HLC 21 Flashcards

1
Q

Given the following:
 2 LED’s are lit on the Acoustic Monitor display for PORV V1402.
 Pressurizer Pressure is 2000 psia.
 Pressurizer Temperature is 636ºF
 Quench Tank Pressure is being maintained at 5 psig.
Which ONE of the following is:
1) the condition of the fluid downstream of the relief valve AND
2) the approximate temperature on TIA-1106, “Relief Valves”?
(references provided)
A.
1) Superheated Steam
2) 245ºF
B.
1) Superheated Steam
2) 230ºF
C.
1) Wet Vapor
2) 230ºF
D.
1) Wet Vapor
2) 245ºF

A

C.
1) Wet Vapor
2) 230ºF

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2
Q

Given the following conditions:
 The Unit 1 and Unit 2 reactors have experienced a reactor trip.
While performing EOP-01 ‘Standard Post Trip Actions’ which ONE of the following annunciators, should be addressed FIRST?
(Evaluate each choice independently)
A. Unit 1: Annunciator A-60, 125V DC BUS 1AB UV.
B. Unit 2: Annunciator G-24, 15% BYPASS LCV 9005 / 9006 5% FLOW.
C. Unit 1: Annunciator J-19, 1A1 RCP SEAL TROUBLE COOLING WATER FLOW LOW.
D. Unit 2: Annunciator A-43, 120V AC INVTR 2B / INSTR BUS 2MB/2MB-1 TROUBLE.

A

A. Unit 1: Annunciator A-60, 125V DC BUS 1AB UV.

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3
Q

Unit 1 is conducting a heatup IAW 1-GOP-303, ‘Reactor Plant Heatup - Mode 3 <1750 to Mode
3 >1750.’ RCS pressure is 1680 psia. Pressurizer level is 28%.
Ten minutes later a 200 gpm RCS leak develops. RCS pressure is 1580 psia and lowering
rapidly. Pressurizer level is 20% and lowering. The mitigating procedure(s) for the RCS leak has been entered.
For the above conditions, SIAS should:
A. NOT be manually actuated because automatic actuation has already occurred.
B. NOT be manually actuated because conditions for manual actuation have not been reached.
C. be manually actuated because automatic actuation did not occur but should have for the stated conditions.
D. be manually actuated because signals that would result in automatic actuation are currently blocked.

A

D. be manually actuated because signals that would result in automatic actuation are currently blocked.

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4
Q

Unit 1 is performing a cooldown for a refueling outage with the following initial conditions:
 RCS pressure is 1420 psia
 Pressurizer level is 35%
 Tave is 470°F
Pressurizer pressure and level are now dropping rapidly and currently indicate:
 RCS pressure is 620 psia
 Pressurizer level is 0%
 Tave is 468°F
Which ONE of the following states ALL the procedure(s) that will be implemented and / or referenced?
A. 1-EOP-03, ‘LOCA’.
B. 1-AOP-01.08, ‘RCS Leakage Abnormal Operations’.
C. 1-AOP-01.08, ‘RCS Leakage Abnormal Operations’. AND 1-ONP-01.01, Plant Condition 1 Steam Generator Heat Removal LTOP Not in Effect.
D. 1-AOP-01.08, ‘RCS Leakage Abnormal Operations’. AND 1-ONP-01.02, Plant Condition 2 Steam Generator Heat Removal LTOP in Effect.

A

C. 1-AOP-01.08, ‘RCS Leakage Abnormal Operations’. AND 1-ONP-01.01, Plant Condition 1 Steam Generator Heat Removal LTOP Not in Effect.

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5
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the following:
TIME
1306: R-26-56, CCW radiation monitor, has just gone into alarm.
1307: Due to rising Controlled Bleedoff temperature on 1A1 RCP, 1-AOP-01.09A1, “1A1 Reactor Coolant Pump” was entered.
Based on the given conditions, which ONE of the following describes:
1) The actions taken for HCV-14-11A1, Seal Cooler HX Isolation Valve?
2) Subsequent actions the crew should take?
A.
1) Place the control switch for HCV-14-11A1 in CLOSE.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if EITHER Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F OR CCW not restored within 10 minutes.
B.
1) Place the control switch for HCV-14-11A1 in CLOSE.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F AND CCW not restored within 10 minutes.
C.
1) Verify HCV-14-11A1 is OPEN, if not go to OPEN RESET then AUTO.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if EITHER Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F OR CCW not restored within 10 minutes.
D.
1) Verify HCV-14-11A1 is OPEN, if not go to OPEN RESET then AUTO.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F AND CCW not restored within 10 minutes.

A

A.
1) Place the control switch for HCV-14-11A1 in CLOSE.
2) Ensure the reactor is tripped and the 1A1 RCP is secured if EITHER Controlled Bleedoff temperature exceeds 250°F OR CCW not restored within 10 minutes.

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6
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
Which ONE of the following parameters would be an indication of Reactor Coolant System (RCS) leakage from the 1B1 Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP)?
The 1B1 RCP __.
A. Gasket Leakage annunciator in alarm
B. Lower and Middle seal pressures fluctuating
C. Controlled Bleedoff flow rising to 2 gpm
D. Controlled Bleedoff pressure lowering to 0 psig

A

D. Controlled Bleedoff pressure lowering to 0 psig

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7
Q

Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
 The unit is currently in Mode 6, shutdown for a refueling outage.
 Time since reactor shutdown is 500 hrs.
 The Reactor Head is being de-tensioned.
 BOTH trains of Shutdown Cooling (SDC) are in service.
 Reactor Coolant System (RCS) temperature is 105º F.
 The RCS level 35 feet.
 A Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) has just occurred.
 BOTH Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG’s) started and loaded onto their respective busses.
1) AT THIS TIME, the LPSI pumps__(1)__ .
2) If the LPSI pumps did NOT start, the Time to Boil is approximately__(2)__ minutes.
A.
1) require manual re-start after the vital busses are re-energized
2) 30
B.
1) auto started on EDG load sequencing
2) 30
C.
1) require manual re-start after the vital busses are re-energized
2) 41
D.
1) auto started on EDG load sequencing
2) 41

A

A.
1) require manual re-start after the vital busses are re-energized
2) 30

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8
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the following conditions:
 Pressurizer (Pzr) Pressure controller PIC-1100Y is selected for control.
 The Pzr has been placed on “recirc” in preparation for a downpower.
Pzr Pressure transmitter, PT-1100Y failed high.
Which ONE of the following describes the expected response of the Pressurizer Pressure control system?
Pzr Main Spray valves go fully__(1)__ and ALL Pzr Backup heaters are__(2)__ .
A.
1) Closed
2) DE-ENERGIZED
B.
1) Closed
2) ENERGIZED
C.
1) Open
2) DE-ENERGIZED
D.
1) Open
2) ENERGIZED

A

D.
1) Open
2) ENERGIZED

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9
Q

Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
 The turbine automatically tripped due an electrical disturbance on the grid.
 CEA’s DID NOT INSERT even after the RCO depressed the reactor trip pushbuttons on the RTGB.
For this event, other than emergency boration, which ONE of the following describes the specific actions to be performed, as necessary, in EOP-01, “SPTA’s”?
A.
1) manually insert the CEA’s at the RTGB
2) open the Rx Trip Swgr TCB’s near the MG Set Control Panels
B.
1) open the Rx Trip Swgr TCB’s in the Cable Spreading Room
2) open the CEDM MG Set Load Center Bkr’s in the Electrical Swgr Room
C.
1) manually insert the CEA’s at the RTGB
2) open both CEDM MG Set contactors in the Electrical Swgr Room
D.
1) open the CEDM MG Set Load Center Bkr’s in the Cable Spreading Room
2) open both CEDM MG Set contactors near the MG Set Control Panels

A

B.
1) open the Rx Trip Swgr TCB’s in the Cable Spreading Room
2) open the CEDM MG Set Load Center Bkr’s in the Electrical Swgr Room

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10
Q

Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
 The Unit was tripped due to a steam generator tube rupture (SGTR) on the 1A Steam Generator (SG).
 The 1A SG NR level is 71% NR and slowly rising.
 The 1B SG NR level is 62% NR and constant.
 Reactor Coolant System (RCS) pressure is 600 psia and slowly lowering.
 Pressurizer (Pzr) level is 33% and stable.
 RCS Thot is 448°F and stable.
 REP CET temperature is 440°F slowly rising.
For the given conditions, HPSI throttling criteria is __(1)__.
The reasons for throttling ECCS is __(2)__.
A.
1) met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and establish RCS Heat Removal via the SG(s)
B.
1) NOT met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and establish RCS Heat Removal via the SG(s)
C.
1) met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and prevent overfilling the ruptured SG due to RCS in-leakage
D.
1) NOT met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and prevent overfilling the ruptured SG due to RCS in-leakage

A

A.
1) met
2) to maintain the RCS Inventory Control and Pressure Control Safety Functions and establish RCS Heat Removal via the SG(s)

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11
Q

While performing a reactor start up on Unit 2, a Steam Line Rupture occurred on the 2B Steam Generator (SG) upstream of the Main Steam Isolation Valve.
At the onset of the event, the 2A SG depressurizes at a rate determined by the __(1)__.
Immediately after MSIS actuates, the 2A SG pressure will __(2)__.
A.
1) reactor coolant system cooldown
2) initially increase then lower due to the reactor coolant system cooldown
B.
1) reactor coolant system cooldown
2) stabilize due to the rupture being isolated
C.
1) size of the steam line rupture
2) initially increase then lower due to the reactor coolant system cooldown
D.
1) size of the steam line rupture
2) stabilize due to the rupture being isolated

A

C.
1) size of the steam line rupture
2) initially increase then lower due to the reactor coolant system cooldown

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12
Q

Given the following conditions:
 A Loss of Offsite Power has occurred at the St. Lucie Plant.
 Neither of Unit 1’s Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG’s) are operating.
 Only the 2A EDG is operating on Unit 2 with the load on the 2A EDG at 2550 kW.
 The 1A3 4.16 kV bus has been energized on Unit 1 by the Unit 2 2A EDG, followed by the 1AB 480V Load Center.
 The 1A Charging (Chg) pump was started on Unit 1 and the 2A Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW) pump was started on Unit 2.
 The load on the 2A EDG is now 3310 kW.
Which of the following is the MOST ADDITIONAL equipment that is allowed to be operated IAW 1-EOP-10, “Station Blackout”, EOP-99, Appdx V and EOP-99 Table 11?
(Assume the load start sequence is the order listed in each selection)
References provided
A. The 1A Battery Charger and the 1A Component Cooling Water pump.
B. The 1A Battery Charger, the 1C Charging pump, 1 bank of Pressurizer Heaters and
Containment Fan Cooler HVS-1A.
C. The 1A AFW pump and ONE bank of Pressurizer heaters.
D. The 1A AFW pump, Containment Fan Cooler HVS-1A and the1C Charging pump.

