Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Most common forms of cancer?

A

LUng
colorectal
pancreas
breast
prostate

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2
Q

What is incidence?

A

of new cases

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3
Q

What is prevalence?

A

total # of cases

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4
Q

True or false, cancer rates of declined?

A

TRUE- rates declined BUT actual number is increasing

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5
Q

Characteristics of cancer cells?

A

uncontrollable growth
invade tissues
no differentiation
matastasize

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6
Q

Main difference between benign and malignant?

A

Benign= encapsulated, slow, some differentiation

Malignant= invasive, not differentiated, aggressive

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7
Q

Difference between tumour grading and staging?

A

Grading= how aggressive= how much differentiation

Staging= extent= has it spread

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8
Q

What does T,N,M mean?

A

T= size of primary
N= in lymph nodes?
M= metastases

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9
Q

What is 2 predictive biomarkers?

A

HER 2, BRCA

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10
Q

What is surgery used for?

A

solid tum ours

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11
Q

What is radiation for?

A

high turnover cells

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12
Q

What is growth fraction?

A

cells in cycle/Total # of cells

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13
Q

Why does growth fraction decrease as tumour grows?

A

too far from blood and nutrients

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14
Q

How do cytotoxic drugs work?

A

interfere with DNA= breaks and dies

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15
Q

What gene controls apoptosis?

A

p53

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16
Q

I have a phase specific agent what is important for dosing?

A

multiple repeated doses

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17
Q

What type of tumours is cell cycle specific drugs for?

A

high growth factor

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18
Q

What is important for cell cycle non specific drugs?

A

dose dependent

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19
Q

What are some trial endpoints for cancer?

A

overall survival=1
QoL
safety

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20
Q

If therapy is induction what does that mean?

A

primary treatment

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21
Q

What happens first usually for adjuvant therapy?

A

surgery or radiation first

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22
Q

What is the premise of adjuvant therapy?

A

a lot less cancer cells= more susceptible to chemo

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23
Q

What is consolidation therapy?

A

same as adjuvant but for liquid cancer

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24
Q

What does Neo-adjuvant mean?

A

prior to local treatment

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25
Q

What is salvage therapy?

A

for relapse

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26
Q

What is SCT for?

A

overcome resistant tumour

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27
Q

WHat is lymphodepleting used in?

A

CAR-T to create spass for CAR T cells

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28
Q

Common s/e of cancer meds?

A

neutropenia, alopecia, NV, fatigue

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29
Q

How do you dose cancer drugs, and MABs?

A

Cancer drug= BSA
MABS= mg/kg

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30
Q

In order to combat neutropenia from bone marrow damage what can we give?

A

filigrastim= WBC growth factor

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31
Q

Why does chemo fail?

A

cannot get 100% of it killed, kills be %, toxicity, comorbs

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32
Q

Ways of resistant mechanisms?

A

enzymes to inactivate
pump drug out
repair damage
mutation in receptor
use different pathway

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33
Q

What drug blocks ER?

A

tamoxifen, fulvestrant

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34
Q

What drug blocks aromatase?

A

‘trozoles’

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35
Q

What drug inhibit estrogen production?

A

relin, megestrol

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36
Q

What blocks TESTosterone receptor?

A

bicalutamide

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37
Q

Stops Test production?

A

relins

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38
Q

WHat do imatiNIB do?

A

small molecule that acts within cancer cell

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39
Q

What do MABs do?

A

block extracellular proteins or receptors

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40
Q

How can we affect receptors with mass?

A

block, block antibodies, bring toxins,

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41
Q

What is the most important thing with targeted therapy?

A

BIOPSY

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42
Q

What are the PD-1 inhibitors? What does it do?

A

pemrbolizumab, nivolumab

blocks self recognition and allows T cell to kill

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43
Q

What was the first targeting cancer med?

A

tamoxifen

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44
Q

How does tamoxifen work?

A

blocks ER= estrogen doesn’t stimulate proliferation

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45
Q

IN regards to different tissues what is special with tamoxifen?

