HIV Flashcards

1
Q

What is the viral structure of HIV?

A

An enveloped virus

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2
Q

What is the advantage of a non-enveloped virus?

A

More stable to UV, heat, desiccation and disinfection

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3
Q

The HIV virus in enveloped, what is the advantage of this?

A

The envelope helps the virus attach and invade our cells

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4
Q

What cells does HIV infect?

A

T-lymphocytes, specifically CD4 cells (T-helper’s)

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5
Q

What stage does the HIV virus become infectious?

A

Protease stage

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6
Q

What is acute HIV syndrome often misdiagnosed as?

A

Flu

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7
Q

What age group has the highest rate of new diagnoses of HIV?

A

25-34

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8
Q

Who is at risk of contracting HIV?

A

Concomitant STDs
Alcohol and drug use
Sexual intercourse
Needles

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9
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A

Via blood and bloody fluids

(semen, vaginal fluid), breast milk, etc)

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10
Q

When does acute retroviral syndrome occur?

A

Develops 3-6 weeks after infection (window period), lasts 1-2 weeks

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of mild acute retroviral syndrome?

A

Vague flu like illness

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12
Q

What are the symptoms of severe mild acute retroviral syndrome?

A

Meningitis, encephalitis, thrombocytopenia, etc. (usually requires hospitalization)

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13
Q

How is screening conducted for HIV?

A

Completed by “opt-out” testing with routine bloodwork

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14
Q

What are the different screening tests available for HIV?

A

Nucleic acid tests (NATs)
Antigen/antibody testing
Antibody testing only

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15
Q

When is nucleic acid testing (NATs) completed?

A

Mostly for acute HIV or intermediate test (no HIV antibodies yet), detectable 10 days post-exposure

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16
Q

Who gets treatment for HIV?

A

Initiate immediate treatment at time of diagnosis in anyone under 18 (< 18 shared decision making)

Includes pregnant patients, patients with opportunistic infections

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17
Q

What is the only exception for not starting immediate treatment?

A

Patients who won’t commit to compliance due to risk for medication resistance

18
Q

What screening for co-infections should be done at time of HIV diagnosis?

A

STI’s
Latent TB
Hepatitis A, B, and C
Coccidioidomycosis

19
Q

What is the first line treatment for HIV?

A

Anti-retroviral therapy - generally a 3 drug combination (1 InSTI + 2 NRTI’s)

20
Q

How often should a CD4 count be checked?

A

Every 6 months for first 2-years, then annually > 500 is optimal

21
Q

When does Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) occur?

A

After initiation of ART (higher risk if worse disease)

22
Q

What is the treatment for IRIS?

A

Supportive, steroids if severe

23
Q

What are some reasons for adjusting ART?

A

Side effects
Toxicity
Simplify regimen for compliance
Virology failure

24
Q

What are some prevention strategies for HIV?

A

Cessation of IV drug use/needle sharing
Safe sex practices
Sex education
ART as prevention

25
Q

What is PrEP?

A

Pre-exposure prophylaxis for the prevention of HIV infection in HIV negative patients

26
Q

What are the two oral PrEP’s available?

A

Truvada
Descovy (not indicated for receptive vaginal sex)

27
Q

What is the intramuscular injection available for PrEP and when is it given?

A

Cabotegravir, given every 2 months

28
Q

How often do you need to screen a patient on PrEP?

A

Every 3-months

29
Q

What is PEP?

A

Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP), for prevention of HIV in negative patients after exposure to HIV

30
Q

When does PEP need to be started after exposure?

A

Within 72 hours of exposure (sooner the better)

31
Q

What is the regimen of PEP?

A

Tenofovir DF + emtracitibine (Truvada) orally for 28 days

32
Q

After treatment with PEP, when should HIV screening be conducted?

A

30 and 60 days after

33
Q

How is late-stage (AIDS) defined by lab values?

A

CD4 counts less than 200 or presence of an ‘AIDS defining’ infection/malignancy

34
Q

When CD4 counts drop below 100 what are the Opportunistic Infections that the patient is at risk for?

A

Toxoplasmosis
Candidal, HSV, or CMV esophagitis

35
Q

What are the clinical findings on CXR in Pneumocystis jirovecii (PCP)?

A

Diffuse or perihilar (middle of chest) infiltrates

36
Q

What is the treatment for Pneumocystis jirovecii (PCP)?

A

Bactrim for 21 days

37
Q

What is the finding on CT for toxoplasmosis?

A

Ring-enhancing (contrast-enhacing) lesion

38
Q

What is the treatment for toxoplasmosis?

A

Primethamine + sulfadiazine for 6 weeks

39
Q

What is the alternative treatment for toxopasmosis?

A

TMP-sulfa (Bactrim)

40
Q

How is Cryptococcal Meningitis diagnosed?

A

Serum cyptococcal antigen (CRAG)
India ink stain CSF

41
Q

How long is the treatment for Cryptococcal Meningitis?

42
Q

What is the presentation of Kaposi’s Sarcoma?

A

Purplish macules, papules, or nodules