HIV and AIDS Flashcards

1
Q

What area does HIV-2 hit the hardest?

A

Sub-Saharan Africa

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2
Q

HIV is a member of what group of viruses?

A

Retroviridae

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3
Q

HIV binds to what?

A

Specific cell surface receptor molecules (CD4) = degree of individual susceptibility

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4
Q

What is the MC mode of HIV infection?

A

Sexual transmission across an exposed mucosal epithelium

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5
Q

Who should be tested for HIV?

A
  • Age 15-65 at least once regardless of risk
  • All pregnant women prior to childbirth
  • Younger or older individuals w/increased risk factors
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6
Q

What should you do if you test a pt for HIV and it comes back non-reactive or reactive?

A

Repeat testing!!

  • if reactive: repeat to differentiate which form
  • if non-reactive: test with HIV nucleic acid test
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7
Q

What is the MC way HIV is transmitted to healthcare workers?

A

Needlestick

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8
Q

What does HIV serology CD4 cell count measure?

A

The status of the immune system and disease progression
Demonstrates the risk of opportunistic infections
(how are out defenses holding up?)

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9
Q

What does HIV serology Viral load (HIV-1 RNA levels measure?

A

The response to and efficacy of HAART
- gives corresponding predictive information to the CD4 count
(how many enemies do we have?)

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10
Q

What should you do if the viral load is still >50 after 4 months?

A

Therapy regimen modification may be needed

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11
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of acute HIV infection?

A

Initially appears w/ a syndrome similar to mono

fever, malaise, lethargy, LAD, truncal maculopapular rash

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12
Q

When do we start seeing clinical manifestations of acute HIV infection?

A

Occurs 2-4 wks after exposure to HIV

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13
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of asymptomatic/latent HIV infection?

A

Seropositive

No S/Sxs of HIV infection

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14
Q

How long is the asymptomatic/latent phase?

A

The longest phase - typically lasts 4 to 7 yrs.

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15
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of symptomatic HIV infection?

A

Localized fungal infxn
Molluscum contagiosum
Hairy leukoplakia
Mucocutaneous ulceration

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16
Q

What are clinical manifestations of AIDS?

A
  • Marked immune suppression
  • Onset of disseminated opportunistic and malignancies
  • CD4 count < 200/mm3
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17
Q

What is the highest risk of sexual transmission of HIV?

A

Unprotected anal receptive intercourse

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18
Q

What may decrease the risk of sexual transmission of HIV?

A

Latex condoms (70-80%)

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19
Q

Can HIV be transmitted from saliva or tears?

A

No cases have been documented

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20
Q

What is the MC mode of transmission of HIV?

A

Sexual transmission

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21
Q

Why does crack cocaine use increase your risk for transmission of HIV?

A

Needle sharing with infected individuals

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22
Q

How is HIV perinatally transmitted?

A

Vertical transmission - in utero, during childbirth, breast-feeding.
- 50% risk with prolonged breast-feeding

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23
Q

What is the MC method of transmission of HIV to children?

A

Perinatal transmission- transplacental

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24
Q

What is the recommended therapy regimen of postexposure prophylaxis?

A
Emtricitabine 
\+
Tenofovir 
\+
Raltegravir
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25
Q

What do you do for nonoccupational postexposure prophylaxis?

A

CBC

Start ART asap (48-72 hr of exposure) and cont. for 28 days

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26
Q

What is a toxicity associated with Efavirenz (NNRTI)?

A

CNS sxs - psychosis and depression

-contraindicated in pregnancy

27
Q

What is a toxicity associated with Indinavir (protease inhibitor)?

A

Crystal-induced nephropathy (nephrolithiasis)

28
Q

What is the goal of antiviral therapy?

A

Improve efficacy of other antiretroviral agents in a cART regimen; can do so by adding a PK enhancer

29
Q

Truvada for AIDS pre-exposure prophylaxis is made up of which two medications?

A

Emtricitabine and Tenofovir DF

30
Q

The discussion involved in the initiation of therapy should include what three things?

A
  • Advantages of cART
  • Potential toxicities
  • The complexity of monitoring treatment
31
Q

Deferral of therapy may be considered if…?

A
  • High CD4 count >500 cells/mcL
  • Diff or inability to adhere to therapy (ie homeless)
  • Presence of comorbidities that would complicate or contradict antiviral therapy (ie pregnancy)
  • Pt considered a long-term non-progressor
32
Q

HIV positive pt who is co-infected with tuberculosis have a greater risk for developing what?

