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Reproductive Medicine > HIV > Flashcards

HIV Flashcards

1
Q

How many distinct HIV viruses are there?

A

Two:

  • HIV-1
  • HIV-2
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2
Q

What is the most predominant type of HIV virus?

A

HIV-1

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3
Q

What type of virus is the HIV virus?

A

Retrovirus

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4
Q

How many RNA chains does the HIV virus have?

A

Two single chains of RNA

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5
Q

Describe the life-cycle of the HIV virus

A
  1. Binding: virus binds to host CD4 receptor molecules via the envelope glycoprotein gp 120 and co-receptors CCR5 and CXCR4.
  2. Fusion: subsequent conformational change results in the fusion between gp41 and the cell membrane.
  3. Reverse transcription: entry of the viral capsid followed by uncoating of RNA. DNA copies are made from both RNA templates. DNA polymerase from the host cell leads to formation of dsDNA.
  4. Integration: virally encoded DNA is inserted into the host genome - Integrase
  5. Transcription: regulatory proteins control transcription (an RNA molecule is now synthesized from the DNA template).
  6. Budding: the virus is reassembled (protease - needed for mature virus progeny) in the cytoplasm and budded out from the host cell
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6
Q

What are the 4 distinct strains of HIV?

A
  • Group M - 98% of infections worldwide
  • Group N
  • Group O
  • Group P
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7
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of HIV

A
  1. Virus transported by dendritic cells from mucosal surfaces
  2. GP120 reacts with CD4 and CCR5/CXCR4 -> entry into CD4 T cells, monocytes, macrophages and neural cells
  3. CD4 +ve cells migrate to lymphoid tissue
  4. Viral contents becomes integrated into nucleus of cell -> reverse transcription can take place
  5. As infection progresses - CD4 depletion/impaired function
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8
Q

What is the general progression of infection in HIV?

A
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9
Q

How can HIV be transmitted?

A

All fluids

  • Sexual intercourse - Semen, cervical secretions
  • Mother-to-child
  • Contaminated blood, blood products, organ donation
  • Contaminated needles (IVDU, Injections, Needle-stick injuries)
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10
Q

Where is HIV-2 most commonly found?

A

Most parts of WEst Africa

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11
Q

What enzyme integrates viral RNA into host DNA?

A

Viral integrase

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12
Q

What viral enzymes cleave initial viral proteins into enzymes and building blocks of the virus?

A

Viral proteases

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13
Q

What is seroconversion?

A

The time period during which a specific antibody develops and becomes detectable in the blood. After seroconversion has occurred, the disease can be detected in blood tests for the antibody

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14
Q

How soon after initial exposure does seroconversion occur?

A

2-6 weeks

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15
Q

What are features of HIV seroconversion?

A

Presents with flu-like syndrome:

  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Myalgia
  • Pharyngitis
  • Maculopapular rash
  • Lymphdenopathy
  • Mucosal ulceration
  • Headache/asceptic meningitis - rare
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16
Q

What cells are susceptible to HIV infection?

A
  • CD4+ T cells
  • Macrophages
  • Monocytes
  • Neurons
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17
Q

What follows seroconversion?

A

Asymptomatic infection, or persistent generalised lymphadenopathy

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18
Q

How long can asymptomatic infection last for following seroconversion?

A

Can last for years

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19
Q

What proportion of individuals develop persistent generalised lymphadenopathy?

A

30%

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20
Q

What is persistent generalised lymphadenopathy?

A

Lymph nodes >1cm in diameter at >/= 2 extra-inguinal sites, persisting for > 3 months

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21
Q

What defines the first clinical stage of HIV infection?

A

Asymptomatic infection or PGL

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22
Q

What features define clinical stage II of HIV infection?

A
  • Weight loss < 10%
  • Minor cutaneous manifestations
  • Herpes zoster in last 5 years
  • Recurrent URTI
  • Performance scale 1 - normal activity
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23
Q

What features define clinical stage III HIV infection?

A
  • Weight loss > 10%
  • Unexplained chronic diarrhoea > 1 month
  • Unexplained prolonged fever > 1 month
  • Oral candidiasis
  • Oral hairy leukoplakia
  • Pulmonary TB within past year
  • Several bacterial infections
  • Performace scale 3 - bedridden <50% of day
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24
Q

What features suggest clinical stage IV HIV infection (AIDS defining illnesses)?

