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REPRODUCTION & GYNAECOLOGY > HIV > Flashcards

HIV Flashcards

1
Q

What diseases can the HIV virus cause?

A
  • Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
  • Opportunistic Infections
  • AIDS-related cancers
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2
Q

People with treated HIV have a “near normal” life expectancy. TRUE/FALSE?

A

TRUE

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3
Q

HIV infection is preventable. TRUE/FALSE?

A

TRUE

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4
Q

What are the two main types of HIV virus?

A
  • HIV-2 originated in West Africa
  • Less virulent
  • HIV-1 originated in Central/West African chimpanzees
  • HIV-1 group M responsible for global pandemic starting in 1981
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5
Q

What is CD4 in relation to HIV?

A

CD4 (Cluster of Differentiation)

  • glycoprotein receptor found on the surface of cells
  • target site for HIV
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6
Q

What types of cells have CD4 receptors on their surface and therefore are susceptible to HIV infection?

A
  • T helper lymphocytes (“CD4+ cells”)
  • Dentritic cells
  • Macrophages
  • Microglial cells
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7
Q

What do CD4+ T lymphocytes do?

A 
Induce adaptive immune response:
=> Recognition of MHC Class II antigen-presenting cell
=> Activation of B-cells
=> Activation of cytotoxic T-cells (CD8)
=> Cytokine release
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8
Q

How does HIV change the immune response?

A
  • Reduced circulating CD4 cells
  • Reduced proliferation of CD4 cells
  • Reduced CD8 T cell activation
  • Dysregulated cytokines
  • Reduced affinity of Ab produced
  • Chronic Immune Activation
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9
Q

HIV effect on the immune response makes people more susceptible to what types of infection?

A
  • Viral infections
  • Fungal infections
  • Mycobacterial infections
  • Infection-induced cancers
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10
Q

What are the normal parameters for CD4 T cells?

A

500-1600 cells/mm3

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11
Q

What CD4 levels would indicate the potential for opportunistic infection?

A

<200

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12
Q

What is meant by opportunistic infection?

A

Infection caused by a pathogen that could collonise and not cause disease in a healthy individual

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13
Q

When does replication occur during HIV infection?

A
  • Rapid replication in very early and very late infection

- New generation every 6-12 hours

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14
Q

What is the average time to death if no treatment is given in HIV infection?

A

9-11 years

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15
Q

What happens to the CD4 count during and after acute HIV infection?

A

CD4 count goes down in initial acute infection then comes back up before steady decline

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16
Q

Explain how the virus gets from initial infection to dissemination

A

Infection of mucosal CD4 cell
Transport to regional lymph nodes
Infection established within 3 days of entry
Dissemination of virus

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17
Q

What percentage of Primary HIV infections present symptomatically and within how long?

A

80%

onset usually within 2-4 weeks

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18
Q

What symptoms may appear with disseminated HIV?

A
  • Fever
  • Rash
  • Myalgia
  • Pharyngitis
  • Headache/aseptic meningitis
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19
Q

What pneumonia do HIV patients often get and what CD4 count usually causes this?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

CD4 threshold: <200

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20
Q

WHat are the symptoms and signs of pneumocystis pneumonia in patients with HIV?

A

insidious onset
SOB
Dry cough
Signs: exercise desaturation - get tachy and sats decrease rapidly after 5 mins of exercise

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21
Q

A CXR for pneumocystis pneumonia in HIV may be normal. Why is this?

A

Diffuse infiltrates => no clear sign of lobar consolidation

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22
Q

What tests are used to diagnose pnuemocystis pneumonia?

A

Bronchoalveolar Lavage and immunofluorescence +/- PCR

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23
Q

What treatment is used for pneumocystis jirovecii?

A
  • Treatment: high dose co-trimoxazole (+/- steroid)

- Prophylaxis: low dose co-trimoxazole

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24
Q

What features of TB are more common in patients with positive HIV infection?

A
  • Symptomatic primary infection
  • Reactivation of latent TB
  • Lymphadenopathies
  • Extrapulmonary TB
  • drug resistant TB
  • Immune reconstitution syndrome
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25
Q

Cerebral toxoplasmosis is caused by what microorganism and at what CD4 count?

A

Cerebral toxoplasmosis
Toxoplasma gondii
CD4 threshold: <150

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26
Q

How does cerebral toxoplasmosis appear on neuro-imaging?

A

Multiple cerebral abscess

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27
Q

What symptoms and signs may indicate a toxoplasmosis infection

A 
Headache
Fever
Focal neurology
Seizures
Reduced consciousness
Raised intracranial pressure
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28
Q

What CD4 count causes HIV patients to be susceptible to CMV?

A

CD4 threshold: <50

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29
Q

What does CMV infection cause and how do patients present?

A

Causes: retinitis, colitis, oesophagitis

Presentation:

  • Reduced visual acuity
  • Floaters
  • Abdo pain, diarrhoea, PR bleeding
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30
Q

What skin infections may indicate that a patient may have HIV?