A

C. The 1A AFW pump and ONE bank of Pressurizer heaters.

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13
Q

Given the following conditions:
 A Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) has occurred on Unit 1
 Both Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG’s) started and loaded onto their respective busses
 30 minutes later, the SNPO reports that the oil pressure on the 1A EDG 16 cylinder engine is 4 psig.
 One minute after the SNPO report, the1B EDG received a Differential Current trip alarm on the local EDG annunciator panel.
Which ONE of the following describes the status of the 1A and 1B EDG’s at this time?
1) The 1A EDG is_____________.
2) The 1B EDG is_____________.
A.
1) running
2) running
B.
1) tripped
2) running
C.
1) tripped
2) tripped
D.
1) running
2) tripped

A

D.
1) running
2) tripped

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14
Q

Unit 1 is in EOP-15 ‘Functional Recovery’ and is not meeting the minimum requirement for 120V Instrument AC busses.
To meet the minimum requirement for 120V Instrument AC busses energize a MINIMUM of ONE 120V Instrument bus from its respective:
A. DC bus to ensure availability of essential instrumentation used for monitoring and control of other safety functions.
B. DC bus so channel checks can be performed to monitor and verify safety functions.
C. maintenance bypass bus to ensure availability of essential instrumentation used for monitoring and control of other safety functions.
D. maintenance bypass bus so channel checks can be performed to monitor and verify safety functions.

A

A. DC bus to ensure availability of essential instrumentation used for monitoring and control of other safety functions.

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15
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power with the following:
 Annunciators B-10, “125V DC Bus 1A Ground” and A-40, “125V DC Bus 1AB Ground” are in alarm.
 The 1AB DC Bus is aligned to the 1A DC bus.
 The 1AB Battery Charger was placed in service on the 1AB 125V DC Bus in accordance with 1-AOP-50.01, “125V DC Ground Diagnostic”.
 When the 1A to 1AB cross tie breakers were opened, the 1AB Battery Charger output breaker tripped.
1) Based on the above conditions, what places the station in a Technical Specification ACTION STATEMENT?
2) PRIOR to separating the 1AB 125V DC Bus from the 1A 125V DC bus, what indication on the1AB Battery Charger could be used to diagnose an operational problem with the battery charger?
A.
1) 1AB Battery Charger AND AFW PP 1C.
2) The 1AB Battery Charger ground light indications would be dim while performing a ground test.
B.
1) AFW PP 1C ONLY.
2) The 1AB Battery Charger ground light indications would be dim while performing a ground test.
C.
1) 1AB Battery Charger AND AFW PP 1C.
2) Failure of amps to rise on the 1AB Battery Charger ammeter local indication after the 1AB Battery Charger output breaker was closed onto the 1AB 125V DC bus.
D.
1) AFW PP 1C ONLY.
2) Failure of amps to rise on the 1AB Battery Charger ammeter local indication after the 1AB Battery Charger output breaker was closed onto the 1AB 125V DC bus.

A

D.
1) AFW PP 1C ONLY.
2) Failure of amps to rise on the 1AB Battery Charger ammeter local indication after the 1AB Battery Charger output breaker was closed onto the 1AB 125V DC bus.

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16
Q

Unit 2 is operating at 100% power when the following alarm occurred:
2A CCW HX ICW FLOW LOW S-3
Which ONE of the following could be the cause of the low flow condition?
A. A tube rupture in the Component Cooling Water Heat Exchanger has occurred.
B. HCV-21-7A, “Component Cooling Water HX Strainer Debris Discharge Isolation valve (backwash outlet)” has failed open.
C. The instrument air line for TCV-14-4A, “A CCW HX Outlet valve” has become disconnected.
D. Following an inadvertent “A” train SIAS, a rupture occurred at the Intake Cooling Water outlet from the “A” Open Blowdown Heat Exchanger.

A

B. HCV-21-7A, “Component Cooling Water HX Strainer Debris Discharge Isolation valve (backwash outlet)” has failed open.

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17
Q

Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
 A Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) has occurred concurrent with a Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA).
 1-EOP-99, Appendix H, “Operation of the 1A /1B Instrument Air Compressors” has been performed and the 1A and 1B Instrument Air Compressors are running.
 SIAS has just occurred.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Emergency Instrument Air Compressors?
The 1A and 1B Instrument Air Compressors ______.
A. will auto start when their designated Emergency Diesel Generator load block times out after load shed
B. will auto start when the 1A6/1B6 MCC non-essential load breakers are reset
C. can be manually re-started after the start circuit is reset from the control room
D. can be manually re-started after the start circuit is reset locally

A

D. can be manually re-started after the start circuit is reset locally

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18
Q

Given the following conditions:
 A total loss of feedwater has occurred along with a steam line break downstream of the Main Steam Isolation valves (MSIV’s).
 EOP-15 has been entered.
 AFAS and MSIS actuation has occurred.
 Main Feedwater has become available as a source of feedwater.
Which ONE of the following describes ALL the required actions to restore Main Feedwater flow?
A. On Unit 2, reset MSIS.
B. On Unit 1, override AFAS.
C. On Unit 2, override AFAS AND reset MSIS.
D. On Unit 1, override AFAS AND reset MSIS.

A

C. On Unit 2, override AFAS AND reset MSIS.

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19
Q

Unit 1 is performing an up power with the following:
 The Unit Supervisor has directed the RCO to withdraw Group 7 Control Element Assemblies (CEA’s) in manual sequential from 124” withdrawn to 127” withdrawn for the power ascension.
 When Group 7 CEA’s reached 127” withdrawn, the RCO released the CEA manual control switch but the Group 7 CEA’s continued to move outward.
Assuming NO operator actions, which ONE of the following describes the CEA Control Motion Interlock that will stop CEA motion?
Group 7 CEA rod motion will be automatically stopped by the__(1)__ motion interlock generated from the __(2)__.
A.
1) Upper Group Stop
2) CEA reed switch position transmitters
B.
1) Upper Group Stop
2) Distributed Control System
C.
1) CEA Position Deviation
2) Distributed Control System
D.
1) CEA Position Deviation
2) CEA reed switch position transmitters

A

B.
1) Upper Group Stop
2) Distributed Control System

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20
Q

Unit 2 is operating at 60% power.
Condenser backpressure is 4.5” hg absolute and slowly rising.
The NPO is directed to perform local actions IAW 2-AOP-12.01, ‘Loss of Condenser Vacuum’
Which of the following NPO actions could result in Condenser backpressure RISING?
A. While placing a Hogging Ejector in service by adjusting steam pressure to 200 psig, intermittent steam flow from the Hogging ejector exhaust is observed.
B. Throttling the Turbine Seal PCV bypass valves to a value of1.5 to 5.0 psig.
C. Increasing condensate flow to the Condenser vacuum breakers.
D. Adjusting PIC-12-29, “SJAE Steam Pressure” to 400 psig steam pressure on the A and B Steam Jet Air Ejectors to maximize efficiency.

A

A. While placing a Hogging Ejector in service by adjusting steam pressure to 200 psig, intermittent steam flow from the Hogging ejector exhaust is observed.

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21
Q

A Waste gas release is in progress IAW OP 1-0530021, “Controlled Gaseous Batch Release to Atmosphere”.
1) The Blue ‘Fail’ light on Channel 42 ‘Gaseous Waste Radiation Monitor’ should remain __(1)__ to be considered operable.
2) The gas release is required to be manually terminated if __(2)__
A.
1) de-energized
2) the non-releasing Gas Decay tanks exhibits a pressure decrease of 2 psig over a 12 hour period
B.
1) de-energized
2) a High Alarm condition is received on an Plant Vent Radiation Monitor Channel
C.
1) energized
2) the non-releasing Gas Decay tanks exhibits a pressure decrease of 2 psig over a 12 hour period
D.
1) energized
2) a High Alarm condition is received on an Plant Vent Radiation Monitor Channel

A

D.
1) energized
2) a High Alarm condition is received on an Plant Vent Radiation Monitor Channel

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22
Q

Which ONE of the following describes:
1) The type of detector that is used for local Area Radiation Monitors AND
2) The operational implications associated with the detector limitation(s)?
A.
1) GM-tube.
2) In low radiation fields, the detector output signal is weak thereby requiring amplification before being sent to the ratemeter / alarm electronic circuit. A noise problem could develop from the amplification which may lead to a higher than actual radiation indication.
B.
1) Ion Chamber.
2) In low radiation fields, the detector output signal is weak thereby requiring amplification before being sent to the ratemeter / alarm electronic circuit. A noise problem could develop from the amplification which may lead to a higher than actual radiation indication.
C.
1) GM-tube.
2) A weak ionizing event produces the same output as a much stronger ionizing event so if the detector is in a strong radiation field, it will become saturated. This may lead to a lower than actual radiation indication.
D.
1) Ion Chamber.
2) A weak ionizing event produces the same output as a much stronger ionizing event so if the detector is in a strong radiation field, it will become saturated. This may lead to a lower than actual radiation indication.

A

C.
1) GM-tube.
2) A weak ionizing event produces the same output as a much stronger ionizing event so if the detector is in a strong radiation field, it will become saturated. This may lead to a lower than actual radiation indication.

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23
Q

A Fire Watch patrol has been assigned to a specific fire zone, to monitor once per hour on Unit 2.
Which ONE of the following describes the Fire Protection Feature(s) that is (are) inoperable?
The ______ is inoperable.
A. fixed water spray system for the 2A and 2B Startup Transformers
B. pre-action sprinkler system for the Cable Spread room (43.0’ elev. RAB)
C. fire door that separates the “A” and “B” Electrical Switchgear rooms (43.0’ elev. RAB)
D. minimum required amount of fire detection instrumentation for the Fuel Handling Building New Fuel Area

A

D. minimum required amount of fire detection instrumentation for the Fuel Handling Building New Fuel Area

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24
Q

Given the following:
 Unit 2 has evacuated the Control Room due to the presence of toxic fumes
 All Operator actions in the Control Room were performed prior to evacuation.
 Critical actions from Appendix A through D of 2-ONP-100.02 “Control Room Inaccessibility” have been completed
 RCO A is maintaining Hot Standby conditions at the Remote Shutdown Panel
Which ONE of the following describes how RCS pressure is controlled and how subcooling is monitored?
Control pressurizer pressure between 1800 and 1850 psia by operating Auxiliary Spray valves along with ___(1)____.
Determine subcooling margin using 2-ONP-100.02 “Control Room Inaccessibility”, Figure 1 using Reactor Coolant System ____(2)____ and Pressurizer pressure.
A.
1) Proportional and backup heaters
2) T-hot
B.
1) backup heaters ONLY
2) T-cold + 50°F
C.
1) Proportional and backup heaters
2)T-cold + 50°F
D.
1) backup heaters ONLY
2) T-hot

A

B.
1) backup heaters ONLY
2) T-cold + 50°F

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25
Q

A Large Break LOCA has occurred on Unit 1. Onsite and offsite doses are higher than expected. It is suspected that a breach of Containment has occurred.
Containment pressure is currently 35 psig.
Which ONE of the following would have the LARGEST effect on reducing the Containment leak rate?
Reduce:
A. the energy release into the Containment by cooling down the RCS at maximum allowable rate by maximizing ECCS flow.
B. the energy release into the Containment by cooling down the RCS at maximum allowable rate by maximizing SG steaming and feeding.
C. Containment pressure by ensuring all available Hydrogen Purge and Shield Building Ventilation systems are operating.
D. Containment temperature by ensuring all available Containment coolers and Containment Spray pumps are operating.

