Given the following:
2 LED’s are lit on the Acoustic Monitor display for PORV V1402.
Pressurizer Pressure is 2000 psia.
Pressurizer Temperature is 636ºF
Quench Tank Pressure is being maintained at 5 psig.
Which ONE of the following is:
1) the condition of the fluid downstream of the relief valve AND
2) the approximate temperature on TIA-1106, “Relief Valves”?
(references provided)
A.
1) Superheated Steam
2) 245ºF
B.
1) Superheated Steam
2) 230ºF
C.
1) Wet Vapor
2) 230ºF
D.
1) Wet Vapor
2) 245ºF
C.
1) Wet Vapor
2) 230ºF
Given the following conditions:
The Unit 1 and Unit 2 reactors have experienced a reactor trip.
While performing EOP-01 ‘Standard Post Trip Actions’ which ONE of the following annunciators, should be addressed FIRST?
(Evaluate each choice independently)
A. Unit 1: Annunciator A-60, 125V DC BUS 1AB UV.
B. Unit 2: Annunciator G-24, 15% BYPASS LCV 9005 / 9006 5% FLOW.
C. Unit 1: Annunciator J-19, 1A1 RCP SEAL TROUBLE COOLING WATER FLOW LOW.
D. Unit 2: Annunciator A-43, 120V AC INVTR 2B / INSTR BUS 2MB/2MB-1 TROUBLE.
A. Unit 1: Annunciator A-60, 125V DC BUS 1AB UV.
Unit 1 is conducting a heatup IAW 1-GOP-303, ‘Reactor Plant Heatup - Mode 3 <1750 to Mode
3 >1750.’ RCS pressure is 1680 psia. Pressurizer level is 28%.
Ten minutes later a 200 gpm RCS leak develops. RCS pressure is 1580 psia and lowering
rapidly. Pressurizer level is 20% and lowering. The mitigating procedure(s) for the RCS leak has been entered.
For the above conditions, SIAS should:
A. NOT be manually actuated because automatic actuation has already occurred.
B. NOT be manually actuated because conditions for manual actuation have not been reached.
C. be manually actuated because automatic actuation did not occur but should have for the stated conditions.
D. be manually actuated because signals that would result in automatic actuation are currently blocked.
D. be manually actuated because signals that would result in automatic actuation are currently blocked.
Unit 1 is performing a cooldown for a refueling outage with the following initial conditions:
RCS pressure is 1420 psia
Pressurizer level is 35%
Tave is 470°F
Pressurizer pressure and level are now dropping rapidly and currently indicate:
RCS pressure is 620 psia
Pressurizer level is 0%
Tave is 468°F
Which ONE of the following states ALL the procedure(s) that will be implemented and / or referenced?
A. 1-EOP-03, ‘LOCA’.
B. 1-AOP-01.08, ‘RCS Leakage Abnormal Operations’.
C. 1-AOP-01.08, ‘RCS Leakage Abnormal Operations’. AND 1-ONP-01.01, Plant Condition 1 Steam Generator Heat Removal LTOP Not in Effect.
D. 1-AOP-01.08, ‘RCS Leakage Abnormal Operations’. AND 1-ONP-01.02, Plant Condition 2 Steam Generator Heat Removal LTOP in Effect.
C. 1-AOP-01.08, ‘RCS Leakage Abnormal Operations’. AND 1-ONP-01.01, Plant Condition 1 Steam Generator Heat Removal LTOP Not in Effect.
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the following:
TIME
1306: R-26-56, CCW radiation monitor, has just gone into alarm.
1307: Due to rising Controlled Bleedoff temperature on 1A1 RCP, 1-AOP-01.09A1, “1A1 Reactor Coolant Pump” was entered.
Based on the given conditions, which ONE of the following describes:
1) The actions taken for HCV-14-11A1, Seal Cooler HX Isolation Valve?
2) Subsequent actions the crew should take?
A.
1) Place the control switch for HCV-14-11A1 in CLOSE.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if EITHER Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F OR CCW not restored within 10 minutes.
B.
1) Place the control switch for HCV-14-11A1 in CLOSE.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F AND CCW not restored within 10 minutes.
C.