A
  • HIV wasting synrome
  • PCP
  • Toxoplasmosis of the brain
  • Cryptosporidiosis with diarrhoea > 1 month
  • CMV of organ other than liver, spleen or lymph nodes
  • HSV > 1 month
  • Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
  • Any disseminated endemic mycosis
  • Candidiasis of oesophagus/trachea/bronchi/lung
  • Atypical disseminated TB
  • Extrapulmonary TB
  • Kapose’s sarcoma
  • HIV encephalopathy
  • Performace scale 4 - bedridden > 50% day in last month
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25
Q

What respiratory conditions are regarded as AIDS defining illnesses?

A
  • TB
  • Pneumocystis
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26
Q

What neurological conditions are regareded as AIDS defining illnesses?

A
  • Cerebral toxoplasmosis
  • Primary cerebral lymphoma
  • Cryptococcal meningitis
  • Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
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27
Q

What neurological conditions would you consider doing HIV testing in?

A

AIDS defining illnesses, plus:

  • Aseptic meningitis/encephalitis
  • Cerebral abscess
  • SOL of unknown cause
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • Transverse myelitis
  • Unexplained Peripheral neuropathy
  • Lecuoencephalopathy
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28
Q

What dermatological conditions are regarded as AIDS defining illnesses?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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29
Q

What dermatological conditions would you consider doing HIV testing in?

A
  • Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  • Severe/intractable seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Severe/reclacitrant psoriasis
  • Recurrent/multidermatomal HSV
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30
Q

What GI disorders are regarded as AIDs defining illnesses?

A

Persistent cryptosporidiosis

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31
Q

What GI conditions would you consider offering an HIV test in?

A
  • Persistent cryptosporidiosis
  • Oral candidiasis
  • Oral hairy leukoplacia
  • Chronic diarrhoea of unknown cause
  • Weight loss of unknown cause
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32
Q

What oncological problems are regarded as AIDs defining illnesses?

A

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

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33
Q

What is Kaposi’s Sarcoma?

A

A cancer that causes patches of abnormal tissue to grow under the skin, in the lining of the mouth, nose, and throat, in lymph nodes, or in other organs

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34
Q

How does cerebral toxoplasmosis present?

A
  • Confusion
  • Seizures
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Drowsiness/Coma
  • Signs of braainstem/spinal cord problems
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35
Q

What is the following?

A

Oral hairy leucoplakia - a white patch on the side of the tongue with a corrugated or hairy appearance.

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36
Q

What is progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

A

A rare and usually fatal viral disease characterized by progressive damage (-pathy) or inflammation of the white matter (leuko-) of the brain (-encephalo-) at multiple locations (multifocal).

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37
Q

What virus is responsible for progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

A

JC virus

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38
Q

What is the following?

A

Oral candidiasis

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39
Q

What eye disease is regarded as an AIDs defining illness?

A

CMV retinitis

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40
Q

What is the definition of AIDS?

A

HIV + AIDs defining illness

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41
Q

What CD4 count will someone with AIDs usually have?

A

<200x106/L

42
Q

What are the main signs which suggest that HIV is progressing?

A
  • Chronic fever
  • PGL
  • Cough > 1 month
  • Chronic diarrhoea
  • Oral thrush
  • 10% weight loss in last month
  • TB/HZ
43
Q

If you suspected HIV, what investigations would you consider doing?

A
  • Bedside - Rapid HIV serum test (finger prick), Mantoux test
  • Bloods - FBC, U+E’s, LFTs, Hep B/C, Toxoplasma serology, Pregnancy test
  • HIV specific - 4th Gen. ELISA for HIV Ab + Ag (p24 antigen)
  • Imaging - CXR
44
Q

What is important to remember when trying to determine if someone has HIV with regards to test results?

A

Remember the diagnostic window - time during which diagnostic markers are not detectable

45
Q

When are serum IgG and IgM levels detectable for HIV?

A

After 3 months, then fall after AIDs develops

46
Q

What is P24 antigen?

A

p24 protein is present during high viral replication and so is detectable in the blood during acute infection (first 3 months) and again during late stages of infection (AIDS). Its use, therefore, is as a supplementary test during the window period

47
Q

What might you find on CXR in someone with HIV?

A
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
  • TB
48
Q

If someone was tested for HIV and came back as being antigen/antibody negative, would this confirm that they were not infected with HIV?

A

No - have to retest tro make sure diagnosis has not been missed

49
Q

What should HIV patients be monitored for regularly?

A

TB infection

50
Q

What investigations would you do to monitor HIV?