A

D. Containment temperature by ensuring all available Containment coolers and Containment Spray pumps are operating.

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26
Q

Which ONE of the following Unit 1 Letdown Monitor radiation trends would be indicative of fuel
failure?
A. Iodine increase that remains significantly above prior levels during steady state operation.
B. Iodine increase that remains significantly above prior levels during a plant load change.
C. Iodine remains constant concurrent with a gross activity increase during a plant load change.
D. Iodine remains constant while gross activity increases during steady state operation.

A

A. Iodine increase that remains significantly above prior levels during steady state operation.

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27
Q

Unit 1 is in 1-EOP-15, ‘Functional Recovery’ due to Feedwater problems. Which ONE of the following states when Once Through Cooling (OTC) is to be initiated?
A. TCOLD rises 5°F with all ADV’s fully open.
B. THOT rises 5°F with all ADV’s fully open.
C. The 1A wide range SG level indicates 14% and the 1B wide range SG level indicates 16%.
D. Both SG wide range levels indicate 15% with MAXIMUM available feedwater flow of 150 gpm.

A

A. TCOLD rises 5°F with all ADV’s fully open.

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28
Q

Given the following on Unit 2:
 Unit was at 100% power for 210 days when a trip occurred.
 Unit is offline for 12 hours with RCS at normal operating temperature and pressure.
 One ADV on each Steam Generator is in manual control from the controller.
 AFW flow to each SG is 110 gpm.
A loss of CCW occurs requiring all RCP’s to be stopped. Ten (10) minutes after stopping the RCP’s, which of the following would be expected? (assume NO Operator actions)
SG pressure:
A. lowers. AFW flow remains the same.
B. rises. AFW flow lowers.
C. lowers. AFW flow rises.
D. rises. AFW flow remains the same.

A

B. rises. AFW flow lowers.

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29
Q

Unit 2 is in Mode 3 at 1810 psia and 502°F Tave. with three RCP’s operating.
 The 2A2 RCP has just been started.
Which of the following would require an IMMEDIATE stopping of the 2A2 RCP?
A. Upper seal cavity pressure indicates 600 psia.
B. Lower seal cavity temperature indicates 305°F.
C. Controlled bleedoff flow indicates 2 gallons per minute.
D. RCS pressure drops 30 psia below the minimum RCS pressure for RCP operation.

A

B. Lower seal cavity temperature indicates 305°F.

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30
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
Which ONE of the following conditions could result in the Charging Pump(s) not meeting the design Net Positive Suction Head?
(assume NO Operator actions)
Volume Control Tank:
A. pressure lowers to10 psig.
B. level lowers to 10% level.
C. level transmitter LT2227 failing LOW.
D. level transmitter LT2227 failing HIGH.

A

D. level transmitter LT2227 failing HIGH.

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31
Q

Unit 1 has tripped due to a LOOP. Both Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG) started and loaded on their respective busses, however the feeder breaker to the 1B5 MCC tripped opened when the 1B EDG output breaker closed.
On the trip three CEA’s failed to fully insert.
Which ONE of the following states the available emergency boration flowpath?
Charging pump suction aligned from the:
A. RWT isolation, V2504.
B. BAMT’s through the Gravity feed isolations, V2508 and V2509.
C. discharge of ‘A’ OR ‘B’ BAM pump through the emergency borate valve MV-2514.
D. discharge of ONLY the ‘A’ BAM pump through the emergency borate valve MV-2514.

A

C. discharge of ‘A’ OR ‘B’ BAM pump through the emergency borate valve MV-2514.

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32
Q

Unit 1 has just placed SDC in service and is cooling down at 30°F / hour.
A loss of Instrument air occurs and air pressure indicates 20 psig.
Which ONE of the following states the effect on RCS temperature on the loss of instrument air?
(assuming NO Operator actions)
RCS temperature will:
A. lower due to TCV-14-4A, 1A CCW HX Outlet and TCV-14-4B, 1B CCW HX Outlet going full OPEN.
B. lower due to HCV-14-3A, CCW to Shutdown HX 1A and HCV-14-3B, CCW to Shutdown HX 1B going full OPEN.
C. rise due to FCV-3306, SDC Return Flow, going full CLOSED.
D. rise due to HCV-3657, SDC TEMP Control, going full CLOSED.

A

D. rise due to HCV-3657, SDC TEMP Control, going full CLOSED.

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33
Q

Unit 1 is on Shutdown cooling with the following conditions:
 RCS temperature is 105°F
 RCS level is 41 feet.
 The 1A LPSI pump is aligned for SDC and the 1B LPSI pump is in standby.
 The RCS is being drained to the 34 foot level via the 1A LPSI pump recirc, V3204, at a rate of 50 gpm.
 SDC flow is 3450 gpm.
It is desired to increase the drain down rate to 100 gpm.
Which ONE of the following states the actions needed to raise the drain down flow rate, to drain from 41 feet to 34 feet, and the bases for these actions?
Throttle open V3204, 1A LPSI pump recirc. to the RWT, and reduce SDC flow to no more than:
A. 3160 gpm. This is the minimum SDC flow that will limit the RCS from heating up.
B. 3400 gpm. This is the minimum SDC flow that will limit the RCS from heating up.
C. 3160 gpm. This is the maximum LPSI flow requirements to prevent suction line voiding and possible water hammer.
D. 3400 gpm. This is the maximum LPSI flow requirements to prevent suction line voiding and possible water hammer.

A

C. 3160 gpm. This is the maximum LPSI flow requirements to prevent suction line voiding and
possible water hammer.

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34
Q

Unit 2 has tripped from 100% power due to a Main Feedwater problem. The following conditions
exist:
 Pressurizer level is 22% and slowly lowering.
 RCS TAVE is 530°F and stable.
 2A and 2B Charging pumps are running with Charging header pressure indicating 420 psia.
 Reactor cavity leakage recorder is off scale high.
Which of the following states the Operator actions and the appropriate procedure implementation?
A. Start the 2C Charging pump in addition to the 2A and 2B Charging pumps to restore Pressurizer level to 27-35%. Implement 2-AOP-01.06, ‘Excessive RCS Leakage’.
B. Start the 2C Charging pump in addition to the 2A and 2B Charging pumps and align to the A HPSI Header IAW 2-AOP-02.03, ‘Charging and Letdown’ Attachment 2, ’Alternate Charging Flow Path Through the A HPSI Header’.
C. Stop the 2A and 2B Charging pumps and align the 2A or 2B Charging pump to the A HPSI header IAW 2-AOP-02.03, ‘Charging and Letdown’ Attachment 2, ‘Alternate Charging Flow Path Through the A HPSI Header’.
D. Stop the 2A and 2B Charging pumps and start the 2C Charging pump to restore Pressurizer level to 27-35%. Implement 2-AOP-01.06, ‘Excessive RCS Leakage’.

A

C. Stop the 2A and 2B Charging pumps and align the 2A or 2B Charging pump to the A HPSI header IAW 2-AOP-02.03, ‘Charging and Letdown’ Attachment 2, ‘Alternate Charging Flow Path Through the A HPSI Header’.

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35
Q

Unit 1 is implementing 1-EOP-02, ‘Reactor Trip Recovery’ due to an inadvertent SIAS.
Thirty (30) minutes into the event the Quench Tank High level alarm is received.
Which ONE of the following states the most likely reason for the Quench Tank high level alarm?
A. Operator actions have aligned the alternate RCP bleedoff flow.
B. CIAS has aligned the alternate RCP bleedoff flow.
C. Pressurizer relief or Safety valve leakage.
D. Quench Tank cooling heat exchanger has developed a leak.

A

A. Operator actions have aligned the alternate RCP bleedoff flow.

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36
Q

On Unit 1, which ONE of the following Quench Tank conditions could result is increasing radioactivity to the Containment atmosphere during a Quench Tank design event?
Quench Tank:
A. pressure is allowed to lower to 0.9 psig.
B. temperature is allowed to rise to 117°F.
C. temperature is allowed to lower to 110°F.
D. level is allowed to lower to 38%.

A

D. level is allowed to lower to 38%.

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37
Q

Given the following conditions:
 A steam generator tube leak has occurred on Unit 2
 During the downpower, the CCW “N” header developed a leak
 After the “N” header automatically isolated, the operators manually tripped the reactor and turbine
 The “N” header leak has been isolated
 LA-10, “CCW SURGE TANK COMPARTMENT A LEVEL LOW,” locked in
 LB-10, “CCW SURGE TANK LEVEL HIGH/COMPARTMENT B LEVEL LOW,” locked in
 Chemistry has requested that cooling be restored to the sample heat exchangers to allow S/G samples to be taken
Based on the above conditions, which ONE of the following describes the MINIMUM action(s)/conditions that must occur to open the CCW “N” header isolation valves?
The CCW “N” header valves:
A. will open if the control switches are placed in “closed/override” and then placed in “open”.
B. can be locally opened by failing the air supply to the valves.
C. will open if the control switches are placed in the “open” position.
D. cannot be opened until level is restored to the surge tank.

