HIV Flashcards

1
Q

Where was HIV thought to orginate?

A

chimps

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2
Q

Can HIV be passed through breastfeeding?

A

yes

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3
Q

What was the first HIV drug?

A

AZT

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4
Q

What event caused a drastic decline in AIDs deaths?

A

HAART

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5
Q

What is the most common risk factor for HIV?

A

PWID

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6
Q

What risk factor for HIV is starting to rise quickly?

A

heterosexual sex

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7
Q

Who should get tested for HIV?

A
  • do not know
  • sexually active
  • all pregnant
  • illicit drug use
  • endemic countries
  • signs of HIV
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8
Q

What is the standard test for HIV? Why is it used?

A

4th gen Ab+Ag
100% sensitive and takes 3 days to know results

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9
Q

If 4th gen test comes back positive what happens next?

A

confirm with geenius 1/2

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10
Q

What do HIV screens test for?

A

P24 antigen which is an HIV protein used in a capsid

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11
Q

If needing a quick result of a test what should we use?

A

POC rapid test= results in minutes still must confirm if positive

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12
Q

When would a dried blood spot HIV test be used?

A

better confidentiality
no immediate results which may be beneficial

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13
Q

Where can you go to get tested?

A

any community lab or street team

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14
Q

What does HIV do?

A

targets CD4 T lymphocytes and these are used to coordinate immune response by stimulating other cells

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15
Q

What is AIDs?

A

end stage HIV where the CD4 count is less than 200 or an AIDS defining illness

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16
Q

What is an aids defining illness?

A

pneumocystis pneumonia, mycobacterium avian complex, cytomegalovirus

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17
Q

Which type of HIV is more common?

A

Type 1

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18
Q

Where are mucous membranes?

A

rectum, vagina, penis and mouth

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19
Q

Under what viral load is no risk of transmission?

A

<200

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20
Q

True or false: HIV will vertically transmit always?

A

NO

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21
Q

What is a normal CD4 count?

A

800-1200

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22
Q

At any CD4 count what is common?

A

TB

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23
Q

At <250 CD4 count what is common?

A

coccidiomycosis

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24
Q

At <200 CD4 count what is common?

A

Pneumocystis

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25
Q

At <150 CD4 count what is common?

A

Histoplasmosis and crytpococcus

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26
Q

At <50 CD4 count what is common?

A

MAC,CMV,PAL

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27
Q

Under how many copies is suppressed viral load?

A

<50

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28
Q

If a viral load test comes back as undetected what does this mean?

A

no viral copies found

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29
Q

Typically how long until patients with HIV get suppressed status?

A

1-2 months

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30
Q

What is the basic MOA of antiretrovirals?

A

block viral replication= stop destruction of CD4

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31
Q

How many active antiretrovirals do we need?

A

> 1

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32
Q

How do NRTIs work?

A

acts as host nucleotide decoy= stops elongation of HIV DNA chain

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33
Q

How do NNRTIs work?

A

Bind to enzyme of HIV reverse transcriptase and stops it

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34
Q

How do INSTIs work?

A

block integrate strand transfer step

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35
Q

How do PIs work?

A

inhibit protease activity= can’t infect new cells

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36
Q

How many active agents do you need and from how many classes?

A

3 active and from 2 different classes

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37
Q

Which agents do NOT count as active?

A

ritonavir and cobicistat

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38
Q

What are the NRTI drugs?

A

Lamivudine
emtricitabine
abacavir
TAF
TDF

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39
Q

What is TDF often paired with?

A

emtricitabine or lamivudine

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40
Q

S/e of TDF?

A

BMD, renal toxicity, DNV

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41
Q

WHat happens with most HIV medications if d/c

A

may exacerbate hepatitis if connected with HBV

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42
Q

What must you be careful taking with TDF?

A

PPI and calcium

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43
Q

What is TAF combined with?

A

Emtricitabine

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44
Q

What booster worsens TDF renal tox?

A

ritonavir or cobicistat

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45
Q

Stand out s/e of TAF?

A

less BMD effect, weight gain

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46
Q

What brand name of TAF has a food interaction?

A

Odefsey

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47
Q

What is abacavir paired with?

A

lamivudine

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48
Q

Stand out S/e of abacavir?

A

hypersensitivity, HEART ATTACK

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49
Q

What must you check before giving abacavir?

A

GENE HLA-B5701

50
Q

What is stand out se of lamivudine?

A

MINIMAL toxcicity

51
Q

What are the NNRTI drugs?

A

doravirine, efavirenz, rilpivirine, nevirapine,

52
Q

Stand out s/e of doravirine?

A

abnormal dreams, VERY tolerated

53
Q

Dosing instructions for efavirenz?

A

bedtime with NO food

54
Q

Stand out s/e of efavirenz?

A

neuropsychiatric, high lipids and QT prolonging

55
Q

Stand out s/e with rilpavine?

A

depression, insomnia, QT prolonging

56
Q

Stand out s/e of nevirapine?

A

SJS, hepatitis (CD4 based)

57
Q

What are the INSTI drugs?

A

‘gravir’

58
Q

Stand out s/e with bictegravir?

A

WEIGHT GAIN

59
Q

Stand out s/e with dolutegravir?

A

WEIGHT GAIN THE WORST, insomnia, hypersensitivity

60
Q

Which INSTI is the most potent?

A

Bictegravir, dolutegravir

61
Q

What INSTI can be used in pregnancy?