A
  • Clinical assessment
  • Viral RNA load
  • CD4 count
  • HIV resistance testing
  • Other bloods - FBC, U+Es, LFT, lipid profile, glucose
51
Q

How often would you monitor CD4 levels?

A

3-6 months

52
Q

What is viral load used for?

A

Determine effectiveness of antiviral therapy

53
Q

What infections should all newly diagnosed HIV patients be screened for?

A
  • TB
  • Toxoplasma
  • CMV
  • Hepatitis B + C
  • Syphilis
54
Q

When is viral load highest?

A

Initially high during acute infection, then falls to low levels, then rises again in later stages of the disease (6-8 years after infection)

55
Q

How is viral load measured?

A

Viral PCR quantitation

56
Q

What is the normal CD4 level?

A

500-1500

57
Q

At what CD4 level would you consider starting someone on antiretrovirals?

A

<350

58
Q

What are indications for starting antiviral therapy in HIV?

A
  • CD4 < 350
  • AIDS defining illness
  • Pregnant women
  • HIV-associated nephropathy
  • Co-infection with HBV
59
Q

What are the main types of anti-retroviral drugs used in HIV?

A
  • Nucleoside recerse transcriptase inhibitors
  • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • Protease inhibitors
  • CCR5 antagonists
  • Integrase strand transfer inhibitors
  • Pharmakokinetic enhancers/boosters
60
Q

What is the reason for someone to have persistent generalised lymphadenopathy?

A

Due to follicular hyperplasia caused by HIV infection

61
Q

How much does 4th generation HIV testing reduce the window period to (in terms of number of days that a false negative can occur in)?

A

Approximately 10 days

62
Q

What are examples of Rapid point-of-care testing for HIV?

A
  • Finger-prick
  • Mouth swab
63
Q

What is viral load used for?

A
  • Quantification of HIV RNA
  • Monitoring of ART efficacy
64
Q

Is rapid testing confirmatory of HIV?

A

No - needs serological confirmation with 4th Gen ELISA

65
Q

What is viral/nucleic acid PCR used for?

A

Used to test for presence of virus

66
Q

What are features of PCP infection in HIV?

A
  • Progressive SOB on exertion
  • Malaise
  • Dry cough
  • Tachypnoea
67
Q

What might the following be in someone with SOB and dry cough with HIV?

A

PCP - perihilar infiltrates is classic sign

68
Q

What are features of cryptococcal meningitis in someone with HIV?

A
  • Meningism - headache, fever, neck stiffness
  • Molloscum-like skin lesions
  • Lung disease
69
Q

How can CMV infection present in HIV?

A
  • Retinitis
  • Encephalitis
  • GI disease
  • Hepatitis
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Pneumonia
70
Q

What would be your differential diagnosis for a fever in an HIV patient?

A
  • Intraoral abscess
  • Sinusitis
  • Pneumonia
  • TB
  • Endocarditis
  • Meningitis
  • Encphalitis
  • Pyomyositits
  • Lymphoma
  • Any non-HIV cause
71
Q

What would be your differential for lyphadenopathy in HIV patients?

A
  • PGL
  • TB
  • Syphillis
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Cryptococcus
  • Lymphoma
  • Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  • Local infection
72
Q

What would be your differential diagnosis for a rash in someone with HIV?

A
  • Drug reaction
  • Herpes zoster
  • Scabies
  • Cutaneous cryptococcus
  • Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
73
Q

What would be your differential diagnosis for someone presenting with a cough/SOB in someone with HIV?

A
  • CAP
  • PCP
  • TB
  • Bronchial compression - lymphoma, TB, kaposi’s
  • Pulmonary Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • Cardiac failure - HIV cardiomyopathy, pericardial effusion, HIV vasculopathy
74
Q

What would be your differential diagnosis for someone with diarrhoea who had HIV?

A
  • Slamonella
  • Shigella
  • C. diff
  • Amoebiasis
  • Giardia
  • Cryptosporidia
  • CMV
  • HIV enteropathy - diagnosis of exclusion
75
Q

What might cause abdominal pain in those with HIB?

A
  • TB
  • CMV colitis
  • Pancreatitis
  • Pregnancy
76
Q

What could cause headaches/seizures/focal neurology in HIV patients?

A
  • Meningitis - bacterial, TC, syphillis
  • Empyema
  • SOL - toxo, lymphoma, TBoma
  • Adverse drug reaction
  • HIV encephalopathy
  • Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
  • Stroke
77
Q

What could cause dysphagia in someone with HIV?