A

D. cannot be opened until level is restored to the surge tank.

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38
Q

On Unit 2, which ONE of the following states how the Pressurizer PORV open signal is
achieved when the PORV selector switch is in:
1) NORMAL RANGE
2) LTOP
Directly from the:
A.
1) RPS high pressure trip bistables.
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1103, 1104
B.
1) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1102 A-D
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1102 A-D
C.
1) RPS high pressure trip bistables.
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1102 A-D
D.
1) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1102 A-D
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1103, 1104

A

A.
1) RPS high pressure trip bistables.
2) Pressurizer pressure instruments PT-1103, 1104

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39
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power with the following:
The DC power supply to ONE RPS K Relay has failed (de-energized).
Which ONE of the following states:
1) The number of TCB’s that has opened?
2) The procedure that CAN be used to close the TCB’s when the fault is corrected?
A.
1) 2 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-49.02, ‘120V INSTRUMENT AC SYSTEM (CLASS 1E)’
B.
1) 2 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-50.07A(B) LOSS OF OR DEGRADED SAFETY RELATED DC BUS 1A (1B)
C.
1) 4 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-49.02, ‘120V INSTRUMENT AC SYSTEM (CLASS 1E)’
D.
1) 4 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-50.07A(B) LOSS OF OR DEGRADED SAFETY RELATED DC BUS 1A (1B)

A

A.
1) 2 Trip Circuit Breakers (TCB’s open)
2) 1-AOP-49.02, ‘120V INSTRUMENT AC SYSTEM (CLASS 1E)’

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40
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power when the following SINGLE annunciator is received:
ENGINEERED SAFEGUARDS ATI FAULT R-10
Upon observation of the ESFAS panel, it is observed the Containment Pressure individual ATI
Test Panel light is NOT illuminating during the test sequence.
Which ONE of the following states:
1) the significance of the observation.
2) the actuation logic sequence for SIAS on high Containment pressure.
A.
1) The Containment pressure bistable did not trip at 5% ABOVE setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 1/3 logic
B.
1) The Containment pressure bistable did not trip at 5% ABOVE setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 2/4 logic
C.
1) The Containment pressure bistable tripped at 5% BELOW setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 1/3 logic
D.
1) The Containment pressure bistable tripped at 5% BELOW setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 2/4 logic

A

D.
1) The Containment pressure bistable tripped at 5% BELOW setpoint during the testing sequence.
2) SIAS on high Containment pressure is 2/4 logic

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41
Q

Unit 2 has experienced a LOCA. RCS pressure is 1580 psia and the crew has entered 2-EOP-03, ‘LOCA’.
On the trip, feeder breakers to MCC 2B9 tripped.
Which ONE of the following states the RUNNING Containment Fan Coolers?
A. C and D Containment Fan Coolers.
B. A and C Containment Fan Coolers.
C. A and B Containment Fan Coolers.
D. B and D Containment Fan Coolers.

A

C. A and B Containment Fan Coolers.

42
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power with CEDM cooling fan HVE -21B out of service and HVE-21A running.
HVE-21A trips and cannot be started.
Which ONE of the following states the time to restore a CEDM cooling fan and the basis for this time?
Restore a CEDM cooling fan within:
A. 45 minutes to limit the possibility of dropping CEA’s due to overheated CEDM coils.
B. 45 minutes to prevent the reactor vessel support structure from exceeding its design limits.
C. 5 hours to limit the possibility of dropping CEA’s due to overheated CEDM coils.
D. 5 hours to prevent the reactor vessel support structure from exceeding its design limits.

A

B. 45 minutes to prevent the reactor vessel support structure from exceeding its design limits.

43
Q

Unit 2 has experienced a large break Loss of Coolant accident with the following conditions:
 Two (2) Containment fan coolers are operating.
 One Containment Spray pump operating with 2500 gpm flow.
 Containment temperature is 245°F.
 Containment pressure is 22 psig.
 Hydrogen Concentration is 0.5%.
Which of the following MINIMUM actions are necessary to meet the Containment Temperature and Pressure control safety function?
A. Start an additional Containment Spray pump and ensure Spray flow is 2550 gpm or greater.
B. Increase the flow rate on the running Containment Spray pump to 2550 gpm or greater.
C. Start one additional Containment Cooler.
D. Start two additional Containment Coolers.

A

D. Start two additional Containment Coolers.

44
Q

During start of the 1[2]C Auxiliary Feedwater pump for a surveillance run the following
annunciator was received and locked in:
1[2]C AFW Pump
Turbine Failure/Trip/SS Isol G-46
The Red and Green lights for MV-08-3, 1[2] C AFW Pump Trip and Throttle valve are both
illuminated.
This is an indication of ________overspeed on Unit _________.
A. Electrical, Unit 1.
B. Mechanical, Unit 1.
C. Electrical, Unit 2.
D. Mechanical, Unit 2.

A

B. Mechanical, Unit 1.

45
Q

Unit 2 is in Mode 3 with the following:
 Steam Bypass Control System (SBCS) controllers are in AUTOMATIC controlling RCS Tave at 532°F.
 A condenser backpressure pressure transmitter (PS-10-9) briefly spiked to 14” Hg absolute then returned to 5.7” Hg absolute.
SBCS valves:
A. close until the SBCS PERMISSIVE SWITCH is taken to ‘MANUAL’.
B. close until the SBCS VACUUM INTERLOCK PUSHBUTTON is depressed.
C. close and automatically reopen as backpressure returned to 5.7” Hg absolute.
D. remained controlling in Automatic due to the low vacuum setpoint NOT reached.

A

C. close and automatically reopen as backpressure returned to 5.7” Hg absolute.

46
Q

On Unit 1, which ONE of the following will automatically terminate Main Feedwater to the Steam Generators?
A trip from 100% power and:
A. Containment pressure rises to 4 psig 5 minutes after the trip.
B. Steam Generator levels lower to 19% 6 minutes after the trip.
C. Steam Generator levels rise to 90% 5 minutes after the trip.
D. A complete loss of Nitrogen supply pressure to the Main Feedwater Isolation valves.

A

C. Steam Generator levels rise to 90% 5 minutes after the trip.

47
Q

Given the following conditions:
 Unit 2 is at 100% power
 Unit 2 CST level is 36 ft.
 Unit 1 is in Mode 3, NOP / NOT preparing to cooldown to Mode 5
 Unit 1 CST has been damaged by a tornado. The current level is 4 feet.
 Unit 2 CST is currently aligned to the Unit 1 AFW pumps IAW 1-AOP-09.02, ‘Auxiliary Feedwater’
Which ONE of the following action(s) must be taken if the suction pressure lowers to 3 psig on the running Unit 1 AFW pump(s)?
A. Throttle the running AFW pump(s) discharge MOV(s).
B. Stop all but ONE AFW pump.
C. Stop ALL running AFW pumps.
D. Fill the Unit 2 CST to >40 feet.

A

A. Throttle the running AFW pump(s) discharge MOV(s).

48
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power when the following alarm is received:
4KV SWGR 1A3 Δ CURRENT TRIP B-14
Which ONE of the following states the status of the 1A Diesel Generator?
The 1A Diesel Generator:
A. has started and sequenced loads that were previously running on the 1A3 4.16 KV bus.
B. has started but does NOT load on the 4.16 KV bus until the Δ Current relay is reset.
C. does NOT start until the Δ Current relay is reset.
D. does NOT start until all loads that were previously running are ‘Green Flagged’ AND the Δ Current relay is reset.

A

B. has started but does NOT load on the 4.16 KV bus until the Δ Current relay is reset.

49
Q

Unit 2 was at 100% power when a loss of the 2A DC bus occurs.
Which ONE of the following indicates the AFW availability?
(assume AB DC bus aligned to the A side)
1) The 2B AFW pump to the:
2) the 2C AFW pump steam from the:
A.
1) 2A Steam Generator.
2) 2B Steam Generator and feeding the 2A Steam Generator.
B.
1) 2A Steam Generator.
2) 2A Steam Generator and feeding the 2B Steam Generator.
C.
1) 2B Steam Generator.
2) 2A Steam Generator and feeding the 2A Steam Generator.
D.
1) 2B Steam Generator.
2) 2B Steam Generator and feeding the 2B Steam Generator.

A

C.
1) 2B Steam Generator.
2) 2A Steam Generator and feeding the 2A Steam Generator.

50
Q

Unit 2 has experienced a LOOP. Both Emergency Diesel Generators (EDG’s) are loaded on their respective busses.
Which ONE of the following can be manually controlled from the EDG controls on the RTGB for this condition?
Emergency Diesel Generator:
A. Voltage
B. Frequency
C. Load
D. Emergency STOP pushbutton

A

A. Voltage

51
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power with the following conditions:
 The 1A Emergency Diesel Generator air dryers have been issued a clearance which included taking the air dryer switch to the OFF position.
 Air pressure on all the air receivers is 175 psig.
An inadvertent Channel ‘A’ CIAS occurs.
Which ONE of the following states the status of the:
1) 1A Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG)
2) 1A Diesel Generator Air Start system?
A.
1) The 1A EDG is NOT running.
2) The electric driven air compressor IS running.
B.
1) The 1A EDG IS running.
2) The electric driven air compressor IS running.
C.
1) The 1A EDG is NOT running.
2) The electric driven air compressor is NOT running.
D.
1) The 1A EDG IS running.
2) The electric driven air compressor is NOT running.

A

C.
1) The 1A EDG is NOT running.
2) The electric driven air compressor is NOT running.

52
Q

The following conditions exist on Unit 1:
 The ‘A’ Steam Generator blowdown monitor, Channel 44, is in ALERT.
 A Steam Generator tube leak of about 10 gpm is suspected.
 The crew is performing a rapid downpower and is currently at 95% power
As the downpower reaches 80%, the leak increases to 40 gpm and the Blowdown monitor goes to HIGH alarm.
Which ONE of the following states the expected INDICATION of the Steam Generator Blowdown indication on PT 6, CHNL 44, RR-26-1D, ‘Process Monitoring’ as Channel 44 goes from the ALERT condition to the HIGH alarm?
PT 6, CHNL 44 Blowdown activity will:
A. DECREASE and continue to DECREASE due to the lower power level.
B. INCREASE and continue to INCREASE due to the change in leak rate.
C. NOT change due to lower power level even though increased leak rate.
D. INCREASE, then NOT change due to the monitored sample being in a stagnant fluid.

A

D. INCREASE, then NOT change due to the monitored sample being in a stagnant fluid.

53
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power with the CCW HX, ICW strainers in an automatic backwash cycle.
Unit 1 then tripped due to a large break loss of coolant accident (LOCA).
Shortly after SIAS actuation the below alarm annunciated.
A ICW HDR MV-21-3 OVRLD / SIAS FAIL TO CLOSE E-22
1) What position would HCV-21-7A and HCV-21-7B, Debris Disch. Isol. indicate on RTGB 102?
2) What affect could the above alarm have?
A.
1) Closed.
2) Reduction of ICW flow / heat removal capability through the CCW heat exchanger.
B.
1) Closed
2) ICW header flow exceeding design basis
C.
1) Open
2) Reduction of ICW flow / heat removal capability through the CCW heat exchanger.
D.
1) Open
2) ICW header flow exceeding design basis

A

A.
1) Closed.
2) Reduction of ICW flow / heat removal capability through the CCW heat exchanger.

54
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power with the 1C Instrument Air compressor in RUN and the 1D Instrument air compressor is in AUTO.
Which of the following conditions requires a MANUAL RESET and MANUAL START of the standby 1D Instrument Air Compressor?
The 1C Instrument Air Compressor tripped on:
A. Motor overload.
B. High temperature.
C. Low oil pressure.
D. High pressure.

A

D. High pressure.

55
Q

Which ONE of the following would result in a VIOLATION of Containment Integrity while the Unit is in Mode 1?
A. Stroke testing the Containment Vacuum Reliefs.
B. A Containment Isolation valve stroke time is in the Alert range.
C. A motor operated Containment Isolation valve will NOT fully close with the motor but is closed manually and is de-energized.
D. Opening a locked manual Containment Isolation valve in the penetration room and stationing an operator in the Control Room to close this valve in the event of an accident.