A

Herpes Zoster

  • If rash appears in Multiple dermatomes
  • If frequently recurrent

Herpes Simplex

  • If extensive
  • If Aciclovir resistant

Human Papilloma Virus

  • Extensive
  • Dysplastic
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31
Q

HIV can cause neurocognitive impairment. At what CD4 count does this present and what symptoms can occur?

A

No CD4 threshold - can happen at any level of immunosuppression

Causes

  • Reduced short term memory
  • potentially motor dysfunction also
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32
Q

What is Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, and what virus causes this?

A

Caused by: JC virus

Affects frontal lobe of brain =>

  • Rapidly progressing
  • Focal neurology
  • Confusion
  • Personality change
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33
Q

What CD4 threshold is required for JC virus infection?

A

CD4 threshold: <100

34
Q

What other neurological presentations can be due to HIV?

A
  • polyneuropathy
  • Mononeuritis multiplex
  • Aseptic meningitis
  • Guillan-Barre syndrome
  • Viral meningitis (CMV, HSV)
  • Neurosyphilis
35
Q

Why do patients with HIV sometimes present with muscle wasting or “slims disease”?

A

Virus is using up energy that patient would usually use to put on weight

36
Q

Human herpes virus 8 (HHV8) causes what AIDS related cancer?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma (vascular tumour)

Causes lesions that are:

  • Cutaneous
  • Mucosal
  • Visceral – pulmonary, GI
37
Q

How is Kaposi’s Sarcoma treated?

A

if just cutaneous lesions => normal HIV anti-retrovirals

If visceral lesions then may need systemic chemo

38
Q

What organism can cause Non-hodgkins lymphoma in HIV patients?

A

EBV

39
Q

How do HIV patients with non-hodgkins lymphoma usually present?

A
  • Present more advanced
  • Bone marrow involvement
  • Extranodal disease
  • ↑ CNS involvement
40
Q

HOw is Non-Hodgkins lymphoma in HIV treated?

A

Treat cancer as if patient was HIV negative BUT add anti-retrovirals

41
Q

What conditions may patients with HIV develop that they still deem as “asymptomatic” HIV?

A

Minor conditions where they may have needed to seek medical advice E.g.

  • Thrush
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Diarrhoea
  • Fatigue
  • Worsening psoriasis (due to CD8)
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • STIs/ BBV
42
Q

How can HIV manifest haematologically?

A

Anaemia

Thrombocytopenia

43
Q

What factors increase the risk of HIV transmission during sex?

A

Anoreceptive sex
Trauma
Genital ulceration
Concurrent STI

44
Q

HOw can HIV be transmitted “parenterally”?

A
  • Injection drug use (sharing needles)
  • Infected blood products
  • Iatrogenic
45
Q

HOw can mother to child transmission of HIV take place?

A
  • In utero/trans-placental
  • Delivery
  • Breast-feeding
46
Q

Where are the current pandemics of HIV taking place, and in what parts of the world are epidemics rising?

A

PANDEMICS
Sub Saharan Africa
Caribbean
South East Asia

Rising EPIDEMICS
Russia, Eastern Europe

47
Q

What is the prevalence of HIV in the UK?

A

1.6/1000

48
Q

What groups are at higher risk of HIV?

A
  • Men who have sex with men (MSM)
  • certain areas (e.g. London)
  • Ethnicity => Black men and women
  • PWIDs
49
Q

What groups are usually diagnosed with HIV late?

A

Women
Older patients
Heterosexual patients (especially men, as women are often picked up on antenatal screening)

50
Q

Who should be tested for HIV?

A
  • Universal testing in high prevalence areas
  • Opt-out testing (patient can decline)
  • Screening of high risk groups
  • Testing in the presence of “clinical indicators”
51
Q

What high risk groups should be screened routinely for HIV?

A
  • Men who have sex with men
  • Female partners of bisexual men
  • People who inject drugs
  • Partners of people living with HIV
52
Q

In what high risk areas should patients routinely be screened for HIV?

A
  • Adults OR children from endemic areas (e.g. Africa)
  • Sexual partners from endemic areas
  • History of iatrogenic exposure in an endemic area
53
Q

How can you normalise the explanation of an HIV test to a patient?

A
  • To check your immune system is working okay
  • Benefits of testing are:
    • Improve long term health
    • Protect partner(s)
54
Q

If a patient is deemed to NOT have capacity, do you perform an HIV test?

A
  • Only test if in patient’s best interest
  • Consent from relative not required
  • If safe, wait until patient regains capacity
  • Obtain support from HIV team if required
55
Q

What markers are used by labs to detect HIV infection?

A
  • p24 protein

- Viral load and antibodies can also be used but longer window period (3 months)

56
Q

What is the window period for 4th generation HIV testing?

A

14-28 days

57
Q

Rapid HIV tests done at a patients bedside consist of what?

A

Fingerprick blood specimen or saliva

Results within 20-30 minutes

3rd generation (Ab only) or 4th generation (Ab/Ag)

58
Q

What are the advantages/ disadvantages of rapid HIV testing?