1) Verify HCV-14-11A1 is OPEN, if not go to OPEN RESET then AUTO.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if EITHER Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F OR CCW not restored within 10 minutes.
D.
1) Verify HCV-14-11A1 is OPEN, if not go to OPEN RESET then AUTO.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F AND CCW not restored within 10 minutes.
A.
1) Place the control switch for HCV-14-11A1 in CLOSE.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if EITHER Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F OR CCW not restored within 10 minutes.
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
Which ONE of the following parameters would be an indication of Reactor Coolant System (RCS) leakage from the 1B1 Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP)?
The 1B1 RCP __.
A. Gasket Leakage annunciator in alarm
B. Lower and Middle seal pressures fluctuating
C. Controlled Bleedoff flow rising to 2 gpm
D. Controlled Bleedoff pressure lowering to 0 psig
D. Controlled Bleedoff pressure lowering to 0 psig
Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
The unit is currently in Mode 6, shutdown for a refueling outage.
Time since reactor shutdown is 500 hrs.
The Reactor Head is being de-tensioned.
BOTH trains of Shutdown Cooling (SDC) are in service.
Reactor Coolant System (RCS) temperature is 105º F.
The RCS level 35 feet.
A Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) has just occurred.
BOTH Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG’s) started and loaded onto their respective busses.
1) AT THIS TIME, the LPSI pumps__(1)__ .
2) If the LPSI pumps did NOT start, the Time to Boil is approximately__(2)__ minutes.
A.
1) require manual re-start after the vital busses are re-energized
2) 30
B.
1) auto started on EDG load sequencing
2) 30
C.
1) require manual re-start after the vital busses are re-energized
2) 41
D.
1) auto started on EDG load sequencing
2) 41
A.
1) require manual re-start after the vital busses are re-energized
2) 30
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the following conditions:
Pressurizer (Pzr) Pressure controller PIC-1100Y is selected for control.
The Pzr has been placed on “recirc” in preparation for a downpower.
Pzr Pressure transmitter, PT-1100Y failed high.
Which ONE of the following describes the expected response of the Pressurizer Pressure control system?
Pzr Main Spray valves go fully__(1)__ and ALL Pzr Backup heaters are__(2)__ .
A.
1) Closed
2) DE-ENERGIZED
B.
1) Closed
2) ENERGIZED
C.
1) Open
2) DE-ENERGIZED
D.
1) Open
2) ENERGIZED
D.
1) Open
2) ENERGIZED
Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
The turbine automatically tripped due an electrical disturbance on the grid.
CEA’s DID NOT INSERT even after the RCO depressed the reactor trip pushbuttons on the RTGB.
For this event, other than emergency boration, which ONE of the following describes the specific actions to be performed, as necessary, in EOP-01, “SPTA’s”?
A.
1) manually insert the CEA’s at the RTGB
2) open the Rx Trip Swgr TCB’s near the MG Set Control Panels
B.
1) open the Rx Trip Swgr TCB’s in the Cable Spreading Room
2) open the CEDM MG Set Load Center Bkr’s in the Electrical Swgr Room
C.
1) manually insert the CEA’s at the RTGB
2) open both CEDM MG Set contactors in the Electrical Swgr Room
D.
1) open the CEDM MG Set Load Center Bkr’s in the Cable Spreading Room
2) open both CEDM MG Set contactors near the MG Set Control Panels
B.
1) open the Rx Trip Swgr TCB’s in the Cable Spreading Room
2) open the CEDM MG Set Load Center Bkr’s in the Electrical Swgr Room
Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
The Unit was tripped due to a steam generator tube rupture (SGTR) on the 1A Steam Generator (SG).
The 1A SG NR level is 71% NR and slowly rising.
The 1B SG NR level is 62% NR and constant.
Reactor Coolant System (RCS) pressure is 600 psia and slowly lowering.
Pressurizer (Pzr) level is 33% and stable.
RCS Thot is 448°F and stable.
REP CET temperature is 440°F slowly rising.
For the given conditions, HPSI throttling criteria is __(1)__.
The reasons for throttling ECCS is __(2)__.
A.
1) met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and establish RCS Heat Removal via the SG(s)
B.