A

D. Opening a locked manual Containment Isolation valve in the penetration room and stationing an operator in the Control Room to close this valve in the event of an accident.

56
Q

Unit 2 is experiencing a Large Break Loss of Coolant accident.
Which ONE of the following is the MOST DEFINITIVE system used to determine a possible superheat condition in the core and how can this parameter be monitored from the RTGB?
A. Heated Junction Thermocouples (HJTC’s) by selecting ‘RCS’ on QSPDS.
B. Core Exit Thermocouples (CET’s) by selecting ‘INCORE’ on ERDADS.
C. Heated Junction Thermocouples (HJTC’s) by selecting ‘INCORE’ on ERDADS.
D. Core Exit Thermocouples (CET’s) by selecting ‘RCS’ on QSPDS.

A

D. Core Exit Thermocouples (CET’s) by selecting ‘RCS’ on QSPDS.

57
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 5 with a Containment Purge in progress.
Channel MD CIAS radiation monitor fails high.
Which ONE of the following states the status of the Containment Purge system and Containment evacuation alarm?
Containment Purge:
A. isolates and the Containment evacuation alarm actuates.
B. continues to operate and the Containment evacuation alarm actuates.
C. isolates and the Containment evacuation alarm remains silent.
D. continues to operate and the Containment evacuation alarm remains silent.

A

B. continues to operate and the Containment evacuation alarm actuates.

58
Q

St. Lucie plant has experienced a catastrophic natural event that has resulted in Unit 2 Spent fuel pool structure damage with an estimated leak rate of 400 gpm.
2-AOP-04.01, ‘Fuel Pool Cooling System’ has been entered.
Which ONE of the following states the significance of the leak rate AND the Fuel Pool makeup source that would be used to compensate for the above leakage? (assume Spent Fuel Pool is accessible)
A. The above leak rate is WITHIN the ‘normal makeup’ flow rate. The makeup flowpath will be from the Fuel Pool purification system with suction from the RWT.
B. The above leak rate is WITHIN the ‘normal makeup’ flow rate. Primary Water pumps with suction from the Primary Water tank.
C. The above leak rate is OUTSIDE the ‘normal makeup’ flow rate. Portable Fire pump with suction from the City Water Storage Tanks.
D. The above leak rate is OUTSIDE the ‘normal makeup’ flow rate. Intake Cooling water from the discharge of the Intake Cooling Water header.

A

C. The above leak rate is OUTSIDE the ‘normal makeup’ flow rate. Portable Fire pump with suction from the City Water Storage Tanks.

59
Q

Regulating valve (HPFRV) stops responding to the power increase and has failed ‘as is’.
Assuming NO Operator actions and the power increase progresses, which of the following states the 1A SG level response?
1A SG level will initially:
A. lower from setpoint until the Low Power FRV opens to return SG level to setpoint.
B. lower from setpoint and continue to lower resulting in 1A SG level low alarm.
C. rise from setpoint as the Low Power FRV initially opens to control SG level at setpoint.
D. remain at setpoint with the Low Power FRV controlling SG level.

A

A. lower from setpoint until the Low Power FRV opens to return SG level to setpoint.

60
Q

Unit 2 is at 12% power and has just synchronized the Main Generator to the grid. The Generator
picked up 40 MWe and then tripped 5 seconds later.
Which ONE of the following states the expected plant indication?
A. Reactor power indicates 12% with SBCS opening to control temperature.
B. Reactor power indicates 12% with ADV’s opening to control temperature.
C. The 15% FW bypass valves controlling SG levels in automatic.
D. Trip Circuit Breaker (TCB) lights indicate ‘GREEN’ with SBCS closing to control temperature.

A

A. Reactor power indicates 12% with SBCS opening to control temperature.

61
Q

Unit 1 is at 2% power performing a plant startup with the following:
 The Hogging Ejectors have just been placed in service to initially draw a vacuum in the condenser.
 Main Steam Isolation Valves are open with ADV’s in service.
If a Steam Generator tube leak developed, which ONE of the following states the secondary radiation monitor(s) that would indicate the Steam Generator tube leakage?
A. ONLY Main Steam Line monitors and SG Blowdown monitors.
B. ONLY SG Blowdown monitors.
C. ONLY SJAE monitor and Main Steam Line monitors.
D. SJAE, Main Steam Line monitors and SG Blowdown monitors.

A

A. ONLY Main Steam Line monitors and SG Blowdown monitors.

62
Q

Unit 1 is at 40% power with the following conditions:
 1A Main Feedwater pump running
 1A and 1C Condensate pump running
Condensate header recirc. valve, FCV-12-1 opens to a flow of 10,000 gpm.
Which of the following would be the FIRST procedure to enter?
A. 1-EOP-01, ‘Standard Post Trip Actions’
B. 1-AOP-22.01, ‘Rapid Downpower’
C. 1-AOP-09.04, ‘Feedwater, Condensate, and Heater Drain Pump Abnormal Operations’
D. 1-AOP-12.01, ‘Loss of Condenser Vacuum’

A

C. 1-AOP-09.04, ‘Feedwater, Condensate, and Heater Drain Pump Abnormal Operations’

63
Q

On Unit 1, Liquid Waste Radiation Monitor R-6627 has been declared out of service.
IAW 1-NOP-06.01, ‘Controlled Liquid Release to the Circulating Water Discharge’, which ONE of the following states the MINIMUM required actions to perform a controlled liquid release to the Circulating Water Discharge?
A. An independent verification of the Initial valve alignment AND two independent release rate calculations.
B. An independent verification of the Initial valve alignment AND Two independent radioactivity analysis of the tank to be released.
C. Two independent radioactivity analysis of the tank to be released AND two independent release rate calculations.
D. An independent verification of the Initial valve alignment AND two independent radioactivity analysis of the tank to be released AND two independent release rate calculations.

A

D. An independent verification of the Initial valve alignment AND two independent radioactivity analysis of the tank to be released AND two independent release rate calculations.

64
Q

Unit 2 is at 100% power, steady state.
 An Equipment Clearance order is being executed to remove 2B Intake Cooling Water (ICW) pump from service for a motor inspection.
 It is desired to align 2C ICW pump to replace 2B.
Which ONE of the following describes the MINIMUM electrical alignment that will meet the requirements of the Technical Specifications LCO for the 2C ICW pump?
A. ONLY the 2AB 4.16 KV bus aligned to the B 4.16 KV side.
B. ONLY the 2AB 4.16 KV AND 2AB DC bus aligned to the B 4.16 KV and B DC side.
C. The 2AB 4.16 KV bus aligned to the B 4.16 KV side and the 2AB 480 V bus and the 2AB DC bus aligned to either the B side OR the A side.
D. The 2AB 4.16 KV bus, 2AB 480 V bus AND the 2AB DC bus aligned to the B side.

A

D. The 2AB 4.16 KV bus, 2AB 480 V bus AND the 2AB DC bus aligned to the B side.

65
Q

The plant has been at 100% power for 210 days. You have been on vacation for 10 days. Upon return to work you will be the Licensed RO OATC (Operator At The Controls). ONE other Licensed RO is assigned to your shift.
Three RCO Trainees have been assigned to your shift.
Which ONE of the following states the review of Station Log requirement AND the allowable number of Trainees in the Operator At the Controls Area (OACA)?
A. Review the Station Logs back to 10 days ago. ONE (1) Trainee in the OACA.
B. Review the Station Logs back to 3 days ago. ONE (1) Trainee in the OACA
C. Review the Station Logs back to 10 days ago. TWO (2) Trainees in the OACA.
D. Review the Station Logs back to 3 days ago. TWO (2) Trainees in the OACA.

A

D. Review the Station Logs back to 3 days ago. TWO (2) Trainees in the OACA.

66
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power when the following alarm is received:
INST AIR PRESS HIGH / LOW F-5
The crew has implemented 1-AOP-18.01, ‘Instrument Air Malfunction’.
The Instrument air pressure indicates 99 psig and slowly lowering. The 1C Instrument air compressor has tripped and the 1D compressor is out of service on a clearance.
Which ONE of the following Operator actions, as directed in 1-AOP-18.01, would be the FIRST step to mitigate the lowering of Instrument air pressure?
A. Open the Unit to Unit Instrument air cross-ties.
B. Start the 1A and or 1B Instrument air compressor(s).
C. Open the Station air to Instrument air crosstie.
D. Swap air dryers, place the standby air dryer in service.

A

C. Open the Station air to Instrument air crosstie.

67
Q

Which ONE of the following does NOT require a plant wide announcement over the paging system as defined in Ops policy OPS-106, ‘Communication’:
A. Performing a resin transfer in the RAB.
B. Latching the turbine prior to performing a Turbine Startup.
C. Reducing power from 100% to 99.5% for Tave coast down at end of core life.
D. Performing the Control Element Assembly Full Length periodic surveillance.

A

C. Reducing power from 100% to 99.5% for Tave coast down at end of core life.

68
Q

Unit 1 is coming out of a refueling outage. Which ONE of the following is the MINIMUM Plant condition (i.e. lowest Mode) that would require implementation of ADM-01.01, ‘Confined Space Entry’?
Entering the Containment after the Unit has just:
A. reached normal operating temperature and pressure.
B. announced Reactor is critical.
C. entered Mode 3 from a Mode 4 condition.
D. entered Mode 4 from a Mode 5 condition.

A

B. announced Reactor is critical.

69
Q

The Control Rooms have been evacuated and 1(2)-ONP-100.02, ‘Control Room Inaccessibility’ is being implemented.
A plant cooldown and depressurization to Shutdown Cooling is being conducted from the Hot Shutdown panel IAW Appendix E.
As the cooldown and depressurization progresses, which ONE of the following states how ECCS pumps are controlled, prior to reaching SIAS setpoint during the depressurization?
A. On Unit 1, RACK OUT ALL ECCS pumps.
B. On Unit 2, RACK OUT ALL ECCS pumps.
C. On Unit 1, BLOCK SIAS by placing the SIAS keyswitch, to ‘SIAS BLOCK’ for SIAS Channel A and B.
D. On Unit 2, BLOCK SIAS by placing the SIAS keyswitch, to ‘SIAS BLOCK’ for SIAS Channel A and B.

