2020 Makeup

Question 1

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power when the 2B MFW pump trips
* The following annunciators have alarmed:
o L-3, S/G Level Low Channel Trip (Red)
o L-11, S/G Level Low Channel Pre-trip
* Control Room Reactor Trip breaker indications indicate WHITE
Subsequently:
* The BRCO depresses the manual reactor trip pushbuttons
* Control Room Reactor Trip breaker indications indicate WHITE
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
In accordance with 2-EOP-01, SPTAs, Step 1, Verify Reactor Trip, the NEXT required action the crew is required to take is ____(1)____.
In accordance with UFSAR 7.6.3.11, the basis for ATWS worst case result in a / an ____(2)____ event.
A.
(1) INITIATE Emergency Boration
(2) Core Melt
B.
(1) INITIATE Emergency Boration
(2) RCS Over pressurization
C.
(1) open CEDM MG breakers locally at 2A2 and 2B2 Load Centers
(2) Core Melt
D.
(1) open CEDM MG breakers locally at 2A2 and 2B2 Load Centers
(2) RCS Over pressurization

Answer 1

D.
(1) open CEDM MG breakers locally at 2A2 and 2B2 Load Centers
(2) RCS Over pressurization

Question 2

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 has tripped due to a LOCA
* 2-EOP-03, LOCA is in progress
* Pressurizer pressure is 200 psia and LOWERING
* REP CET temperature is 400 °F and LOWERING
* Thot temperature is 390 °F and LOWERING
* Containment pressure is 4.2 psig and LOWERING
* All available Charging pumps are running
* BOTH HPSI Pumps are running
* This Event has been in progress FOR 3 HOURS
Subsequently:
* RAS has actuated
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
Core Heat Removal Safety Function for maximum number of degrees superheat ____(1)____ met.
The NEXT required action is to ____(2)____.
A.
(1) is
(2) verify EACH running HPSI pump flow between 114 and 685 gpm
B.
(1) is
(2) establish simultaneous hot and cold leg injection per 2-EOP-99, Appendix “O”
C.
(1) is NOT
(2) verify EACH running HPSI pump flow between 114 and 685 gpm
D.
(1) is NOT
(2) establish simultaneous hot and cold leg injection per 2-EOP-99, Appendix “O”

Answer 2

A.
(1) is
(2) verify EACH running HPSI pump flow between 114 and 685 gpm

Question 3

Given the following conditions:
12:00:00 Unit 1 is at 100% power
12:07:00 TE-1151, 1A1 RCP Lower Seal temperature is 220 °F and RISING
12:07:11 Annunciator J-19, 1A1 RCP Seal Trouble, Cooling Wtr Flow Low alarms
12:07:15 1-AOP-01.09A1, 1A1 Reactor Coolant Pump was entered
12:07:30 DRCO reports R-26-56/57 CCW Rad Monitor Recorders have stable trends since the beginning of the shift
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
In accordance with 1-AOP-01.09A1 MINIMUM action times, the crew will be required to trip the Reactor ____(1)____ and secure the RCP.
Once the crew completes 1-EOP-01, SPTAs, Diagnostic Flow Chart, the crew will transition to ____(2)____.
A.
(1) immediately
(2) 1-EOP-02, Reactor Trip Recovery
B.
(1) immediately
(2) 1-EOP-09, Loss of off-site power/Loss of Forced Circulation
C.
(1) within 10 minutes
(2) 1-EOP-02, Reactor Trip Recovery
D.
(1) within 10 minutes
(2) 1-EOP-09, Loss of off-site power/Loss of Forced Circulation

Answer 3

C.
(1) within 10 minutes
(2) 1-EOP-02, Reactor Trip Recovery

Question 4

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is in Mode 3 NOP/NOT
* 1A and 1B AFW pumps are supplying BOTH S/Gs
Subsequently:
* LOOP occurs
Which one the following completes the statements below?
The 1A and 1B AFW pumps ____(1)____ AUTOMATICALLY restart following the EDGs restoring the bus.
IAW ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence, IF Steam Generator level is below 31% NR, then initial AFW feedwater flow should be controlled to less than 150 gpm for the first 5 minutes or until an increase in S/G WR level is observed to minimize the potential for water hammer and thermal shock to the ____(2)____.
A.
(1) will
(2) S/G tubes
B.
(1) will
(2) Feedwater Ring
C.
(1) will NOT
(2) S/G tubes
D.
(1) will NOT
(2) Feedwater Ring