A

antagonist in breast BUT agonist in uterus= uterine cancer risk

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46
Q

What women get tamoxifen?

A

PREmenopausal (due to heart risks) and ER/PR positive

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47
Q

What is dose of tamoxifen?

A

20mg daily= max efficacy

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48
Q

How long is tamoxifen therapy for usually?

A

5 years but if high risk 10

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49
Q

If breast cancer and post menopausal what agent do we use?

A

aromatase inhibitors

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50
Q

s/e of tamoxifen?

A

hot flashes, N, mood, arthralgia, vag dryness, DVT, uterine cancer

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51
Q

What s/e of tamoxifen does the body get used to?

A

nausea

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52
Q

Can patients use NHP estrogens for side effects?

A

FUCK NO

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53
Q

What interactions are an issue for tamoxifen?

A

activated by 2D6=0.321 wk bupropion, fluoxetine, paroxetine

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54
Q

How does letrozole work?

A

stops conversion of androgens to estrogen

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55
Q

What other women may use letrozole over tamoxifen?

A

if suppressed or no ovaries

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56
Q

What AI is irreversible?

A

exemastane

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57
Q

What AI has the worst CYP interaction?

A

3A4 with exemastane

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58
Q

Stand out s/e of AI?

A

MORE tolerable menopause like s/e
LESS DVT risk
OSTEOPOROSIS

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59
Q

How does Goserelin work?

A

GnRH AGONIST= suppress ovarian function

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60
Q

What must goserelin be combined with?

A

AI

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61
Q

Prostate cancer sx?

A

issues urinating, urge, pain, blood, no erection

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62
Q

GENERAL prostate cancer options?

A

GnRH AGONIST
GnRH ANTAGONIST
CYp17 inhibitor
Antiandrogens
get T to castration levels

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63
Q

Issue with GnRH agonists?

A

initial flare period before down regulation of axis

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64
Q

What is prescribed for initial flare?

A

bicalutamide!!!

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65
Q

If mild cancer what is duration of GnRH?

A

max 3 years

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66
Q

What are the GnRH agonists?

A

goserelin and leuprolide

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67
Q

What is the prostate GnRH antagonist option?

A

degarelix= rapid decrease

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68
Q

In regards to dosing of GnRH agonists and antagonists what is different?

A

agonists= inj 3-6 months
antagonists= inj monthly

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69
Q

s/e of androgen deprivation?

A

uriniary issues, man boobs, hot flashes, libido issues, weight gain, tired, OP, MI

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70
Q

How does Abiraterone work?

A

inhibits CYP 17= less T production

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71
Q

What is abiraterone used with? WHY?

A

PREDNISONE= prevent rise in ACTH(HTN, low K)

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72
Q

What is considered resistant prostate cancer?

A

3 consecutive increases of PSA or bone lesions despite ADT

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73
Q

What are the androgen blockers?

A

‘Lutamides’

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74
Q

What 2 androgen blockers also inhibit AR binding to DNA?

A

enzalutamide and apalutamide

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75
Q

What does this mab mean, bivicizumab?

A

Ci= circulatory
zu= humanized

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76
Q

What does this mab mean, amliximab?

A

li(m)= immune system
xi= chimeric

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77
Q

What does this mab mean,tertumumab?

A

tu= tumour
mu= fully human

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78
Q

What type of MABs have less infusion reactions?

A

fully humanized ones

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79
Q

How much is a mab human if humanized vs chimeric?

A

humanized= >90
chimeric=>65

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80
Q

When do we use pertuzumab and trastuzumab?

A

HER 2+

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81
Q

When do infusion reactions happen?

A

generally within 30m-2 hr BUT monitor for 24 hours

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82
Q

Infusion reaction sx?

A

fever, itchy, chest discomfort, NVD, rash, pain, AND CYTOKINE RELEASE SYNDROME(BAD)

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83
Q

Can you cure follicular lymphoma?

A

NO

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84
Q

What do we use in Follicular lymphoma? What has evidence to be added for greater efficacy?