A

D. On Unit 2, BLOCK SIAS by placing the SIAS keyswitch, to ‘SIAS BLOCK’ for SIAS Channel
A and B.

70
Q

Which ONE of the following is used to administratively control an annunciator that has been out of service for 10 days?
A. ADM-09.03, ‘Administrative Control Of Defeated Annunciators’
B. ADM-0010432, ‘Control Of Plant Work Orders’
C. ADM-17.18, ‘Temporary Modifications’.
D. OP-AA-101-1000, ‘Clearance and Tagging’

A

C. ADM-17.18, ‘Temporary Modifications’.

71
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power preparing for unit shutdown for a refueling outage. The 1A Charging pump is running and the RCO is preparing to start the 1B Charging pump IAW 1-NOP-02.02, “Charging and Letdown”.
Which ONE of the following is the correct order to start the 1B Charging Pump?
A.
1) Start the 1B Charging pump.
2) Contact the SNPO within 15 minutes to ensure the 1B Charging pump is operating properly.
3) Notify RP the 1B Charging pump is running.
B.
1) Contact RP at least 15 minutes prior to starting charging pump.
2) Direct SNPO to perform a local inspection and verify charging pump is ready to be started.
3) Start the 1B Charging pump.
C.
1) Contact RP at least 15 minutes prior to starting charging pump.
2) Start the 1B Charging pump.
3) Contact the SNPO to ensure the 1B Charging pump is operating properly.
D.
1) Direct SNPO to perform a local inspection and verify charging pump is ready to be started.
2) Approximately 15 minutes later, start the 1B Charging pump.
3) Notify RP the 1B Charging pump is running.

A

B.
1) Contact RP at least 15 minutes prior to starting charging pump.
2) Direct SNPO to perform a local inspection and verify charging pump is ready to be started.
3) Start the 1B Charging pump.

72
Q

As an FPL employee, tomorrow you are scheduled to perform valve lineups in the RAB. It’s December 22 and your TEDE exposure to date is 775 mrem. Assignment 1 is a 65 minute job to be performed in an area that is 200 mrem/hr.
On Jan 2, you are scheduled for Assignment 2, to work in an area that is 115 mrem/hr for four (4) hours, but the new year updated NRC form 4 has not been filled out.
Which assignment or assignments, if any, can you complete without a dose extension and without exceeding the FPL TEDE administrative dose limits IAW HP-2, FPL ‘Radiation Protection Manual’?
A. CAN complete BOTH assignments.
B. CAN complete assignment 1 ONLY.
C. CAN complete assignment 2 ONLY.
D. CANNOT complete ANY assignment.

A

B. CAN complete assignment 1 ONLY.

73
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 6 performing refueling operations. A UGS lift is scheduled and you have been assigned to move the Refueling Machine in preparation for this lift. It is expected to take 5 minutes to move the Refueling Machine.
The dose rate on the bridge of the refueling machine is 115 mr/hr.
What type of RWP would be expected and what RP coverage would be REQUIRED.
A. A Job specific RWP with continuous RP coverage.
B. A Job specific RWP with periodic RP coverage.
C. A general entry RWP for the RCB with continuous RP coverage.
D. A general entry RWP for the RCB with periodic RP coverage.

A

B. A Job specific RWP with periodic RP coverage.

74
Q

The Unit has just tripped.
Prior to formal implementation of EOP-01, ‘Standard Post Trip Actions’, which ONE of the following CAN BE performed by the RO WITHOUT concurrence of the Unit Supervisor?
A. Starting an additional Charging Pump with Pressurizer level lowering rapidly.
B. Closing the Diesel output breaker if it didn’t close on a LOOP.
C. Closing the MSR TCV’s due to the MSR Block valves not closing.
D. Closing the MSIV’s due to the Turbine not tripping.

A

D. Closing the MSIV’s due to the Turbine not tripping.

75
Q

Unit 1 Unit Supervisor is directing implementation of 1-EOP-15, ‘Functional Recovery’.
Which ONE of the following identifies the instrumentation that is to be used FIRST by the Operators to assess the status of Safety Functions?
A. ERDADS instrumentation
B. DCS instrumentation
C. Instrumentation ALSO designated as Remote Shutdown instrumentation.
D. Instrumentation identified by White Bezel around the face of the instrument.

A

D. Instrumentation identified by White Bezel around the face of the instrument.

76
Q

Given the following:
* Unit 1 is cooling down and has just placed SDC in service using the 1 B LPSI pump.
* Pressurizer pressure and level started lowering rapidly and the lB LPSI pump was stopped.
* The RCS has heated up to 340° F.
Which ONE of the following states:
1) The Tech. Spec. ACCIDENT MONITORING INSTRUMENTATION that should be used to monitor Pressurizer level?
2) Based on the current conditions, the Tech. Spec. action that is applicable if ONE CHANNEL of that instrumentation is NOT operable I available AND is unable to be restored?
A.
1) Pressurizer level transmitter LT-1 11 OX AND LT-1 11 OY.
2) Be in Hot Shutdown in 12 hours.
B.
1) Pressurizer level transmitter LT-1 103 AND LT-1 104, LT-1 105.
2) Be in Hot Shutdown in 12 hours.
C.
1) Pressurizer level transmitter LT-1 11 OX AND LT-1 11 OY.
2) Be in Hot Shutdown in 6 hours.
D.
1) Pressurizer level transmitter LT-1 103 AND LT-1 104, LT-1 105.
2) Be in Hot Shutdown in 6 hours.

A

A.
1) Pressurizer level transmitter LT-1 11 OX AND LT-1 11 OY.
2) Be in Hot Shutdown in 12 hours.

77
Q

Unit 1 is combating a LARGE SGTR on the 1 B SG. All Reactor Coolant Pumps have been stopped.
1 -EOP-04, ‘Steam Generator Tube Rupture’ is being implemented with the following conditions:
* Pressurizer pressure is 900 psia
* Pressurizer level is offscale low
* 1 B SG pressure indicates 650 psia
* lB SG level indicates 95% Narrow Range and slowly rising.
* 1 B SG has been isolated lAW Appendix ‘R’
Which ONE of the following is the PREFFERED method of lowering the 1 B SG level to within the Safety Function range?
A. Line up the 1 B SG blowdown system to the Monitored Storage Tank (MST).
B. Reducing RCS pressure to less then the SG pressure (backflow).
C. Steaming the 1 B SG to the condenser.
D. Steaming the 1 B SG to the atmosphere.

A

B. Reducing RCS pressure to less then the SG pressure (backflow).

78
Q

Unit 2 is performing a Reactor startup following a refueling outage. The Reactor is critical with a stable power level of 6%. A positive Moderator Temperature Coefficient (MTC) exists.
SBCS valve PCV-8802 fails to the full open position. Efforts to close the valve from the control room have failed.
* RCS TaveiS currently 515°F and lowering.
* RCS pressure is 2220 psia and lowering.
* Pressurizer level is 25% and lowering.
1) Which ONE of the following would be observed that requires a manual Reactor trip?
2) When the Reactor is tripped, which ONE of the following Tech. Spec action statement applies?
A.
1) 2 of 4 high startup rate channel pre-trips illuminated.
2) Restore Pressurizer level 27% to 68% within 6 hours.
B.
1) 2 of 4 high startup rate channel pre-trips illuminated.
2) Restore RCS pressure to greater than 2225 psia within 2 hours.
C.
1) RCSTave.
2) Restore Pressurizer level 27% to 68% within 6 hours.
D.
1) RCS Tave
2) Restore RCS pressure to greater than 2225 psia within 2 hours.

A

C.
1)RCSTave.
2) Restore Pressurizer level 27% to 68% within 6 hours.

79
Q

Given the following:
* At time 0020 both Units tripped due to a LOOP (loss of offsite power)
* On the trip, both Unit 1 Diesel generators failed to start and ONE Unit 2 Diesel generator
is running on its respective bus.
The E-Plan classification was made at time 0025
1) Which of the following states the basis for the HIGHEST classification and
2) The LATEST time the NRC must be notified
A.
1) Station Blackout
2) Time 0125
B.
1) Station Blackout
2) Time 0120
C.
1) LOOP
2) Time 0125
D.
1) LOOP
2) Time 0120

A

A.
1) Station Blackout
2) Time 0125

80
Q

Unit 2 is at 100% power with the 2C Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW) Pump being out of service for 6 hours
* At time 2230 the Unit tripped due to a Loss of Offsite power
o The 2A Diesel generator automatically started and loaded on the bus
o The 2B Diesel generator started but its output breaker failed to close
* At time 2231 2A and 2B Steam Generator (SG) narrow range levels indicated 17 and 20% respectively
* At time 2235 the 2B Diesel generator breaker was manually closed. 2A and 2B SG levels indicate 16 and 19% respectively.
1) Which ONE of the following states the Tech. Spec Action statement applicable for the 2C AFW pump?
2) Assuming NO further Operator actions, which of the following states the AFW status at time 2236?
A.
1) Restore the 2C AFW pump to operable status within 66 hours.
2) The 2A AFW pump is running feeding the 2A SG. The 2B AFW pump is NOT running.
B.
1) Restore the 2C AFW pump to operable status within 66 hours.
2) The 2A AFW pump is running feeding only the A SG. The 2B AFW pump is running but NOT feeding the 2B SG.
C.
1) Restore the 2C AFW pump to operable status within 18 hours.
2) The 2A AFW pump is running feeding the 2A SG. The 2B AFW pump is NOT running.
D.
1) Restore the 2C AFW pump to operable status within 18 hours.
2) The 2A AFW pump is running feeding only the A SG. The 2B AFW pump is running but NOT feeding the 2B SG.

A

A.
1) Restore the 2C AFW pump to operable status within 66 hours.
2) The 2A AFW pump is running feeding the 2A SG. The 2B AFW pump is NOT running.

81
Q

Given the following conditions on Unit 2:
The Containment Atmosphere PARTICULATE radioactivity monitor has been out of service for 48 hours.
1) If a loss of instrument air occurred after the unit was shutdown, which RCS leakage detection subsystems would be operable?
2) Based on that determination, what surveillances, if any, will be required to be performed to satisfy the RCS Leakage Detection system LCO per Ops Policy 503, “Technical Specification Guidance”? Perform an RCS leak rate:
A.
1) ONLY the Reactor Cavity Leakage Alarm is operable.
2) OR a containment atmosphere grab sample analysis every 12 hours.
B.
1) The Reactor Cavity Leakage Alarm AND the Containment Atmosphere GASEOUS Radioactivity monitor are operable.
2) OR a containment atmosphere grab sample analysis every 12 hours.
C.
1) ONLY the Reactor Cavity Leakage Alarm is operable.
2) AND a containment atmosphere grab sample analysis every 12 hours.
D.
1) The Reactor Cavity Leakage Alarm AND the Containment Atmosphere GASEOUS Radioactivity monitor are operable.
2) AND a containment atmosphere grab sample analysis every 12 hours.

A

A.
1) ONLY the Reactor Cavity Leakage Alarm is operable.
2) OR a containment atmosphere grab sample analysis every 12 hours.

82
Q

Unit 1 was operating at 100% power (1050 MW) when an influx of jellyfish occurred, causing a degradation of condenser vacuum.
At 0800, a down power is commenced at 1%/Mm; condenser backpressure is 7.2” Hg.
Time Condenser Backpressure (“ Hg A) MWe
0810 6.8 945
0820 6.6 840
0835 6.3 683
0850 6.1 525
Which ONE of the following states:
1) The procedural requirements of 1-AOP-1 2.01, “Loss of Condenser Vacuum” at time 0850?
At time 0853, Condenser Backpressure rose to 8.5” HgA.
2) Assuming no Operator actions, an automatic Reactor trip will occur:
A.
1) Continue the downpower until backpressure lowers to <5.9 in HgA.
2) immediately.
B.
1) Continue the downpower until backpressure lowers to <5.9 in HgA.
2) in 5 minutes.
C.
1) Stabilize reactor power at the current level.
2) immediately.
D.
1) Stabilize reactor power at the current level.
2) in 5 minutes.