Answer 4

B.
(1) will
(2) Feedwater Ring

Question 5

Given the following timeline:
12:00:00 Unit 1 is in Mode 5
RCS level is 33 ft
The 1A train of SDC is in service the 1B train is in Standby
12:03:00 RCS Level is 32 ft and LOWERING
1-AOP-01.08, RCS Leakage is entered
12:05:00 The LPSI Pump Trip Criteria on RCS Level is MET
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
1-AOP-01.08 requires the LPSI Pumps to be secured at a MINIMUM level of ____(1)____.
IF at 12:20:00, the crew has NOT restored RCS Level and SDC flow; the Crew is required to ____(2)____.
Note: 1-ONP-01.04, Plant Condition 4 SDC in Operation with Reduced Inventory
A.
(1) 31 ft 3 inches
(2) GO TO 1-ONP-01.04
B.
(1) 31 ft 3 inches
(2) remain in 1-AOP-01.08 and Initiate Safety Function status checks of 1-ONP-01.04
C.
(1) 29 ft 9.5 inches
(2) GO TO 1-ONP-01.04
D.
(1) 29 ft 9.5 inches
(2) remain in 1-AOP-01.08 and Initiate Safety Function status checks of 1-ONP-01.04

Answer 5

C.
(1) 29 ft 9.5 inches
(2) GO TO 1-ONP-01.04

Question 6

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* 2A and 2B ICW pumps are in service
* The AB Bus Electrics are aligned to “A” train per 2-NOP-52.02, Alignment of 2AB Buses and Components
Subsequently:
* 2B ICW Pump tripped.
* 2-AOP-21.03B, 2B Intake Cooling Water System Header was entered
* The crew performs the following actions per Attachment 1 of 2-AOP-21.03B
o mechanically realigns the 2C ICW pump to the “B” Header
o aligns only the 4.16 Kv AB bus to the 2B3 4.16 Kv Bus
o starts the 2C ICW pump and fully opens its discharge valve
o NO Additional Operator Actions are taken
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
Based on conditions when the 2B ICW pump tripped, ____(1)____ Intake Cooling Water (ICW) header pressure(s) will LOWER.
In accordance with ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence, entry into Tech Spec LCO 3.7.4.1, Intake Cooling Water System, ____(2)____ required.
A.
(1) ONLY the B
(2) is
B.
(1) ONLY the B
(2) is NOT
C.
(1) BOTH the A and the B
(2) is
D.
(1) BOTH the A and the B
(2) is NOT

Answer 6

A.
(1) ONLY the B
(2) is

Question 7

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is performing a Reactor Startup in accordance with 2-GOP-302, Reactor Plant Startup – Mode 3 to Mode 2 at Step 4.5.2, Critical Approach
* Unit 2 reactor was just announced CRITICAL
* Below is the listed initial power levels prior to commencing the approach to criticality and the power when the reactor was announced critical
SU Channel BF3 (CPS)
INITIAL
A 50
B 100
CRITICAL
A 3200
B 800
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
SU Channel ____(1)____ is indicating INCORRECTLY.
Given that 1 Source NI has failed for the CURRENT condition of reactor critical, in accordance with UFSAR, 13.7.2.4, Backup Boron Dilution Detection Sampling, the US ____(2)____ required to direct chemistry to sample the RCS for boron concentration.
A.
(1) A
(2) IS
B.
(1) A
(2) IS NOT
C.
(1) B
(2) IS
D.
(1) B
(2) IS NOT

