HIV/AIDS II Flashcards

1
Q

a CD4 count below ____ is when opportunistic infections start appearing in HIV patients

A

a CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is when opportunistic infections start appearing in HIV patients

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2
Q

list the AIDS-defining illnesses

A
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3
Q

describe the illnesses associated with specific CD4 cell counts

A
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4
Q

____ is the leading cause of death among AIDS patients, mainly because many of the strains are ____

A

TB is the leading cause of death among AIDS patients, mainly because many of the strains are multidrug resistant

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5
Q

a CD4 T cell count <50 cells/mm3 puts AIDS patients at an increased risk for infection with ____

A

a CD4 T cell count <50 cells/mm3 puts AIDS patients at an increased risk for infection with MAC and MAI

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6
Q

transmission of MAC is via ___ or ____

A

transmission of MAC is via inhalation or ingestion

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7
Q

describe the clinical presentation of MAC

A
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8
Q

MAC infection mimics pulm. TB in patients with _____

A

MAC infection mimics pulm . TB in patients with underlying lung disease (e.g. COPD)

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9
Q

MAC ____ is common with IRIS in HIV patients

A

MAC lymphadenitis is common with IRIS in HIV patients

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10
Q

Bartonella spp. can cause ___ in advanced HIV patients

A

Bartonella spp. can cause bacilliary angiomatosis in advanced HIV patients

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11
Q

Bacilliary angiomatosis affecting the liver is called ____

A

Bacilliary angiomatosis affecting the liver is called Bacilliary peliosis

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12
Q

what is seen in the image?

A
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13
Q

Bacilliary angiomatosis start as ___ to ___ patches/papules and then gradually expand into large ___ lesions or ___ that have which 3 characterstics?

A

Bacilliary angiomatosis start as purple to red patches/papules and then gradually expand into large pedunculated lesions or nodules that are friable, erode and bleed

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14
Q

CMV establishes latent infection in ___, ___ cells, ___ and ____ cells in the bone marrow

A

CMV establishes latent infection in monocytes, dendritic cells, megakaryocytes and myeloid progenitor cells in the bone marrow

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15
Q

in CMV retinitis, there is full-thickness retinal ___ and ___ that is subsequently replaced by thin, _____ and leads to ____

A

in CMV retinitis, there is full-thickness retinal necrosis and edema that is subsequently replaced by thin, atrophic scar tissue and leads to detachment

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16
Q

“AIDS patients complains of blurry vision and blind spots with increased floaters and flashing lights”

diagnosis?

A

CMV - retinitis

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17
Q

progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is a severe ___ disease of the CNS caused by reactivation of the ____ virus

A

progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is a severe demyelinating disease of the CNS caused by reactivation of the polyomavirus - JC virus

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18
Q

JC virus remains latent in ___ and ___

A

JC virus remains latent in kidneys and lymphoid organs

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19
Q

PML becomes reactivated in immunocompromised patients, spreads to ___ and induces a lytic infection of ____

A

PML becomes reactivated in immunocompromised patients, spreads to the brain and induces a lytic infection of oligodendrocytes

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20
Q

“AIDS patient presents with altered mental status, motor deficits and hemianopia and diplopia”

family of the virus causing this?

A

polyomavirus - JC virus

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21
Q

the gold standard for diagnosing PML is ____

A

the gold standard for diagnosing PML is brain biopsy

22
Q

in a brain biopsy of PML, there are irregular areas of ____ in ____ which bear some resemblance to ____

A

in a brain biopsy of PML, there are irregular areas of granularity in white matter which bear some resemblance to the plaques of demyelination with MS

23
Q

describe other viral infections in HIV patients

A
24
Q

HIV infection + hepatitis = more likely to develop _____

A

HIV infection + hepatitis = more likely to develop liver toxicity from medications

25
Q

in HIV patients infected with HPV, there is a higher risk of ____

A

in HIV patients infected with HPV, there is a higher risk of cervical cancer even with low-risk types