A

B.
1) Continue the downpower until backpressure lowers to <5.9 in HgA.
2) in 5 minutes.

83
Q

Unit I is performing a Liquid Release of the 1A Waste Monitor Tank when the following alarm is received:
LIQUID WASTE
RAD
HIGH
N-37
* Liquid release flow control valve, FCV-6627X indicates open and will not close from the RTGB.
* Chemistry has reported that samples taken just offshore of the discharge canal were over 20 times the applicable concentrations specified in 1 OCFR2O part B.
lAW 1-AOP-06.02, “Uncontrolled Release Of Radioactive Liquids” which ONE of the following is a required SUBSEQUENT Operator action AND what are the reportability requirements per 10CFR50.72 and 1OCFR5O.73?
1) Stop the 1A Waste Monitor pump _(1).
2) Initiate an (2).
A.
1) from the Liquid Waste Control panel, AND close FCV-6627X locally
2) LER within 60 days
B.
1) locally AND lock closed V21462, Waste Monitor Pumps Discharge to Discharge Canal Isolation valve
2) LER within 60 days
C.
1) locally AND lock closed V21462, Waste Monitor Pumps Discharge to Discharge Canal Isolation valve
2) Emergency Notification System (ENS) notification within 1 hour.
D.
1) from the Liquid Waste Control panel, AND close FCV-6627X locally
2) Emergency Notification System (ENS) within 1 hour.

A

B.
1) locally AND lock closed V21462, Waste Monitor Pumps Discharge to Discharge Canal Isolation valve
2) LER within 60 days

OR

C.
1) locally AND lock closed V21462, Waste Monitor Pumps Discharge to Discharge Canal Isolation valve
2) Emergency Notification System (ENS) notification within 1 hour.

84
Q

The Waste Gas Surge Tank has been aligned to the Plant Vent for the past 180 days with the Waste Gas System taken out of service lAW 2-0530020, ‘Waste Gas System Operation’.
Unit 2 is at 100% power preparing to perform a VCT purge with Nitrogen in preparation for a refueling outage.
The SRO directed the Gas Surge Tank to be re-aligned to the 2A Gas Decay Tank for the VCT purging operation and the VCT purge to be started.
The VCT purge has been ongoing for 12 hours. The SNPO reports the 2A Gas Decay Tank pressure has not changed. He also reports the 2B and 2C Gas Decay Tank pressures have not changed.
The RAB general area dose rates have not changed. (no Area Radiation Monitors are in alarm or increasing)
Which of the following should be performed?
1) Stop the VCT purge and:
2) the above condition is:
A.
1) Direct the SNPO to realign the Gas Surge Tank to the Plant Vent until a valve alignment check can be performed.
2) considered an UNPLANNED GAS RELEASE lAW C-200 ODCM.
B.
1) Direct the SNPO to realign the Gas Surge Tank to the Plant Vent until a valve alignment check can be performed.
2) NOT considered an UNPLANNED GAS RELEASE lAW C-200 ODCM.
C
1) Direct RP to perform a survey of the Waste Gas Decay Tank rooms and the SNPO to perform a valve alignment check.
2) considered an UNPLANNED GAS RELEASE lAW C-200 ODCM.
D.
1) Direct RP to perform a survey of the Waste Gas Decay Tank rooms and the SNPO to perform a valve alignment check.
2) NOT considered an UNPLANNED GAS RELEASE lAW C-200 ODCM.

A

D.
1) Direct RP to perform a survey of the Waste Gas Decay Tank rooms and the SNPO to perform a valve alignment check.
2) NOT considered an UNPLANNED GAS RELEASE lAW C-200 ODCM.

85
Q

Given the following conditions on Unit 2:
* The unit is shutdown in Mode 3 with Reactor Coolant System (RCS) temperature at 532°F and pressure at 2250 psia.
* A CEDM housing leak has resulted in the following annuciator:
Rx CAVITY LEAKAGE HIGH N-46
In accordance with 2-AOP-01 .08, “RCS Leakage Abnormal Operations” the initial determination of the RCS leak rate should be done by (1 ).
The Tech Spec action that applies for this event is (2).
A.
1) observing FR-07-03, “Reactor Cavity Leakage Flow”
2) reduce the leakage rate to within limits within 4 hours
B.
1) observing FR-07-03, “Reactor Cavity Leakage Flow”
2) be in COLD SHUTDOWN within 30 hours
C.
1) gross Charging and Letdown mismatch
2) reduce the leakage rate to within limits within 4 hours
D.
1) gross Charging and Letdown mismatch
2) be in COLD SHUTDOWN within 30 hours

A

D.
1) gross Charging and Letdown mismatch
2) be in COLD SHUTDOWN within 30 hours

86
Q

Unit 1 has experienced a LOCA with the following conditions:
* At time 0006 the Unit tripped
* At time 0021 RCS pressure indicated 1580 psia and the crew entered 1-EOP-03, LOCA.
The current time is 0053.
Which ONE of the following states the procedural actions that are taken to ensure equipment reliability and maintainability of the RCPs.
A. Verify CCW to the RCP’s and the alternate RCP bleedoff flow has been established.
B. Ensure CCW remains isolated by placing the four CCW Containment isolation valves To/From the RCP’s to close.
C. Ensure the RCP’s are off and remove the RCP breaker trip and close fuses.
D. Verifying RCP NPSH requirements are met in accordance with EOP-99 Figure 1A or 1B, ‘RCS Pressure Temperature’.

A

B. Ensure CCW remains isolated by placing the four CCW Containment isolation valves To/From the RCP’s to close.

87
Q

Given the following conditions on Unit 2:
* The unit is operating at 90% power.
* The “AB” bus is aligned to the “B” train.
* The 2A Charging and 2B Charging pumps are operating. The 2C Charging pump is in Standby.
* The following annunciator has just alarmed due to a relay failure in the “SA” ESFAS Actuation Cabinet:
SIAS CHANNEL NB ACTUATION R-6
* ONLY the Chg and Letdown systems were affected by the SIAS actuation signal. Assume immediate Operator actions have been taken In accordance with 2-AOP-69.01, ‘Inadvertent ESFAS Actuation’.
(1) control switch should be in AUTO.
This event, perAP 00010721, “NRC Required Non-Routine Notifications and Reports”, (2).
A.
1) All three Charging pumps
2) is not reportable
B.
1) All three Charging pumps
2) would require a 60 day LER
C.
1) The 2B and 2C Charging pumps
2) is not reportable
D.
1) The 2B and 2C Charging pumps
2) would require a 60 day LER

A

D.
1) The 2B and 2C Charging pumps
2) would require a 60 day LER

88
Q

Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
* The unit is at 100% power
* The 1 C Auxiliary Feedwater Pump (AFW) is out of service.
Time
10:00:00: a unit trip occurs.
10:03:00: both Steam Generators (SG’s) NR levels were observed to be <15% on all safety channels.
10:07:15: prior to any Operator actions, the RCO reports that ONLY AFAS-2 has actuated.
10:12:00: the crew exited 1-EOP-01 ‘SPTA’s’
Which ONE of the following states why AFAS-1 did not actuate and what procedure would be entered?
1) AFAS-1 did not actuate due to a malfunction of the
2) The crew should enter 1-EOP-02 ‘Post Trip recovery’ AND use the guidance in 1-AOP-09.02 ‘Auxiliary Feedwater’ to ____
A.
1) time delay relay failure
2) manually actuate AFAS-1
B.
1) AFAS-1 lockout relay actuation
2) manually actuate AFAS-1
C.
1) time delay relay failure
2) cross-tie the AFW headers to feed both SG’s with the 1 B AFW pump
D.
1) AFAS-1 lockout relay actuation
2) cross-tie the AFW headers to feed both SC’s with the 1 B AFW pump

A

A.
1) time delay relay failure
2) manually actuate AFAS-1

89
Q

Given the following conditions:
* The ‘A’ 120 Vital AC Instrument Bus has just de-energized due to an internal fault in its inverter.
* The affected instrument bus has been aligned to the Isolimiter.
For the actions that were taken, this event has occurred on (1 ).
For the current conditions, the Tech Spec Action is (2).
(Assume Mode 1)
A.
1) Unit 1
2) with the instrument inverter not connected to its associated DC bus, re-energize the Instrument bus from its associated inverter and DC bus within 24 hours.
B.
1) Unit 1
2) complete; the instrument bus may remain in the current alignment indefinitely.
C.
1) Unit2
2) complete; the instrument bus may remain in the current alignment indefinitely.
D.
1) Unit2
2) with one instrument inverter not connected to its associated DC bus, re-energize the
Instrument bus from its associated inverter and DC bus within 24 hours.

A

D.
1)Unit2
2) with one instrument inverter not connected to its associated DC bus, re-energize the
Instrument bus from its associated inverter and DC bus within 24 hours.

90
Q

The following Unit 1 Control Room Outside Air Intake (CROAI) Radiation Monitor has failed high:
* RIS-26-84, “North CROAI Train SA
Which ONE of the following states the response of the CROAJ Intake ducts?
1)_____ CROAI intake duct(s) isolate(s).
2) The required actions would be to enter ____
A.
1) BOTH the “North and South”
2)1- AOP-26.01, ‘Process Radiation Monitors’ and operate the Control Room Ventilation system in the recirculation mode.
B.
1) ONLY the “North”
2)1- AOP-26.01, ‘Process Radiation Monitors” and operate the Control Room Ventilation system in the recirculation mode.
C.
1) BOTH the “North and South”
2) 1-AOP-25.02 ‘Ventilation Systems’ and operate the Control Room Ventilation system in the recirculation mode.
D
1) ONLY the “North”
2) 1-AOP-25.02 ‘Ventilation Systems’ and operate the Control Room Ventilation system in
the recirculation mode.

A

C.
1) BOTH the “North and South”
2) 1-AOP-25.02 ‘Ventilation Systems’ and operate the Control Room Ventilation system in
the recirculation mode.