A

anti-CD20 PLUS rituximab or obinutuzumab

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85
Q

When do we prefer obinutuzumab over rituximab?

A

if intolerant/resistant to rituximab

86
Q

MOA of rituximab?

A

cytotoxic through phagocytosis, directly, antibody

87
Q

What is rituximab resistance?

A

progression within 6 months of last dose

89
Q

How does Blinatumomab work?

A

CD19 of b cells and CD3 of T cells to recruit immune system

90
Q

What are the EGFR inhibitors? How do they work?

A

cetuximab and panitumab
- prevent dimerization

91
Q

What is cetuximab combined with?

A

irinotecan

92
Q

What cancer often uses EGFR inhibitors?

A

colorectal

93
Q

What RAS is cetuximab indicated in?

94
Q

Benefit of panitumumab over cetuximab?

A

more humanized= no need for premedication

95
Q

How does bevacizumab work?

A

VEGF inhibitor

96
Q

s/e of bevacizumab?

A

HTN, bleeding, MI

97
Q

what was the first VEDF inhibitor?

A

bevacizumab

98
Q

IMportant PK of bevacizumab?

A

LONG half life

99
Q

What side of the colon does most cancers happen?

100
Q

Which type of colon cancer is bevacizumab better in?

A

right sided

101
Q

What drug works of VEGF2?

A

ramucirumab

102
Q

What is considered HER 2+

A

3+ staining

103
Q

MOA of trastuzumab?

A

block dimerization

104
Q

MOA of pertuzumab?

A

block heterodimerization

105
Q

S/e of HER2 therapy?

106
Q

What is T-DM1?

A

trastuzumab with cytotoxic agent called emtansine

107
Q

MOA of enfortumab?

A

Nectin 4= urothelial cancer

108
Q

What is a benefit of immunotherapy over other chemo?

A

better cancer response for longer, because more response with each cycle

109
Q

What is the CTLA4 inhibitor?

A

ipilimumab

110
Q

What are the PD-1 inhibitors?

A

Pembrolizumab
Nivolumab

111
Q

What are the PDL-1 inhibitors?

A

Durvalumab
atezolizumab
avelumab

112
Q

Where do CTLA4 and PD inhibitors act?

A

CTLA4= lymph
PD-T= cancer cells

113
Q

How does CTLA4 work?

A

if it binds the T cell is innactivated and cancer can proliferate

114
Q

When is CTLA4 inhibitors used?

A

Melanoma, kidney, lung

115
Q

Where is PD-1?

116
Q

Should you use both PD1- and PDL-1 inhibitors?

A

Overkill not needed

117
Q

If toxicity with IO what can we do?

A

ONLY HOLD DOSE or stop[

118
Q

Survival of melanoma?

A

bad but with IO much better

119
Q

What is the majority of lung cancer?

120
Q

What tests and what value indicates PD-L1 susceptible?

121
Q

IN regards to s/e and when they go away what is important with IO therapy?

A

can self perpetuate and continue after d/c

122
Q

s/e of IO?

A

rash, colitis, hepatitis, eye, myocarditis, gi, renal

123
Q

How often should lab monitoring be?

A

q3months and even after termination

124
Q

When are side effects seen in IO and why?

A

weeks to months because it takes time for immune system to kick in

125
Q

I have grade 2 s/e from IO what do we do?

A

halt drug for a bit

126
Q

I have grade 3 s/e from IO what do we do?

A

CS and halt drug

127
Q

I have grade 4 s/e from IO what do we do?

128
Q

If s/e from IO is not responding to CS what do we use?

A

infliximab

129
Q

What is dose of CS for grade 2 s/e of IO?

A

0.5 mg/kg/day of prednisone

130
Q

What is dose of CS for grade 3/4 s/e of IO?

A

1-2 mg/kg/day of prednisone

131
Q

Which s/e get quick relief from CS in IO?

A

gi, hepatic and renal toxicity

132
Q

Why does classic chemotherapy have bad side effects?