26
Q

it is recommended to screen HIV infected patients for ___ and ___

A

it is recommended to screen HIV infected patients for HBV and HCV

27
Q

____ is a characteristic symptom of esophagitis caused by Candida

A

odynophagia is a characteristic symptom of esophagitis caused by Candida

28
Q

diagnosis of Candida infection can be confirmed by _____ test being positive

A

diagnosis of Candida infection can be confirmed by germ tube test being positive

29
Q

risk of Cryptococcal infection is highest when CD4 cell counts are below ____

A

risk of Cryptococcal infection is highest when CD4 cell counts are below 100 cells/mm3

30
Q

describe 2 features of Cryptococcus on culture

A

encapsulated yeast

narrow base budding yeast

31
Q

describe CSF levels in the condition seen in the image

A

increased protein

decreased glucose

WBCs <50 (mononuclear cell predominance)

32
Q

list 3 major virulence factors of Cryptococcus neoformans

A
  • polysaccharide capsule
  • phenol oxidase enzyme
  • ability to grow at 37 C
33
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii is an unusual fungus because it lacks ____

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii is an unusual fungus because it lacks ergosterol in cell walls

34
Q

what is the hallmark of PJ infection?

A

interstitial pneumonitis w/ mononuclear infiltrate (predominantly plasma cells)

35
Q

describe Toxoplasmosis in HIV

A
36
Q

Toxoplasmosis in HIV patients occurs almost exclusively due to ____

A

Toxoplasmosis in HIV patients occurs almost exclusively due to reactivation of latent tissue cysts

37
Q

“AIDS patients presents with headache, confusion, fever, focal neurological deficits, seizures”

dx?

A
38
Q

____ is seen on imaging in HIV patients infected with Toxoplasmosis

A

multiple ring-enhancing lesions is seen on imaging in HIV patients infected with Toxoplasmosis

39
Q

“AIDS patient with severe, chronic diarrhea”

how did the patient acquire the causal agent?

A

ingestion of contaminated food, water

40
Q

___ are the diagnostic stage of Cryptosporidiosis and can be seen with ____ stain

A

oocysts are the diagnostic stage of Cryptosporidiosis and can be seen with modified acid fast stain

41
Q

____, ____ and ____ are frequent complications of small-bowel cryptosporidial infections

A

dehydration, malnutrition and acalculous cholecystitis are frequent complications of small-bowel cryptosporidial infections

42
Q

list the 6 countries associated with Leishmaniais

A

Bangladesh

Brazil

Ethiopia

India

South Sudan

Sudan

43
Q

describe the clinical presentation of visceral Leishmaniasis

A
44
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumor of ____

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumor of the blood vessel walls

45
Q

the shape of the macular/papular lesions in Kaposi’s sarcoma are ____ (shape) and arranged in a ___ fashion

A

the shape of the macular/papular lesions in Kaposi’s sarcoma are elliptical and arranged in a linear fashion

46
Q

describe Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma in HIV patients

A
47
Q

Immune Reconstruction Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS) is a paradoxical worsening of preexisting infectious processes following ____

A

Immune Reconstruction Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS) is a paradoxical worsening of preexisting infectious processes following the initiation of HAART in HIV-infected individuals

48
Q

paradoxical IRIS is ____

while

unmasking IRIS is ____

A

paradoxical IRIS is worsening of a recognized infection

while

unmasking IRIS is worsening of an unrecognized pre-existing infxn

49
Q

describe the recovery of CD4 T cell count following HAART

A

biphasic:

  • rapid increase during first 3-6 months of HAART mainly due to increase in the number of memory T cells
  • slower increase of predominantly naive CD4 T cells due to expansion of T cell clones produced by the thymus
50
Q

“HIV patient has CT scan which shows a tumor growing”

dx?

A

B-cell lymphoma in the brain