Answer 7

D.
(1) B
(2) IS NOT

Question 8

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* 2-OSP-02.07, Borated Water Sources, was completed with the following results:
* 2A Boric Acid Makeup Tank SAT
* 2B Boric Acid Makeup Tank SAT
* Refueling Water Tank SAT
Subsequently:
* Annunciator M-42, Emergency Borate V2514 Open/Ovrld/SS Isol Alarms
* SNPO reports V2514, Emergency Borate Valve is tripped
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
In accordance with Unit 2 Technical Specifications, TS 3.5.2, ECCS Subsystems – Operating ____(2)____ met.
If an event occurred requiring Emergency Boration, in accordance with 2-AOP-02.02, Emergency Boration, the next procedurally directed emergency boration flow path would be from the ____(2)____.
REFERENCE PROVIDED
A.
(1) is
(2) BAMT
B.
(1) is
(2) RWT
C.
(1) is NOT
(2) BAMT
D.
(1) is NOT
(2) RWT

Answer 8

C.
(1) is NOT
(2) BAMT

Question 9

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is performing Refueling Operations in accordance with 0-NOP-67.05, Refueling Operation
* An IRRADIATED fuel assembly has been dropped in the Spent Fuel Pool
* 2-AOP-67.01, Accidents Involving New or Spent Fuel has been entered
* ONLY “A” Train of the Fuel Handling Radiation Monitors go into HIGH alarm
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The Spent Fuel Pool exhaust realigns to ____(1)____ train(s) of the Shield Building Ventilation System.
The Technical Specification 3.9.11, Spent Fuel Storage Pool, basis for the MINIMUM Spent Fuel Pool water level is to ensure that sufficient water depth ____(2)____ from the rupture of an IRRADIATED fuel assembly.
A.
(1) BOTH
(2) to maintain the radiation dose levels to less than 2.5 mrem/hour
B.
(1) BOTH
(2) is available to remove 99% of the assumed 10% iodine gap activity released
C.
(1) ONLY ONE
(2) to maintain the radiation dose levels to less than 2.5 mrem/hour
D.
(1) ONLY ONE
(2) is available to remove 99% of the assumed 10% iodine gap activity released

Answer 9

B.
(1) BOTH
(2) is available to remove 99% of the assumed 10% iodine gap activity released

Question 10

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is performing a plant cooldown per 1-GOP-305, Reactor Plant Cooldwn – Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown using S/G ADVs
* RCS Tcold is 480 °F
* Pressurizer Pressure is 1300 psia
* 1A1, 1B1, and 1B2 RCPs are running
* 1A and 1B Charging Pumps are running
Subsequently:
* An RCS leak develops and the crew enters 1-AOP-01.08, RCS Leakage
* Pressurizer level 28% and slowly lowering 1% every 3 minutes
* Letdown is isolated
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The crew will initiate RCS make up per Attachment 7, Adding Emergency Makeup to the RCS with ____(1)____.
If Pressurizer level can NOT be maintained, the crew will transition to ____(2)____.
A.
(1) Charging Pumps ONLY
(2) 1-EOP-03, LOCA
B.
(1) Charging Pumps ONLY
(2) 1-ONP-01.01, Plant Condition 1 S/G Heat Removal-LTOP not in effect
C.
(1) Either HPSI or Charging Pumps
(2) 1-EOP-03, LOCA
D.
(1) Either HPSI or Charging Pumps
(2) 1-ONP-01.01, Plant Condition 1 S/G Heat Removal-LTOP not in effect

Answer 10

B.
(1) Charging Pumps ONLY
(2) 1-ONP-01.01, Plant Condition 1 S/G Heat Removal-LTOP not in effect

Question 11

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* An RCP Control Bleedoff Line leak occurred in the Pipe Penetration Room of the RAB between V2505, RCP Bleedoff Cntmt Isol and V2198, RCP Bleedoff to VCT Throttle
Subsequently:
* V2505 and V2198 were CLOSED and the leak was NOT isolated
* SE-01-1, RCP Bleedoff Containment Isolation was CLOSED and the leak WAS isolated
* 1-AOP-01.09A1, 1A1 Reactor Coolant Pump Abnormal was entered
* V2507, RCP Bleedoff Relief Stop Valve, was opened for a control bleedoff flowpath
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
RCP control bleedoff flow will be specifically directed to the ____(1)____.
In accordance with Tech Spec 3.6.3.1, Containment Isolation Valves, the MINIMUM requirement is to deactivate ____(2)____ within 4 hours.
REFERENCE PROVIDED
A.
(1) Quench Tank
(2) SE-01-1 ONLY
B.
(1) Quench Tank
(2) SE-01-1 and V2505
C.
(1) Reactor Coolant Drain Tank
(2) SE-01-1 ONLY
D.
(1) Reactor Coolant Drain Tank
(2) SE-01-1 and V2505