A
  • Candidiasis
  • HSV
78
Q

What might cause eye disease in HIV?

A
  • CMV
  • Herpes zoster
79
Q

What might cause deranged LFTs in HIV?

A
  • Viral hepatitis
  • Drug-induced liver injury
  • HIV cholangiopathy
  • Lymphoma
  • CCF
80
Q

How do nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors work?

A

Inhibit reverse transcriptase and the conversion of viral RNA into DNA

81
Q

How do CCR5 antagonists work?

A

Inhibit entry of the virus into the cell by blocking the CCR5 receptor

82
Q

How do integrase strand transfer inhibitors work?

A

Inhibit integrase and prevent HIV DNA integrating into the nucleus

83
Q

How do protease inhibitors work?

A

Inhibit protease, an enzyme ivolved in the maturation of virus particles

84
Q

What is the main purpose of pharmacokinetic enhancers/boosters?

A

Increase the effectiveness of antiretroviral drugs allowing lower doses

85
Q

What would you consider for treatment-naive individuals in HIV?

A

2 NRTIs, plus one of:

  • Boosted protease inhibitor
  • NNRTI
  • Integrase inhibitor
86
Q

What are examples of NRTIs?

A
  • Zidovudine (AZT)
  • Didanosine (ddI)
  • Zalcitabine (ddC)
  • Lamivudine (3TC)
  • Stavudine (d4T)
  • Abacavir
87
Q

What are side effects of NRTI’s?

A
  • Marrow toxicity
  • Neuropathy
  • Lipodystrophy
  • GI disturbance
  • Anorexia
  • Pancreatitis
  • Hepatic dysfunction
  • Lactic acidosis
88
Q

What are the adverse reactions associated with protease inhibitors?

A
  • Hyperglycaemia
  • Lipodystrophy
  • Diarrhoea
  • Insulin resistance
  • Dyslipidaemia
  • Jaundice
  • Hepatitis
89
Q

What are adverse reactions of NNRTIs?

A
  • Nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain and diarrhoea common
  • Hypersenstivity reaction
  • Rash (can be severe)
  • CNS / psychiatric disturbance
  • Hepatotoxicity
90
Q

What are side effects of integrase inhibitors?

A
  • Rash
  • GI disturbance
  • Insomnia
91
Q

Why is adherence incredibly important in HIV treatment?

A

Deccreased adherence causes increased resistance due to error prone replication process of virus

92
Q

What baseline tests should you consider doing in somone you are about to start on ART treatment for HIV?

A
  • CD4
  • Viral load
  • FBC
  • LFT
  • U+E’s
  • Pregnancy Test
  • Viral genotyping for resistance
93
Q

What measures would you take for managing a pregnant woman with HIV who are having a vaginal delivery?

A
  • Continue HAART through labour
  • Avoid foetal blood sampling
  • Avoid amniotomy
  • Use oxytocin for augmentation
  • Avoid rotational/mid-cavity forceps
94
Q

When should C-section be offered to women with HIV?

A

38 weeks gestation if:

  • AZT monotherapy
  • Viral load > 50 copies/mL
  • Co-infected with hepatitis C
95
Q

What post-partum measures should be taken in a mother with HIV?

A
  • Avoid breastfeeding - cabergoline to suppress lactation
  • ART for newborn within 4hrs birth
  • Test at 1wk, 6 wks, 12 wks and 18 months for HIV
  • Dicuss contraception, annual smears with mother
96
Q

What Post-exposure prophylaxis is used for HIV?

A

3 drugs, for 28 days, within 72hrs of high-risk event. The drugs given are anti-retrovirals, anti-diarrhoeals and anti-nausea medications.

97
Q

How long does it take for HIV infection to become established?

A

48-72 hours

98
Q

What medications would you give someone with a CD4 count >500?

A

None - Monitored but not given HAART

99
Q

What is HAART?

A

Highly active Anti-retroviral therapy

The use of multiple drugs that act on different viral targets. Usually consists of 2 NRTIs and a protease inhibitor, NNRT or integrase inhibitor

100
Q

What investigations would you consider doing to diagnose HIV?

A
  • 4th Gen. Elisa - Combined HIV antibody and p24 antigen tests
  • Point-of-care tests - finger-prick or mouth swabs are used in some genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinics, and results can be available within 1 hour. If the result is positive, a laboratory test should be done, as point-of-care tests are more likely to have false-positive results.

Reproductive Medicine (43 decks)

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