A

Active tuberculosis and subsequent infectious state compared with HIV negative pts

33
Q

What medication should be given to pt with TB and advanced HIV disease?

A

Rifabutin at least TID per week

34
Q

What are some treatment options for oral candidiasis?

A

Nystatin swish and swallow 4-5 x a day x 1-2 wks

35
Q

Kaposi sarcoma is caused by what?

A

It is a cancer caused by human herpes virus (HHV-8)

- presents as red, purple, brown or black papular lesions on skin or mucous membrane

36
Q

What the cause of pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

AIDS-defining illness
Caused by yeast-like fungus - pneumocystis jiroveci
<200 CD4 count

37
Q

S/Sx of pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

fever, chills, non-productive cough, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea

38
Q

What is seen on an CXR in a pt with pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

bilateral ground-glass interstitial infiltrates

- pattern of butterfly or batwing

39
Q

What is the prophylaxis treatment of pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

TMP/SMX (initiated when CD4 count < 200)

40
Q

Esophageal candidiasis commonly occurs concurrently with what?

A

Oropharyngeal candidiasis

41
Q

S/Sxs of Esophageal candidiasis?

A

Retroseternal chest pain and odynophagia

42
Q

Tx for Esophageal candidiasis?

A

Fluconazole (PO or IV) or itraconazole (PO) x 2-3 wks

- improvement within days of initiation of tx

43
Q

Preferred tx for a pt with Toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine

44
Q

S/Sx of Toxoplasmosis?

A

Neurological deficit - hemiparesis, speech defect, altered mental status, seizure, coma

45
Q

Cryptococcosis often presents as what?

A

Meningoencephalitis or meningitis

46
Q

Cryptosporidiosis is associated with?

A

Profuse watery, non-bloody diarrhea w/ fever and abdominal pain

47
Q

What is the MC presentation of cytomegalovirus infection?

A

Retinitis

  • usually unilateral
  • vision changes, peripheral vision loss, scotoma and/or floaters
48
Q

Cytomegalovirus infection esophagitis presents with what sxs?

A

Chest pain, Odynophagia, nausea

49
Q

What do you see on the EGD in a pt with cytomegalovirus infection

A

Ulceration in distal esophagus

- bx to confirm dx

50
Q

What is age group of women who die from AIDS?

A

35-44 yrs old

  • 9th leading cause in US
  • 4th leading cause in African American
51
Q

What appears to be more effective in preventing opportunistic infections and HIV disease progression in women and pregnancy women?

A

cART

52
Q

What is an increased likelihood in women vs men in regards to HIV infection?

A

Toxicities

53
Q

What are some specific findings in women with HIV infection?

A
  • Irregular mensuration
  • recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis
  • HPV related cervical dysplasia
  • Invasive cervical cancer
54
Q

What age group is seen in elderly people with HIV?

A

> 50 yrs old

55
Q

Why/how are elderly people infected with HIV?

A
  • Divorces and death of a spouse
  • Erectile dysfunction meds
  • Contraception no longer a concern - postmenopausal
  • Vaginal atrophy = small cuts/tears = increased blood exposure
  • Less discussion during encounters with PCP
56
Q

What is the medication for HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis?

A

Truvada —> intially for 90 days

- Emtricitabine/Tenofovir DF

57
Q

What pts should be considered for PrEP for HIV prevention?

A
  • Sexually active homosexual/bisexual men
  • Male-to-female transgender persons
  • Heterosexual and bisexual women who are likely to have partners with HIV risks
  • IV drug users
58
Q

What are some factors that increase the likelihood that PrEP is a good option?

A
  • Pt has receptive anal intercourse
  • Pt w/ known HIV infected partner
  • Pt w/ hx of STIs
  • Pt w/ high # sex partners
  • Prostitutes
  • No condom use
  • Sharing needles
59
Q

What test is used to confirm HIV status?

A

HIV antibody test

- symptom review to exclude HIV infection

60
Q

How often is HIV antibody testing done?

A

Every 3 mos

61
Q

What is the ultimate goal of AIDS vaccine?

A

Prevent infection

62
Q

What is the goal of therapeutic HIV/AIDS vaccines

A

Boost the immune response to and better control existing HIV infection

63
Q

What is the “idea” behind Topical Microbicides used for AIDS prevention?

A

a chemical barrier to impede viral transmission or inactive the virus before it crossed vaginal or rectal membranes

64
Q

What is the “current topical contender” for AIDs prevention?

A

1% vaginal gel containing Tenofovir