1) NOT met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and establish RCS Heat Removal via the SG(s)
C.
1) met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and prevent overfilling the ruptured SG due to RCS in-leakage
D.
1) NOT met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and prevent overfilling the ruptured SG due to RCS in-leakage
A.
1) met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and establish RCS Heat Removal via the SG(s)
While performing a reactor start up on Unit 2, a Steam Line Rupture occurred on the 2B Steam Generator (SG) upstream of the Main Steam Isolation Valve.
At the onset of the event, the 2A SG depressurizes at a rate determined by the __(1)__.
Immediately after MSIS actuates, the 2A SG pressure will __(2)__.
A.
1) reactor coolant system cooldown
2) initially increase then lower due to the reactor coolant system cooldown
B.
1) reactor coolant system cooldown
2) stabilize due to the rupture being isolated
C.
1) size of the steam line rupture
2) initially increase then lower due to the reactor coolant system cooldown
D.
1) size of the steam line rupture
2) stabilize due to the rupture being isolated
C.
1) size of the steam line rupture
2) initially increase then lower due to the reactor coolant system cooldown
Given the following conditions:
A Loss of Offsite Power has occurred at the St. Lucie Plant.
Neither of Unit 1’s Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG’s) are operating.
Only the 2A EDG is operating on Unit 2 with the load on the 2A EDG at 2550 kW.
The 1A3 4.16 kV bus has been energized on Unit 1 by the Unit 2 2A EDG, followed by the 1AB 480V Load Center.
The 1A Charging (Chg) pump was started on Unit 1 and the 2A Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW) pump was started on Unit 2.
The load on the 2A EDG is now 3310 kW.
Which of the following is the MOST ADDITIONAL equipment that is allowed to be operated IAW 1-EOP-10, “Station Blackout”, EOP-99, Appdx V and EOP-99 Table 11?
(Assume the load start sequence is the order listed in each selection)
References provided
A. The 1A Battery Charger and the 1A Component Cooling Water pump.
B. The 1A Battery Charger, the 1C Charging pump, 1 bank of Pressurizer Heaters and
Containment Fan Cooler HVS-1A.
C. The 1A AFW pump and ONE bank of Pressurizer heaters.
D. The 1A AFW pump, Containment Fan Cooler HVS-1A and the1C Charging pump.
C. The 1A AFW pump and ONE bank of Pressurizer heaters.
Given the following conditions:
A Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) has occurred on Unit 1
Both Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG’s) started and loaded onto their respective busses
30 minutes later, the SNPO reports that the oil pressure on the 1A EDG 16 cylinder engine is 4 psig.
One minute after the SNPO report, the1B EDG received a Differential Current trip alarm on the local EDG annunciator panel.
Which ONE of the following describes the status of the 1A and 1B EDG’s at this time?
1) The 1A EDG is_____________.
2) The 1B EDG is_____________.
A.
1) running
2) running
B.
1) tripped
2) running
C.
1) tripped
2) tripped
D.
1) running
2) tripped
D.
1) running
2) tripped
Unit 1 is in EOP-15 ‘Functional Recovery’ and is not meeting the minimum requirement for 120V Instrument AC busses.
To meet the minimum requirement for 120V Instrument AC busses energize a MINIMUM of ONE 120V Instrument bus from its respective:
A. DC bus to ensure availability of essential instrumentation used for monitoring and control of other safety functions.
B. DC bus so channel checks can be performed to monitor and verify safety functions.
C. maintenance bypass bus to ensure availability of essential instrumentation used for monitoring and control of other safety functions.
D. maintenance bypass bus so channel checks can be performed to monitor and verify safety functions.
A. DC bus to ensure availability of essential instrumentation used for monitoring and control of other safety functions.
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the following:
Annunciators B-10, “125V DC Bus 1A Ground” and A-40, “125V DC Bus 1AB Ground” are in alarm.
The 1AB DC Bus is aligned to the 1A DC bus.
The 1AB Battery Charger was placed in service on the 1AB 125V DC Bus in accordance with 1-AOP-50.01, “125V DC Ground Diagnostic”.
When the 1A to 1AB cross tie breakers were opened, the 1AB Battery Charger output breaker tripped.