Answer 11

A.
(1) Quench Tank
(2) SE-01-1 ONLY

Question 12

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is performing 2-EOP-15, Functional Recovery, due to an ESD and TLOF events
* The crew is at the PRESSURE CONTROL safety function performing safety functions not currently met by Success Path 1
* Core Exit Temperature is 380 °F
* RCS Pressure is 1250 psia
* Pressurizer Level is 55%
* 2-EOP-99 Figure 2 Safety Injection vs RCS Pressure is MET
* Containment Pressure is 12 psig and slowly lowering
* Containment Temperature is 195 °F and slowly lowering
* “A” Containment Spray Header Flow is 2900 gpm
* “C” and “D” Containment Fan Coolers are running
* 2A S/G level is 32% NR and slowly rising
* 2B S/G level is 0% WR
Which ONE of the following completes the following?
In accordance with 2-EOP-15, the crew is directed to use ____(1)____ to control pressurizer pressure.
Following completion of PC-1, Subcooled Control, the NEXT safety function success path that is required to be performed is ____(2)____ .
REFERENCE PROVIDED
A.
(1) Pzr PORVs
(2) HR-2 (S/G With SIAS)
B.
(1) Pzr PORVs
(2) CTPC-3 (Containment Spray)
C.
(1) Auxiliary Spray
(2) HR-2 (S/G With SIAS)
D.
(1) Auxiliary Spray
(2) CTPC-3 (Containment Spray)

Answer 12

C.
(1) Auxiliary Spray
(2) HR-2 (S/G With SIAS)

Question 13

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* JI-006A, Axial Power Shape (ASI) indicates FULL Scale MAXIMUM Negative
* Beacon is in service with ALL In-Core detectors OPERABLE
The following Annunciators are LIT:
* L-9, Reactor Power High Channel Trip
* L-22, Local Power Density Channel Trip
* L-34, Nuclear/ΔT Power Channel Deviation
* L-36, TM/LP Channel Trip
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The ____(1)____ detector has failed HIGH.
Azimuthal Power Tilt per TS 3.2.4, Azimuthal Power Tilt - Tq ____(2)____ required to be determined at least once per 12 hours.
A.
(1) UPPER
(2) is
B.
(1) UPPER
(2) is NOT
C.
(1) LOWER
(2) is
D.
(1) LOWER
(2) is NOT

Answer 13

A.
(1) UPPER
(2) is

Question 14

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is in Mode 3 performing an RCS cooldown per 2-GOP-305, Reactor Plant Cooldown – Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown
* 2A and 2B AFW pumps are running feeding the 2A and 2B Steam Generators Subsequently:
* A loss of precise AFW control occurred
* The crew entered 2-AOP-09.02, Auxiliary Feedwater
* LOWEST S/G NR levels were reported as follows
TIME:
0100
S/G A: 18%
S/G B: 21%
0105
S/G A: 18%
S/G B: 21%
0110
S/G A: 30%
S/G B: 30%
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
At time 0110, AFAS-1 ____(1)___ have actuated.
In accordance with LI-AA-102-1001, Regulatory Reporting, the MOST LIMITING NRC reporting time is ____(2)____ hour(s).
REFERENCE PROVIDED
A.
(1) ONLY
(2) 4
B.
(1) ONLY
(2) 8
C.
(1) and AFAS-2
(2) 4
D.
(1) and AFAS-2
(2) 8

Answer 14

B.
(1) ONLY
(2) 8

Question 15

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 100% power
* 2B instrument Bus has been placed on the Isolimiter per 2-NOP-49.05B, 120 VAC Instrument Bus 2MB Normal Operation
Subsequently:
* The following annunciators are LIT
o A-14, 4.16KV SWGR 2B3 Δ CURRENT TRIP – RED Annunciator
o A-28, 480V LC 2B2 UV/UV TEST/GROUND
o A-35, 480V LC 2B5 UV/UV TEST/GROUND
o A-46, 4.16KV EMERG SWGR 2B3 UV/UV TEST
* 2B Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) automatically started with its output breaker currently OPEN
Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?
The 2B EDG output breaker ____(1)____ have AUTOMATICALLY closed.
In accordance with Tech Spec 3.8.3.1, Onsite Power Distribution Operating, the most limiting Tech Spec time limit is ____(2)____ hours.
REFERENCE PROVIDED
A.
(1) should
(2) 2
B.
(1) should
(2) 8
C.
(1) should NOT
(2) 2
D.
(1) should NOT
(2) 8