A

dolutegravir- some neural tube issues but still used

62
Q

Special administration of Cabotegravir?

63
Q

Stand out s/e of cabotegravir?

A

weird dreams, TOLERATED, insomnia

64
Q

Stand out s/e of elvitegravir?

A

right, sleep issues

65
Q

Stand out s/e of raltegravir?

A

weight, CK diarrhea

66
Q

When do we use darunavir?

A

if resistance

67
Q

MOA of darunavir?

68
Q

What must ALWAYS be used when on darunavir?

A

PK booster of ritonavir, cobicistat

69
Q

S/e of darunavir?

A

BAD Gi, CVD, rash, hepatotoxicity

70
Q

How often is cabotegravir ?

A

monthly or q2 months

71
Q

Before you give cabotegravir, a checklist must be ensured, what is on it?

A

good renal, liver, not pregnant, virally suppressed

72
Q

What does a patient get before cabotegravir?

A

oral cabotegravir to ensure tolerance

73
Q

A patient has HIV from another country, what is the first step?

A

get genotype of HIV

74
Q

What is rapid start for HIV?

A

start within 2 weeks before genotype results if at high risk

75
Q

When is biktarvy used more?

A

if renal issues

76
Q

What are the two new options in HIV?

A

lenacapavir and bNABS (TAB, ZAB)

77
Q

WHats good about lenacapvir?

A

long acting= q6 months

78
Q

How often should labs be for HIV?

A

4-6 weeks after starting, then q3-6 months

79
Q

What HIV medications have issues with the heart?

A

Abacavir and darunavir

80
Q

What medications have issues with OP?

A

TDF has most

81
Q

What medications cause dyslipidemia?

A

TAF, abacvir, boosted PI, elvitegravir, efavirenz

82
Q

Worst med for GI?

A

zidovudine

83
Q

What ones may be an issue in renal?

A

TDF, atazanavir, lopinavir

84
Q

What medications cause the most weight gain?

85
Q

What medications cause psychiatric effects?

A

efavirenz, dolutegravir, doravirine

86
Q

When is NSAIDs maybe an issue in HIV patients?

A

if TDF because increase in Scr

87
Q

Difference between trasnmitted and acquired resistance?

A

transmitted= acuires a resistant strain from someone
Acquired= while on drugs

88
Q

How many copies of virsu needed to identify resistance?

89
Q

What happens in a M184V mutation?

A

methionine to a valine on 184 codon

90
Q

What database is used to identify resistance?

91
Q

What drugs have high barriers to resistance?

A

Dolutegravir, bictegravir, darunavir

92
Q

What is viralogicall failure?

A

cant get under 200 copies after 24 weeks of consecutive tests

93
Q

How much is a realistic drop in viral load each month?

A

by 1-2 logs

94
Q

If using an INSTI how long to become suppressed?

95
Q

What is the most common OI of HIV? at what CD?

A

oral yeast infection
<200

96
Q

What drug for oral yeast infection?

A

oral fluconazole 100mg /day

97
Q

When is PJP a risk?

A

<200 CD4 or <14%

98
Q

WHat do we use for PJP prophylaxis?

A

Septra DS until CD4>200
Alt= Dapsone, pentamidine or atovaquone

99
Q

WHat is PJP treatment?

A

Septra DS 2 tabs TID then need secondary prophylaxis after 21 days of primary

100
Q

WHen is MAC a risk?

101
Q

WHat is MAC prophylaxis?

A

NOT recommended but Azithro 1250mg weekly

102
Q

What is MAC treatment? for how long?

A

> 2 drugs MINIMUM
Clarithro 500mg BID
Ethambutol 15mg/kg/day
rifabutin 300mg q24hrs

12 months and CD4>100

103
Q

How to treat IRIS?

A

NSAIDs= mild
Steroids= severe

104
Q

What is IRIS?

A

exaggerated immune response after infection

105
Q

Common interactions with ARV?

A

Steroids (ALL)
rifampin
statins
antidepressants,etc
alpha adrenergic

106
Q

WHen would you FOR sure test DI?

A

if boosters in therapy

107
Q

If renal function is very very low what can we give?

108
Q

If a patient has undetectable viral load, can they still transmit the virus?

109
Q

What are the two PrEP options?

A

TDF+Emtricitabine
TAF +Emtricitabine

110
Q

How much can PrEP reduce HIV transmission?

111
Q

When would we use TAF over TDF for PrEP?

A

renal insufficiency but TAF NOT covered

112
Q

ON demand PrEP sig?

A

TDF+E 2 pills 2-24 hrs before sex then 1 pill daily for 2 days

113
Q

Is TDF+E PrEP ok for pregnancy?

114
Q

When is TDF CI in renal?

115
Q

How long to meet adequate PrEP levels?

116
Q

New agents coming for PrEP?

A

Inject Cabotegravir= superior to TDF
Dapivirine= vaginal ring

117
Q

When must PEP start?

A

WITHIN 72 HOURS OF EXPOSURE

118
Q

What is PEP?

A

28 days of TDF+E and dolutegravir both once daily

119
Q

What is in a PEP kit?

A

5 days of TDF+E and dolutegravir

120
Q

IN what populations does PrEP have good evidence for?

A

MSM
PWID
NOT as well for heterosexual prob due to adherence

121
Q

Follow up for PEP?

A

HIV tests 4-6 weeks after then q3 months