1) Based on the above conditions, what places the station in a Technical Specification ACTION STATEMENT?
2) PRIOR to separating the 1AB 125V DC Bus from the 1A 125V DC bus, what indication on the1AB Battery Charger could be used to diagnose an operational problem with the battery charger?
A.
1) 1AB Battery Charger AND AFW PP 1C.
2) The 1AB Battery Charger ground light indications would be dim while performing a ground test.
B.
1) AFW PP 1C ONLY.
2) The 1AB Battery Charger ground light indications would be dim while performing a ground test.
C.
1) 1AB Battery Charger AND AFW PP 1C.
2) Failure of amps to rise on the 1AB Battery Charger ammeter local indication after the 1AB Battery Charger output breaker was closed onto the 1AB 125V DC bus.
D.
1) AFW PP 1C ONLY.
2) Failure of amps to rise on the 1AB Battery Charger ammeter local indication after the 1AB Battery Charger output breaker was closed onto the 1AB 125V DC bus.
D.
1) AFW PP 1C ONLY.
2) Failure of amps to rise on the 1AB Battery Charger ammeter local indication after the 1AB Battery Charger output breaker was closed onto the 1AB 125V DC bus.
Unit 2 is operating at 100% power when the following alarm occurred:
2A CCW HX ICW FLOW LOW S-3
Which ONE of the following could be the cause of the low flow condition?
A. A tube rupture in the Component Cooling Water Heat Exchanger has occurred.
B. HCV-21-7A, “Component Cooling Water HX Strainer Debris Discharge Isolation valve (backwash outlet)” has failed open.
C. The instrument air line for TCV-14-4A, “A CCW HX Outlet valve” has become disconnected.
D. Following an inadvertent “A” train SIAS, a rupture occurred at the Intake Cooling Water outlet from the “A” Open Blowdown Heat Exchanger.
B. HCV-21-7A, “Component Cooling Water HX Strainer Debris Discharge Isolation valve (backwash outlet)” has failed open.
Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
A Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) has occurred concurrent with a Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA).
1-EOP-99, Appendix H, “Operation of the 1A /1B Instrument Air Compressors” has been performed and the 1A and 1B Instrument Air Compressors are running.
SIAS has just occurred.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Emergency Instrument Air Compressors?
The 1A and 1B Instrument Air Compressors ______.
A. will auto start when their designated Emergency Diesel Generator load block times out after load shed
B. will auto start when the 1A6/1B6 MCC non-essential load breakers are reset
C. can be manually re-started after the start circuit is reset from the control room
D. can be manually re-started after the start circuit is reset locally
D. can be manually re-started after the start circuit is reset locally
Given the following conditions:
A total loss of feedwater has occurred along with a steam line break downstream of the Main Steam Isolation valves (MSIV’s).
EOP-15 has been entered.
AFAS and MSIS actuation has occurred.
Main Feedwater has become available as a source of feedwater.
Which ONE of the following describes ALL the required actions to restore Main Feedwater flow?
A. On Unit 2, reset MSIS.
B. On Unit 1, override AFAS.
C. On Unit 2, override AFAS AND reset MSIS.
D. On Unit 1, override AFAS AND reset MSIS.
C. On Unit 2, override AFAS AND reset MSIS.
Unit 1 is performing an up power with the following:
The Unit Supervisor has directed the RCO to withdraw Group 7 Control Element Assemblies (CEA’s) in manual sequential from 124” withdrawn to 127” withdrawn for the power ascension.
When Group 7 CEA’s reached 127” withdrawn, the RCO released the CEA manual control switch but the Group 7 CEA’s continued to move outward.
Assuming NO operator actions, which ONE of the following describes the CEA Control Motion Interlock that will stop CEA motion?
Group 7 CEA rod motion will be automatically stopped by the__(1)__ motion interlock generated from the __(2)__.
A.
1) Upper Group Stop
2) CEA reed switch position transmitters
B.
1) Upper Group Stop
2) Distributed Control System
C.
1) CEA Position Deviation
2) Distributed Control System
D.
1) CEA Position Deviation
2) CEA reed switch position transmitters
B.