A

targets all rapidly dividing cells= like gut, mucosa, hair

133
Q

Urgent s/e of cancer therapy?

A

bleeding, severe vomit and diarrhea, dyspnea, chest pain

134
Q

Long term s/e of cancer therapy?

A

infertility, HF, OP, cataracts, fatigue

135
Q

If grade 3 toxicity what do we know?

A

bad and interferes with eating/ life

136
Q

What is a grade 4 toxicity?

A

needing hospital, life threatnening

137
Q

Drugs that have the most hypersensitivity issues?

A

taxans, platinums, MABS

138
Q

How do we treat hypersensitivity?

A

pretreat with steroid, famotidine, antihistamine and acet

139
Q

What is the most dose limiting toxicity?

A

myelosuppression

140
Q

What does myelosuppression lead Tod?

A

anemia-low RBC
Neutropenia= no WBC
Thrombocytopenia= bleeding

141
Q

What is a nadir period?

A

lowest point of blood cells

142
Q

How to we treat anemia? What DONT we give?

A

infusion of RBC
NO EPA

143
Q

Why is anemia so prolonged in cancer therapy?

A

cumulates as RBC live for 120 days so takes a while to notice

144
Q

How do we treat thrombocytopenia?

A

transfusion

145
Q

What is too low ANC?

146
Q

How do we treat neutropenia?

A

filigrastim or pegfiligrastim

147
Q

A patient just finished their first cycle what myelosuppression are they at risk of?

A

febrile neutropenia

148
Q

Why don’t we want to treat fever in cancer patients?

A

only way to tell if they have an infection

149
Q

How low is too low for just neutrophils?

150
Q

If patient has febrile neutropenia what should they do?

A

ER!!! need antibiotics

151
Q

What antibiotics are used in febrile neutropenia?

A

antipseudomonas= pip/taz, meropenem, ceftazidime
Gram Pos= vancomycin

152
Q

When may we want to cover gram positive in febrile neutropenia?

A

MRSA carrier, skin infections, sepsis

153
Q

How can a cancer patient prevent infections?

A

hygiene, protect skin, reduce exposure, mouth care

154
Q

Difference between filigrastim and pegfiligrastim?

A

Peg= long acting

155
Q

At what risk should you do primary prevention of febrile neutropenia?

156
Q

When does mucositis usually start?

A

a week into therapy

157
Q

What does mucositis lead to?

A

depression, infection, nutritional issues, pain

158
Q

How can we help with mucositis?

A

hygiene tups, salt rinses
Ice chips= sometimes CI
anesthetics

159
Q

What mouth washes are a no go?

A

alcohol
ANDMAGIC MOUTWASH= bas thrush

160
Q

How to help with dyspepsia?

A

usual therapies

161
Q

What agents have the most diarrhea?

A

irinotecan, FU

162
Q

Non pharmacist for diarrhea?

A

small frequent meals, avoid insoluble fibre, increase soluble fibre, avoid pop/juice

163
Q

Drugs for diarrhea?

A

loperamide
octreotide- lowers fluid secretion

164
Q

How to treat acute diarrhea?

A

atropine due to cholinergic causes

165
Q

How much loperamide before see doc?

A

if no resolution in 24 hours

166
Q

What for constipation?

A

senna, PEGH

167
Q

Warning signs for contestation?

A

no BM in 3-5 days, no farts, blood, foul vomit

168
Q

What do patients say they taste after chemo?

A

metallic or chemical taste

169
Q

What drug causes HFSR the most? And how does this relate to therapy?

A

capecitabine
usually if get= more response

170
Q

How to treat HFSR?

A

NOTHING
prevent thru lower heat, moisturizer, gloves

171
Q

What drugs cause the most alopecia? What’s different?

A

doxorubicin- reversible
paclitaxel- sudden total
docetaxel- irreversible

172
Q

What happens to eyelashes if alopecia?

A

comes back wired and rough

173
Q

How to treat peripheral neuropathy?