Answer 15

C.
(1) should NOT
(2) 2

Question 16

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* PORV Block Valve V1405, PORV Block Valve for PORV V1404, is out of service on an Equipment Clearance Order
* PORV Block Valve V1403, PORV Block Valve for PORV V1402, is closed due to excessive leakage by PORV 1402
Subsequently:
* Unit 1 has experienced a Total Loss of Feedwater (TLOF)
* 1-EOP-06, TLOF is in progress at Step 12, Verify RCS Heat Removal
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
1-EOP-06, requires the operators to establish OTC based on Plant Parameters for S/G Wide Range Levels OR uncontrolled rise in RCS ____(1)____.
Based upon PORV status, the Unit Supervisor is required to ____(2)____.
A.
(1) Tcold
(2) Establish OTC per 1-EOP-06, Step 12 Contingency Steps
B.
(1) Tcold
(2) transition to 1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery, Step 1
C.
(1) Pressure
(2) Establish OTC per 1-EOP-06, Step 12 Contingency Steps
D.
(1) Pressure
(2) transition to 1-EOP-15, Functional Recovery, Step 1

Answer 16

A.
(1) Tcold
(2) Establish OTC per 1-EOP-06, Step 12 Contingency Steps

Question 17

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 is at 45% power due to repair of 2B MFW pump
* 2B AFW Pump is out of service
Subsequently:
* The reactor was manually tripped due to a loss of the 2A MFW pump
* A SGTR event occurs on the 2A S/G
* AFAS-2 has actuated
* AFW was throttled per 2-NOP-99.07, Hard Cards
* The crew is at Step 10, Initiate Lowering RCS Thot of 2-EOP-04, SGTR
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
To ensure the SBCS valves remain open during the entire cooldown, the SBCS Permissive Switch must be in the ____(1)____ position.
After the RCS cooldown to <510 °F, was completed an EPLAN classification was declared. As the EC, per Step 10 of the Florida State Notification form (below) the ____(2)____ block is required to be checked.
A.
(1) Auto
(2) A. None
B.
(1) Auto
(2) C. Has occurred, but stopped
C.
(1) Manual
(2) A. Auto
D.
(1) Manual
(2) C. Has occurred, but stopped

Answer 17

D.
(1) Manual
(2) C. Has occurred, but stopped

Question 18

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* 1B Gas Decay Tank (GDT) is in service at 160 psig per 1-NOP-06.19, Waste Gas System Operation
* The crew is venting the Volume Control Tank per 1-NOP-02.24, Boron Concentration Control
Subsequently:
* The SNPO reports the 1B GDT pressure is 150 psig and that the relief valve is lifting
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
The 1B GDT relief valve discharges to the ____(1)____.
In accordance with C-200, Offsite Dose Calculation Manual, this ____(2)____ considered an UNPLANNED release.
A.
(1) Hold Up Tank
(2) is
B.
(1) Hold Up Tank
(2) is NOT
C.
(1) Gas Surge Tank
(2) is
D.
(1) Gas Surge Tank
(2) is NOT

Answer 18

D.
(1) Gas Surge Tank
(2) is NOT

Question 19

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below in accordance with OP-AA-100-1000, Conduct of Operations, Attachment 6, Equipment Manipulation and Status Control.
Peer Checking ____(1)____ be waived during implementation of Abnormal Operating Procedures by the Unit Supervisor.
Peer Checks for critical steps of high risk tasks ____(2)___ be waived by the Unit Supervisor.
A.
(1) can
(2) can
B.
(1) can
(2) can NOT
C.
(1) can NOT
(2) can
D.
(1) can NOT
(2) can NOT