1) Upper Group Stop
2) Distributed Control System
Unit 2 is operating at 60% power.
Condenser backpressure is 4.5” hg absolute and slowly rising.
The NPO is directed to perform local actions IAW 2-AOP-12.01, ‘Loss of Condenser Vacuum’
Which of the following NPO actions could result in Condenser backpressure RISING?
A. While placing a Hogging Ejector in service by adjusting steam pressure to 200 psig, intermittent steam flow from the Hogging ejector exhaust is observed.
B. Throttling the Turbine Seal PCV bypass valves to a value of1.5 to 5.0 psig.
C. Increasing condensate flow to the Condenser vacuum breakers.
D. Adjusting PIC-12-29, “SJAE Steam Pressure” to 400 psig steam pressure on the A and B Steam Jet Air Ejectors to maximize efficiency.
A. While placing a Hogging Ejector in service by adjusting steam pressure to 200 psig, intermittent steam flow from the Hogging ejector exhaust is observed.
A Waste gas release is in progress IAW OP 1-0530021, “Controlled Gaseous Batch Release to Atmosphere”.
1) The Blue ‘Fail’ light on Channel 42 ‘Gaseous Waste Radiation Monitor’ should remain __(1)__ to be considered operable.
2) The gas release is required to be manually terminated if __(2)__
A.
1) de-energized
2) the non-releasing Gas Decay tanks exhibits a pressure decrease of 2 psig over a 12 hour period
B.
1) de-energized
2) a High Alarm condition is received on an Plant Vent Radiation Monitor Channel
C.
1) energized
2) the non-releasing Gas Decay tanks exhibits a pressure decrease of 2 psig over a 12 hour period
D.
1) energized
2) a High Alarm condition is received on an Plant Vent Radiation Monitor Channel
D.
1) energized
2) a High Alarm condition is received on an Plant Vent Radiation Monitor Channel
Which ONE of the following describes:
1) The type of detector that is used for local Area Radiation Monitors AND
2) The operational implications associated with the detector limitation(s)?
A.
1) GM-tube.
2) In low radiation fields, the detector output signal is weak thereby requiring amplification before being sent to the ratemeter / alarm electronic circuit. A noise problem could develop from the amplification which may lead to a higher than actual radiation indication.
B.
1) Ion Chamber.
2) In low radiation fields, the detector output signal is weak thereby requiring amplification before being sent to the ratemeter / alarm electronic circuit. A noise problem could develop from the amplification which may lead to a higher than actual radiation indication.
C.
1) GM-tube.
2) A weak ionizing event produces the same output as a much stronger ionizing event so if the detector is in a strong radiation field, it will become saturated. This may lead to a lower than actual radiation indication.
D.
1) Ion Chamber.
2) A weak ionizing event produces the same output as a much stronger ionizing event so if the detector is in a strong radiation field, it will become saturated. This may lead to a lower than actual radiation indication.
C.
1) GM-tube.
2) A weak ionizing event produces the same output as a much stronger ionizing event so if the detector is in a strong radiation field, it will become saturated. This may lead to a lower than actual radiation indication.
A Fire Watch patrol has been assigned to a specific fire zone, to monitor once per hour on Unit 2.
Which ONE of the following describes the Fire Protection Feature(s) that is (are) inoperable?
The ______ is inoperable.
A. fixed water spray system for the 2A and 2B Startup Transformers
B. pre-action sprinkler system for the Cable Spread room (43.0’ elev. RAB)
C. fire door that separates the “A” and “B” Electrical Switchgear rooms (43.0’ elev. RAB)
D. minimum required amount of fire detection instrumentation for the Fuel Handling Building New Fuel Area
D. minimum required amount of fire detection instrumentation for the Fuel Handling Building New Fuel Area
Given the following:
Unit 2 has evacuated the Control Room due to the presence of toxic fumes
All Operator actions in the Control Room were performed prior to evacuation.
Critical actions from Appendix A through D of 2-ONP-100.02 “Control Room Inaccessibility” have been completed
RCO A is maintaining Hot Standby conditions at the Remote Shutdown Panel
Which ONE of the following describes how RCS pressure is controlled and how subcooling is monitored?