A 
ADV:
Simple 
No lab required
No venepuncture required
Good sensitivity

DISADV:
Expensive ~£10
If in low prevalence area - positive prediction not high
Can’t be relied on in early infection

59
Q

What should be looked out for on physical examination of a patient who has tested HIV positive?

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma (cutaneous lesions)
Thrush
Symptoms of pneumonia
STIs

60
Q

Some HIV viruses can be resistant. TRUE/FALSE?

A

TRUE

61
Q

What proteins are involved in HIV replication in CD4 cells and are therefore targets for treatment?

A

Reverse transcriptase (replicates virus)
Integrase (integrates HIV into genome)
Protease (cleaving)
CCR5 (co-receptor when HIV binds to CD4)

62
Q

What is HAART?

A

Highly active anti-retroviral therapy

63
Q

What is involved in modern HAART?

A

combination of 3 drugs

from at least 2 drug classes (to which the virus is susceptible)

64
Q

What are the 3 main aims of HAART?

A
  • Reduce viral load to undetectable
  • Keep viral load down
  • Let immune system recover
  • Reduce morbidity and mortality
65
Q

HAART is often available in a single tablet coformulation. What does this mean?

A

3 drugs in one tablet (spanning at least 2 drug classes)

=> patient only needs to take ONE tablet once a day

66
Q

How is drug resistance prevented?

A

Adherence/ compliance to medication

  • if patient stops drugs, then the half life means at least one drug will still be in the patients system when the virus begins to replicate again
  • virus will then become resistant to that drug
67
Q

What symptoms/conditions would indicate HAART toxicity?

A
  • GI side-effects (caused by protease inhibitors)
  • Skin: rash, hypersensitivity, Stevens-Johnsons
  • Psych: mood, psychosis
  • Renal toxicity: proximal renal tubulopathies
  • Bone: osteomalacia
  • CVS: increased MI risk
  • Haematology: anaemia
68
Q

Why may some HAART require pharmacological boosting?

A

require pharmacological boosting with potent liver enzyme inhibitors
=> prevent breakdown of the drug

69
Q

What co-infections are difficult to treat with HIV?

A

Hepatitis C and TB = drug interactions with HIV

Hepatitis B = same treatment as HIV!

70
Q

What other comorbidities often need managed in older HIV patients?

A 
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Cognitive decline
Renal Impairment
Bone Health
Cancers
Cholesterol (as some HIV drugs increase this)
71
Q

How are the complications of HIV being prevented?

A
  • Educating patients on CVS risk (exercise etc)
  • Smoking cessation
  • STI screening
  • Vaccines (Hep A/B, Flu, HPV)
  • Harm reduction (using condoms, needle exchange etc)
72
Q

What are the different strategies of Partner Notification?

A

Partner referral (patient tells partner themself)

Provider referral (Sexual health clinic informs partner whilst other person remains ananoymous)

Conditional referral (patient attempts to tell partner, but clinic will tell them if longer than an agreed period of time)

73
Q

Why do patients struggle with partner notification?

A

Fear of:

  • Rejection
  • Isolation
  • Violence
  • Stigma
74
Q

How do we prevent sexual transmission of HIV?

A
  • Condom use
  • compliance with HIV treatment
  • STI screening and treatment
  • Sero-adaptive sexual behaviours
  • e.g. more likely to transmit HIV if positive person is the insertive partner in MSM
  • Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
  • Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)
75
Q

Couples where one member is HIV positive must conceive via intra-uterine insemination or ICSI. TRUE/FALSE?

A

FALSE - this was old method of conceiving in couples where one member was HIV positive

NOW these couples can conceive naturally

76
Q

How is mother to child transmission of HIV prevented?

A
  • HAART during pregnancy
  • Vaginal delivery if undetected viral load
  • Caesarean section if detected viral load
  • 4 weeks of PEP for neonate
  • Exclusive formula feeding (this may change in future)
77
Q

What methods of preventing HIV transmission have had an impact?

A
  • Needle exchange
  • Testing and treatment for STIs
  • Condom programmes
  • Behaviour change interventions
  • Circumcision
  • PrEP (high risk individuals)/PEP
  • Treatment as prevention
78
Q

Why is circumcision considered an HIV prevention method?

A

Many CD4 cells sit in foreskin => by removing this it decreases the number of cells for HIV to infect

ALSO - when circumcised, the glans penis becomes keratinised to deal with trauma => decreased trauma = decreased number of HIV transmissions

79
Q

What was the UN HIV/AIDS target for 2020?

A

90-90-90
=> 90% of people with HIV are aware of their status
=> 90% of those who know they are HIV positive are on treatment
=> 90% of those on treatment for HIV have an undetectable viral load

80
Q

What would indicate that a patient is at high risk of HIV and therefore should be given PrEP?

A
  • HIV+ partner with detectable viral load
  • MSM or transwoman
  • OR other high risk reason
81
Q

What criteria must patients meet to be eligible for PrEP?

A 
Aged ≥ 16
HIV negative
Can commit to 3 monthly follow-up 
Willing to stop if eligibility criteria no longer apply
Resident in Scotland

REPRODUCTION & GYNAECOLOGY (58 decks)

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