Answer 19

B.
(1) can
(2) can NOT

Question 20

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 1 is at 100% power
* At 0800, I&C is to perform a calibration on RSC-26-2, “A” ECCS Rad Monitor
* The calibration is scheduled to be completed by 1530 today
Which ONE of the following describes the requirement to place RSC-26-2 into the Equipment Out of Service (EOOS) Log, in accordance with ADM-09.22, Equipment Out of Service?
In accordance with ADM-09.22, RSC-26-2, “A” ECCS Rad Monitor, is ________.
A. NOT a Tech Spec Rad Monitor, therefore NO EOOS Log entry is required
B. always required to be entered into the EOOS Log if removed from service
C. required to be entered into the EOOS Log if it is NOT back in service within 6 hours of being out of service
D. expected to be back in service before the end of the current shift, entry into the EOOS Log is at the discretion of the SM/US/WCCS

Answer 20

D. expected to be back in service before the end of the current shift, entry into the EOOS Log is at the discretion of the SM/US/WCCS

Question 21

Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
In accordance with Tech Spec 3.0.4, when an LCO is NOT met, entry into a HIGHER
MODE or other specified condition in the Applicability SHALL ONLY be made when the
associated ACTIONS to be entered permit continued operation for ________ .
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours
C. until the end of current shift
D. an unlimited amount of time

Answer 21

D. an unlimited amount of time

Question 22

Given the following:
* Unit 2 has declared a GENERAL EMERGENCY due to a LOCA
* The Shift Manager has turned over the EC duties and the EC is in the TSC
* The TSC and OSC ARE operational and in operation
* The SNPO needs to enter an RAB room during EOP implementation
* The survey map shows the following on radiation readings:
o Point 1 is 100 mr/hr at 30 cm
o Point 2 is 5000 mr/hr at 30 cm
o Point 3 is 10200 mr/hr at 30 cm
Which ONE of the following correctly completes the statements below?
Based on the plant indications, the radiological posting required is ____ (1) ____.
In accordance with RP-SL-101-2001, Personnel Access Control during Emergencies, the Shift Manager ____(2)____ authorize access to this area.
A.
(1) Very High Radiation Area
(2) can
B.
(1) Very High Radiation Area
(2) can NOT
C.
(1) Locked High Radiation Area
(2) can
D.
(1) Locked High Radiation Area
(2) can NOT

Answer 22

D.
(1) Locked High Radiation Area
(2) can NOT

Question 23

In accordance with EPIP-02, Duties and Responsibilities of the Emergency Coordinator, Attachment 5, Exposure Limits for Emergency Response Personnel.
Which ONE of the following completes the statement below?
The MAXIMUM Total Dose (TEDE) that CAN be approved for performance of actions that mitigate the escalation to the event and to rescue a person from a non-life threatening situation is ____(1)____.
A. 5 REM
B. 10 REM
C. 25 REM
D. 50 REM

Answer 23

B. 10 REM

Question 24

In accordance with ADM-11.16, Transient Procedure Use and Adherence, and OP-AA-100-1000, Conduct of Operations.
Which ONE of the following completes the statements below?
When multiple alarms occur upon entry into an abnormal operating condition, the operators ____(1)____ expected to announce each alarm.
If during performance of EOPs, it is determined that guidance from an AOP would help recover a Safety Functions or achieve cold shutdown, THEN the AOP may be implemented ____(2)____ the EOPs.
A.
(1) are
(2) with priority over
B.
(1) are
(2) In parallel with
C.
(1) are NOT
(2) with priority over
D.
(1) are NOT
(2) In parallel with

Answer 24

D.
(1) are NOT
(2) In parallel with

Question 25

Given the following conditions:
* Unit 2 has declared a General Emergency due to multiple NON-SECURITY related events
* The Tech Support Center (TSC), Operational Support Center (OSC) and Emergency Operations Facility (EOF) are FULLY OPERATIONAL
Subsequently:
* A condition has occurred in the plant that requires the implementation of 10CFR-50-54(x) to protect the health and safety of the public.
* Adequate time for approval exists before the action is required to be taken
In accordance ADM-17.09, INVOKING 10CFR 50.54(x), whose approval is required to implement the deviation?
A. Shift Manager
B. Emergency Coordinator
C. Recovery Manager
D. Site Director

Answer 25

A. Shift Manager