Control pressurizer pressure between 1800 and 1850 psia by operating Auxiliary Spray valves along with ___(1)____.
Determine subcooling margin using 2-ONP-100.02 “Control Room Inaccessibility”, Figure 1 using Reactor Coolant System ____(2)____ and Pressurizer pressure.
A.
1) Proportional and backup heaters
2) T-hot
B.
1) backup heaters ONLY
2) T-cold + 50°F
C.
1) Proportional and backup heaters
2)T-cold + 50°F
D.
1) backup heaters ONLY
2) T-hot
B.
1) backup heaters ONLY
2) T-cold + 50°F
A Large Break LOCA has occurred on Unit 1. Onsite and offsite doses are higher than expected. It is suspected that a breach of Containment has occurred.
Containment pressure is currently 35 psig.
Which ONE of the following would have the LARGEST effect on reducing the Containment leak rate?
Reduce:
A. the energy release into the Containment by cooling down the RCS at maximum allowable rate by maximizing ECCS flow.
B. the energy release into the Containment by cooling down the RCS at maximum allowable rate by maximizing SG steaming and feeding.
C. Containment pressure by ensuring all available Hydrogen Purge and Shield Building Ventilation systems are operating.
D. Containment temperature by ensuring all available Containment coolers and Containment Spray pumps are operating.
D. Containment temperature by ensuring all available Containment coolers and Containment Spray pumps are operating.
Which ONE of the following Unit 1 Letdown Monitor radiation trends would be indicative of fuel
failure?
A. Iodine increase that remains significantly above prior levels during steady state operation.
B. Iodine increase that remains significantly above prior levels during a plant load change.
C. Iodine remains constant concurrent with a gross activity increase during a plant load change.
D. Iodine remains constant while gross activity increases during steady state operation.
A. Iodine increase that remains significantly above prior levels during steady state operation.
Unit 1 is in 1-EOP-15, ‘Functional Recovery’ due to Feedwater problems. Which ONE of the following states when Once Through Cooling (OTC) is to be initiated?
A. TCOLD rises 5°F with all ADV’s fully open.
B. THOT rises 5°F with all ADV’s fully open.
C. The 1A wide range SG level indicates 14% and the 1B wide range SG level indicates 16%.
D. Both SG wide range levels indicate 15% with MAXIMUM available feedwater flow of 150 gpm.
A. TCOLD rises 5°F with all ADV’s fully open.
Given the following on Unit 2:
Unit was at 100% power for 210 days when a trip occurred.
Unit is offline for 12 hours with RCS at normal operating temperature and pressure.
One ADV on each Steam Generator is in manual control from the controller.
AFW flow to each SG is 110 gpm.
A loss of CCW occurs requiring all RCP’s to be stopped. Ten (10) minutes after stopping the RCP’s, which of the following would be expected? (assume NO Operator actions)
SG pressure:
A. lowers. AFW flow remains the same.
B. rises. AFW flow lowers.
C. lowers. AFW flow rises.
D. rises. AFW flow remains the same.
B. rises. AFW flow lowers.
Unit 2 is in Mode 3 at 1810 psia and 502°F Tave. with three RCP’s operating.
The 2A2 RCP has just been started.
Which of the following would require an IMMEDIATE stopping of the 2A2 RCP?
A. Upper seal cavity pressure indicates 600 psia.
B. Lower seal cavity temperature indicates 305°F.
C. Controlled bleedoff flow indicates 2 gallons per minute.
D. RCS pressure drops 30 psia below the minimum RCS pressure for RCP operation.
B. Lower seal cavity temperature indicates 305°F.
Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
Which ONE of the following conditions could result in the Charging Pump(s) not meeting the design Net Positive Suction Head?
(assume NO Operator actions)
Volume Control Tank:
A. pressure lowers to10 psig.
B. level lowers to 10% level.
C. level transmitter LT2227 failing LOW.
D. level transmitter LT2227 failing HIGH.
D. level transmitter LT2227 failing HIGH.
Unit 1 has tripped due to a LOOP. Both Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG) started and loaded on their respective busses, however the feeder breaker to the 1B5 MCC tripped opened when the 1B EDG output breaker closed.