A

AD, opioids, anticonvulsants- gabapentin

174
Q

What drugs cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

taxans, IO, PIs

175
Q

What drugs commonly cause heart issues?

A

FU, trastuzumab

176
Q

Is it easier to prevent or treat nausea?

A

DUH prevent

177
Q

Which type of nausea/vomiting is serotonin dependent? What agent would we use?

A

Acute= 24hours, 5HT antagonist

178
Q

Which type of nausea/vomiting is Substance P dependent? What agent would we use?

A

delayed=>24 hours
use NK1 antagonists

179
Q

What agent would we use for anticipatory nausea? When do we give it?

A

Lorazepam the NIGHT before

180
Q

Worst causer for delayed nausea?

A

cisplatin **KNOW

181
Q

Patient characteristics that put you at risk of chemo induced nausea?

A

Low alcohol tolerance, younger, female, history of motion sickness or nausea during pregnancy

182
Q

What are the 5HT antagonists?

A

Ondansetron ‘setrons’

183
Q

What is the 4 drug backbone for nausea treatment for high risk?

A

5-HT3
NK1
CS
Olanzapine

184
Q

S/e of ondansetron?

A

COnsitpation, headache, QT

185
Q

What is the second generation 5 HT3? What’s. the benefit?

A

Palonosetron

Longer acting, LESS QT

186
Q

What drug is used for NK1? what’s special?

A

Akynzeo- netupitant with palonosetron

187
Q

Important interaction with akynzeo?

A

dexamethasone needs a 50% dose reduction

188
Q

Dosing of akynzeo for high risk emetic patient?

A

1 dose prior to start of cycle of chemo with dex then dex for 3 extra days

189
Q

Dosing of akynzeo if on carboplatin (>4 AUC) or anthracycline/cyclophosphamide?

A

1 dose prior with dex no more dex after

190
Q

S/e of akynzeo?

A

well tolerated but constipation, tired, headache

191
Q

What CS is used for nausea?

A

Dexamethasone

192
Q

Dose of dexamethasone both with and without akynzeo? and for acute vs delayed?

A

Normally 20 mg but with akynzeo =12 mg

delayed= 8 mg

193
Q

Why do we use olanzapine?

A

effective for delayed but also used for breakthrough

194
Q

S/e of olanzapine?

A

raise BG, sedation, weight gain

195
Q

Which is better, olanzapine or metaclopramide for chemo induced nausea?

A

Olanzapine

196
Q

How does metaclopramide work?

A

dopamine antagonist

197
Q

S/e of metaclopramide?

A

sedation, restless, diarrhea

198
Q

If using lorazepam for nausea what type is it for?

A

Anticipatory

199
Q

What is abosuletly last line for nausea?

A

Nabilone- cannabis

200
Q

What AUC of carboplatin is considered high emetic risk?

201
Q

What is the percentage of people that get get nausea in high-low emetic risk?

A

HIgh=>90
Medium=30-90
Low= 10-30

202
Q

What IV chemo drugs are high emetic risk? What are the example?

A

cisplatin and A/C
doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide

203
Q

Dose of olanzapine for pre treatment?

204
Q

If medium risk for acute what is emetic treatment?

A

All but no olanzapine

205
Q

If high risk both AC treatment and not, what is therapy for delayed nausea?

A

NOn AC= Olanzapine and dex

AC= olanzapine

206
Q

If medium to low emetic risk do we give stuff for delayed nausea?

207
Q

If moderate and not carboplatin what drugs for acute nausea?

A

Dex and ondansetron

208
Q

If low risk what drugs for acute?

A

ondansetron OR dex OR meaclopramide

209
Q

What is recommended for breakthrough nausea? What conditions apply?

A

Olanzapine 10 mg IF not previously used for prophylaxis

210
Q

If olanzapine has already been used and we need breakthrough nausea management what can we do?

A

metolopramide is fine but increase dex better

try gransitron over other
increase olanzapine

211
Q

Best way to prevent anticipatory nausea?

A

control of acute and delayed