91
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power. All CEA’s were at 136” when CEA 56 slipped to the lower electrical
limit (LEL), indicating 1” on the CEAPDS.
Efforts to re-align CEA 56 have been ongoing for 60 minutes, but CEA 56 still indicates “.
Which ONE of the following states:
1) CEA 56 position indication on the DCS.
2) The procedure requirements of 1-AOP-66.01, ‘Dropped or Misaligned CEA Abnormal Operations’
A.
1) DCS would indicate 136”
2) Continue efforts to re-align CEA 56 while concurrently reducing power to 70% lAW 1-AOP-22.01, ‘Rapid Downpower’
B
1) DCS would indicate 136”
2) Suspend efforts to re-align CEA 56 and reduce power to 70% lAW 1-AOP-22.01, ‘Rapid Downpower’
C.
1) DCS would indicate 1”
2) Continue efforts to re-align CEA 56 while concurrently reducing power to 70% lAW 1-AOP-22.01, ‘Rapid Downpower’
D.
1) DCS would indicate 1”
2) Suspend efforts to re-align CEA 56 and reduce power to 70% lAW 1-AOP-22.01, ‘Rapid Downpower’

A

B
1) DCS would indicate 136”
2) Suspend efforts to re-align CEA 56 and reduce power to 70% lAW 1-AOP-22.01, ‘Rapid Downpower’

92
Q

Unit 1 has entered 1-EOP-03, ‘LOCA’ with the following conditions:
* Containment pressure is 12 psig.
* All Containment coolers and Containment Spray pumps are operating.
* Containment Hydrogen concentration is 4.5%
The Technical Support Center (TSC) is fully manned and plant conditions have been
communicated to the TSC. Which ONE of the following states the status of the Containment Temperature & Pressure Safety function AND when should the H2 purge system or Hydrogen Recombiners be placed in
service?
1) Containment Temperature & Pressure Safety function is:
2) The H2 purge system or Hydrogen Recombiners should be placed in service:
A.
1)MET
2) only as directed by the Technical Support Center.
B.
1)MET
2) when the Unit Supervisor deems it necessary based on the Containment Hydrogen concentration.
C.
1)NOTMET
2) only as directed by the Technical Support Center.
D.
1)NOTMET
2) when the Unit Supervisor deems it necessary based on the Containment Hydrogen concentration.

A

C.
1)NOT MET
2) only as directed by the Technical Support Center.

93
Q

Which ONE of the following states:
1) The Tech Spec bases for the quantity of radioactivity for each Waste Gas Decay Tank?
2) The Tech Spec LCO for Oxygen concentration (by volume) in the Waste Gas Decay tank if Hydrogen concentration exceeds 4% (by volume).
A.
1) The number of curies of noble gas is limited for each tank based on limiting the dose rates to acceptable levels within the plant protected area.
2) Maximum of 2% Oxygen.
B.
1) The number of curies of noble gas is limited for each tank based on limiting the dose rates to acceptable levels within the plant protected area.
2) Maximum of 4% Oxygen.
C.
1) The number of curies of noble gas is limited for each tank based on limiting the dose at the exclusion boundary in the event of an uncontrolled release.
2) Maximum of 2% Oxygen.
D.
1) The number of curies of noble gas is limited for each tank based on limiting the dose at the exclusion boundary in the event of an uncontrolled release.
2) Maximum of 4% Oxygen.

A

C.
1) The number of curies of noble gas is limited for each tank based on limiting the dose at the exclusion boundary in the event of an uncontrolled release.
2) Maximum of 2% Oxygen.

94
Q

Unit 2 has tripped due to a LOOP. The 2A Diesel Generator did not start but the 2B Diesel Generator started and loaded on the 2B3 4.16KV bus.
1) Prior to formal implementation of 2-EOP-01, ‘Standard Post Trip Actions’ which of the following would be expected for operation of the Atmospheric Dump valves?
2) Which of the following actions is the Unit Supervisor ALLOWED to take while implementing 2-EOP-01?
A.
1) One ADV on the ‘A’ side operated in AUTO I AUTO from the PACB and one ADV on the ‘B’ side operated in AUTO I AUTO from RTGB 202.
2) Approach the control board to visually determine if the ADV configuration is correct.
B.
1) One ADV on the ‘A’ side operated in AUTO I AUTO from the PACB and one ADV on the ‘B’ side operated in AUTO I AUTO from RTGB 202.
2) Perform a peer check while the RCO is lining up the ADV’s.
C.
1) One ADV on the ‘A’ side operated in MANUAL I MANUAL from RTGB 202 and one ADV on the ‘B’ side operated in AUTO / AUTO from RTGB 202.
2) Approach the control board to visually determine if the ADV configuration is correct.
D.
1) One ADV on the ‘A’ side operated in MANUAL / MANUAL from RTGB 202 and one ADV on the ‘B’ side operated in AUTO / AUTO from RTGB 202.
2) Perform a peer check while the RCO is lining up the ADV’s.

A

A.
1) One ADV on the ‘A’ side operated in AUTO I AUTO from the PACB and one ADV on the ‘B’ side operated in AUTO I AUTO from RTGB 202.
2) Approach the control board to visually determine if the ADV configuration is correct.

95
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 3, Normal operating temperature and pressure.
* The solenoid vent valve for the actuator on HCV-14-1 failed open causing HCV-14-1, CCW to the RCP’s to close.
* 1-NOP-O1.02, ‘Reactor Coolant Pump Operation’ section 5.2, ‘Local Restoration of CCW to RCP’s’ is being performed to re-open HCV-14-1.
Which ONE of the following states ALL the actions necessary to control this process PRIOR TO the solenoid vent valve repair?
A. Perform an operability test of HCV-14-1 per OP-i -0010125A, ‘Surveillance Data Sheets’ once HCV-i4-i is opened.
B. Document temporary hose connection lAW ADM-17.i8, ‘Temporary Modifications’.
C. Document temporary hose connection lAW ADM-1 7.18, ‘Temporary Modifications’ AND follow the Tech. Spec. actions due to HCV-14-i not closing in the event a SIAS were to occur.
D. Document temporary hose connection lAW ADM-1 7.18, ‘Temporary Modifications’ AND once HCV-14-1 is opened perform operability test per OP-i -0010125A, ‘Surveillance Data Sheets’.

A

C. Document temporary hose connection lAW ADM-1 7.18, ‘Temporary Modifications’ AND follow the Tech. Spec. actions due to HCV-14-i not closing in the event a SIAS were to occur.

96
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 6 performing a core re-load.
An underload condition occurred while attempting to lower a spent fuel bundle into the core.
As Refueling Supervisor, which ONE of the following would you direct to troubleshoot this condition?
A. Conduct the troubleshooting process as described in 1-NOP-67.04, ‘Refueling Machine Operation’.
B. Initiate a NPWO lAW ADM-0010432 ‘Control of Plant Work Orders’ for the equipment vendor to conduct an alignment check of the Refueling Machine.
C. Contact Mechanical Maintenance and the equipment vendor and perform O-GMP-21 ‘Troubleshooting Process’
D. Implement NAP-412, ‘Operational Decision Making’ and gather an Operational Decision Making team to determine the course of action.

A

A. Conduct the troubleshooting process as described in 1-NOP-67.04, ‘Refueling Machine Operation’.

97
Q

Unit 1 performed a down power and manually tripped the Unit at 0700 on August 6, 2012 in preparation for a refueling outage.
Which ONE of the following states:
1) The EARLIEST time that Tech. Specs state fuel movement within the reactor pressure vessel can be performed.
2) The Tech. Spec basis for this time
A.
1)0700 August 9, 2012
2) fuel handling accident analysis assumes the radioactive decay of the short lived fission products.
B.
1)0700 August 9,2012
2) fuel handling accident analysis assumes 99% of the assumed gas gap activity released to have decayed.
C.
1)0700 August 13, 2012
2) fuel handling accident analysis assumes the radioactive decay of the short lived fission products
D.
1)0700 August 13, 2012
2) fuel handling accident analysis assumes 99% of the assumed gas gap activity released to have decayed

A

A.
1)0700 August 9, 2012
2) fuel handling accident analysis assumes the radioactive decay of the short lived fission products.

98
Q

Unit 2 is at 100% power. At 0030 on April 3, 2012 the Unit 2, 2B SG, RM-80 for the Main Steam Line radiation monitor was not communicating with the PC-i 1 in the Control Room.
At timel300 on April 3, 2012, the RM-23P was installed locally for the 2B Main Steam Line monitor lAW 2-NOP-26.01, ‘Radiation Monitors’
1) The Tech. Spec. Action Statement for the Main Steam line monitor was:
2) This was due to:
A.
1)NOTmet
2) the RM-23P was not installed within the Tech. Spec. Action statement time requirements.
B.
1)NOTmet
2) the RM-23P is not powered from a Vital bus, thus it would not be available in the event of a LOOP/SGTR.
C.
1)met
2) the RM-23P was installed within the Tech Spec Action statement time requirement AND the RM-23P meets the requirement of a Temporary Modification lAW ADM-1 7.18, ‘Temporary Modifications’.
D.
1)met
2) the RM-23P was installed within the Tech Spec Action statement time requirement AND the RM-23P meets the preplanned alternate method of monitoring.

A

D.
1)met
2) the RM-23P was installed within the Tech Spec Action statement time requirement AND the RM-23P meets the preplanned alternate method of monitoring.

99
Q

At time 0021, Unit 2 evacuated the Control Room due to a fire. 2-ONP-1 00.02, ‘Control Room Inaccessibility’ is in progress.
At time 0034 critical actions from all Appendices are reported complete.
Which ONE of the following states the responsibilities of:
1) Shift Manager (SM)
2)RCOA
A.
1) Classify the event as ‘Alert’
2) Establish communications with the HSP from the AFW area and perform actions as directed by the US.
B.
1) Classify the event as ‘Site Area Emergency’
2) Establish communications with the HSP from the AFW area and perform actions as directed by the US.
C.
1) Classify the event as ‘Alert’
2) Establish communications with the SM and monitor plant parameters on the HSP.
D.
1) Classify the event as ‘Site Area Emergency’
2) Establish communications with the SM and monitor plant parameters on the HSP.

A

C.
1) Classify the event as ‘Alert’
2) Establish communications with the SM and monitor plant parameters on the HSP.

100
Q

Unit 1 has completed 1-EOP-01, ‘Standard Post Trip Actions.’
The Unit supervisor is analyzing Chart 1, Diagnostic Flow Chart, to determine the subsequent EOP to enter.
The following indications and alarms are observed:
* Containment pressure is 0.1 psig.
* RCS pressure is 1580 psia and rising.
* 1 B SC Blowdown monitor and Air Ejector radiation monitor alarms are in.
* Main Steam Line radiation monitors are NOT in alarm.
* A Steam Safety valve was open and has reseated on the 1A SC. 1A SG pressure lowered to 580 psia and is now 700 psia and rising.
* 1 B SG pressure is 800 psia and stable.
* RCS Thot is 513°F and rising.
1) Which of the following states the SG that is the MOST AFFECTED?
2) What EOP will be implemented after 1-EOP-01?
A.
1) 1ASG
2) 1-EOP-04, ‘SGTR’.
B.
1) 1ASG
2) 1 -EOP-1 5, ‘Functional Recovery’.
C.
1) lB SG
2) 1-EOP-04, ‘SGTR’.
D.
1) lB SC
2) 1-EOP-15, ‘Functional Recovery’.

A

B.
1) 1ASG
2) 1 -EOP-1 5, ‘Functional Recovery’.