On the trip three CEA’s failed to fully insert.
Which ONE of the following states the available emergency boration flowpath?
Charging pump suction aligned from the:
A. RWT isolation, V2504.
B. BAMT’s through the Gravity feed isolations, V2508 and V2509.
C. discharge of ‘A’ OR ‘B’ BAM pump through the emergency borate valve MV-2514.
D. discharge of ONLY the ‘A’ BAM pump through the emergency borate valve MV-2514.
C. discharge of ‘A’ OR ‘B’ BAM pump through the emergency borate valve MV-2514.
Unit 1 has just placed SDC in service and is cooling down at 30°F / hour.
A loss of Instrument air occurs and air pressure indicates 20 psig.
Which ONE of the following states the effect on RCS temperature on the loss of instrument air?
(assuming NO Operator actions)
RCS temperature will:
A. lower due to TCV-14-4A, 1A CCW HX Outlet and TCV-14-4B, 1B CCW HX Outlet going full OPEN.
B. lower due to HCV-14-3A, CCW to Shutdown HX 1A and HCV-14-3B, CCW to Shutdown HX 1B going full OPEN.
C. rise due to FCV-3306, SDC Return Flow, going full CLOSED.
D. rise due to HCV-3657, SDC TEMP Control, going full CLOSED.
D. rise due to HCV-3657, SDC TEMP Control, going full CLOSED.
Unit 1 is on Shutdown cooling with the following conditions:
RCS temperature is 105°F
RCS level is 41 feet.
The 1A LPSI pump is aligned for SDC and the 1B LPSI pump is in standby.
The RCS is being drained to the 34 foot level via the 1A LPSI pump recirc, V3204, at a rate of 50 gpm.
SDC flow is 3450 gpm.
It is desired to increase the drain down rate to 100 gpm.
Which ONE of the following states the actions needed to raise the drain down flow rate, to drain from 41 feet to 34 feet, and the bases for these actions?
Throttle open V3204, 1A LPSI pump recirc. to the RWT, and reduce SDC flow to no more than:
A. 3160 gpm. This is the minimum SDC flow that will limit the RCS from heating up.
B. 3400 gpm. This is the minimum SDC flow that will limit the RCS from heating up.
C. 3160 gpm. This is the maximum LPSI flow requirements to prevent suction line voiding and possible water hammer.
D. 3400 gpm. This is the maximum LPSI flow requirements to prevent suction line voiding and possible water hammer.
C. 3160 gpm. This is the maximum LPSI flow requirements to prevent suction line voiding and
possible water hammer.
Unit 2 has tripped from 100% power due to a Main Feedwater problem. The following conditions
exist:
Pressurizer level is 22% and slowly lowering.
RCS TAVE is 530°F and stable.
2A and 2B Charging pumps are running with Charging header pressure indicating 420 psia.
Reactor cavity leakage recorder is off scale high.
Which of the following states the Operator actions and the appropriate procedure implementation?
A. Start the 2C Charging pump in addition to the 2A and 2B Charging pumps to restore Pressurizer level to 27-35%. Implement 2-AOP-01.06, ‘Excessive RCS Leakage’.
B. Start the 2C Charging pump in addition to the 2A and 2B Charging pumps and align to the A HPSI Header IAW 2-AOP-02.03, ‘Charging and Letdown’ Attachment 2, ’Alternate Charging Flow Path Through the A HPSI Header’.
C. Stop the 2A and 2B Charging pumps and align the 2A or 2B Charging pump to the A HPSI header IAW 2-AOP-02.03, ‘Charging and Letdown’ Attachment 2, ‘Alternate Charging Flow Path Through the A HPSI Header’.
D. Stop the 2A and 2B Charging pumps and start the 2C Charging pump to restore Pressurizer level to 27-35%. Implement 2-AOP-01.06, ‘Excessive RCS Leakage’.
C. Stop the 2A and 2B Charging pumps and align the 2A or 2B Charging pump to the A HPSI header IAW 2-AOP-02.03, ‘Charging and Letdown’ Attachment 2, ‘Alternate Charging Flow Path Through the A HPSI Header’.
Unit 1 is implementing 1-EOP-02, ‘Reactor Trip Recovery’ due to an inadvertent SIAS.
Thirty (30) minutes into the event the Quench Tank High level alarm is received.
Which ONE of the following states the most likely reason for the Quench Tank high level alarm?
A. Operator actions have aligned the alternate RCP bleedoff flow.
B. CIAS has aligned the alternate RCP bleedoff flow.
C. Pressurizer relief or Safety valve leakage.
D. Quench Tank cooling heat exchanger has developed a leak.
A. Operator actions have aligned the alternate RCP bleedoff flow.
On Unit 1, which ONE of the following Quench Tank conditions could result is increasing radioactivity to the Containment atmosphere during a Quench Tank design event?
Quench Tank:
A. pressure is allowed to lower to 0.9 psig.
B. temperature is allowed to rise to 117°F.
C. temperature is allowed to lower to 110°F.
D. level is allowed to lower to 38%.
D. level is allowed to lower to 38%.
Given the following conditions:
A steam generator tube leak has occurred on Unit 2
During the downpower, the CCW “N” header developed a leak
After the “N” header automatically isolated, the operators manually tripped the reactor and turbine
The “N” header leak has been isolated
LA-10, “CCW SURGE TANK COMPARTMENT A LEVEL LOW,” locked in
LB-10, “CCW SURGE TANK LEVEL HIGH/COMPARTMENT B LEVEL LOW,” locked in
Chemistry has requested that cooling be restored to the sample heat exchangers to allow S/G samples to be taken
Based on the above conditions, which ONE of the following describes the MINIMUM action(s)/conditions that must occur to open the CCW “N” header isolation valves?
The CCW “N” header valves:
A. will open if the control switches are placed in “closed/override” and then placed in “open”.
B. can be locally opened by failing the air supply to the valves.
C. will open if the control switches are placed in the “open” position.
D. cannot be opened until level is restored to the surge tank.
D. cannot be opened until level is restored to the surge tank.
On Unit 2, which ONE of the following states how the Pressurizer PORV open signal is
achieved when the PORV selector switch is in:
1) NORMAL RANGE
2) LTOP
Directly from the:
A.
1) RPS high pressure trip bistables.
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1103, 1104
B.
1) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1102 A-D
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1102 A-D
C.
1) RPS high pressure trip bistables.
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1102 A-D
D.
1) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1102 A-D
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1103, 1104
A.
1) RPS high pressure trip bistables.
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1103, 1104
Unit 1 is at 100% power with the following:
The DC power supply to ONE RPS K Relay has failed (de-energized).
Which ONE of the following states:
1) The number of TCB’s that has opened?
2) The procedure that CAN be used to close the TCB’s when the fault is corrected?
A.
1) 2 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-49.02, ‘120V INSTRUMENT AC SYSTEM (CLASS 1E)’
B.
1) 2 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-50.07A(B) LOSS OF OR DEGRADED SAFETY RELATED DC BUS 1A (1B)
C.
1) 4 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-49.02, ‘120V INSTRUMENT AC SYSTEM (CLASS 1E)’
D.
1) 4 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-50.07A(B) LOSS OF OR DEGRADED SAFETY RELATED DC BUS 1A (1B)
A.
1) 2 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-49.02, ‘120V INSTRUMENT AC SYSTEM (CLASS 1E)’
Unit 1 is at 100% power when the following SINGLE annunciator is received:
ENGINEERED SAFEGUARDS ATI FAULT R-10
Upon observation of the ESFAS panel, it is observed the Containment Pressure individual ATI
Test Panel light is NOT illuminating during the test sequence.
Which ONE of the following states:
1) the significance of the observation.
2) the actuation logic sequence for SIAS on high Containment pressure.
A.
1) The Containment pressure bistable did not trip at 5% ABOVE setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 1/3 logic
B.
1) The Containment pressure bistable did not trip at 5% ABOVE setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 2/4 logic
C.
1) The Containment pressure bistable tripped at 5% BELOW setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 1/3 logic
D.
1) The Containment pressure bistable tripped at 5% BELOW setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 2/4 logic
D.
1) The Containment pressure bistable tripped at 5% BELOW setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 2/4 logic