Histopath Flashcards

1
Q

genetic condition predisposing to colon cancer

A

familial adenomatous polyposis

hereditary non-polyposis rectal cancer/Lynch syndrome

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2
Q

Troponin subtype best for MI

A

Troponin I; more sensitive and specific

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3
Q

Breast: proliferation of fibroepithelium and stromal tissue

A

Phylloides tumour

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4
Q

MEN2A associated with what cancers?

A

Parathyroid, medullary thyroid, phaemochromocytoma

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5
Q

MEN1 Cancers?

A

Pituitary, parathyroid, pancreatic

3 P’s!!

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6
Q

DM definitive diagnosis made how?

A

Fasting > 7.0

OGTT > 11

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7
Q

Fibrotic destruction of bile ducts in and outside liver

A

PSC

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8
Q

E Cadherin negative breast cancer

A

lobular carcinoma

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9
Q

History: Dialysis, raise PTH and PO4, low Ca and Vit D, + bone pain

A

Renal osteodystrophy

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10
Q

MEN2B cancers?

A

Medullary thyroid, phaeochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas, marfanoid

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11
Q

Mass under dura mater compressing parietal lobe

A

meningioma

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12
Q

84yo, acute cramp like abdo pain lasting several hours, followed by short rectal bleeding, colonoscopy shows oedematous thickening of bowel wall with areas of necrotic ulceration confined to mucosal layers, irregularly irregular heart beat

A

ischaemic colitis

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13
Q

Paraneoplastic lung cancers

A

small cell carcinoma

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14
Q

EML 4 ALK

A

adenocarcinoma

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15
Q

20 year old with a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of his leg

A

osteoid osteoma

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16
Q

Impaired fasting glucose?

A

6.1-6.9

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17
Q

Impaired glucose tolerance?

A

7.8-11

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18
Q

Most useful enzyme in detecting re infarction

A

CK MB

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19
Q

Patient with a mass following acute pancreatitis

A

pseudocyst

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20
Q

Chronic schistosomiasis infection causes what type of bladder cancer?

A

Squamous cell

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21
Q

Thyroid cancer types

A

medullary, papillary

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22
Q

Most common ovarian malignancy

A

Serous carcinoma

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23
Q

Granulomatous destruction of bile ducts in liver

A

PBC

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24
Q

PSC associated with what?

A

Ulcerative colitis, cholangiocarcinoma

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25
Q

Kidneys of someone with DM?

A

Renal sclerosis

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26
Q

Breast: Brown secretions, poorly defined edges

A

Fibrocystic changes

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27
Q

Breast cancer staged into low, intermediate and high grade, microcalcification

A

DCIS

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28
Q

Parafollicular C cells, calcitonin high

A

medullary thyroid cancer

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29
Q

Low albumin, mildly raised GGT, INR deranged

A

Cirrhosis

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30
Q

Balloon cells, mallory denk bodies, mega mitochondria

A

alcoholic hepatitis

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31
Q

EGFR

A

adenocarcinoma

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32
Q

Causes of bronchiectasis

A

Infection (most common) , Immunodeficiency, Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, Aspiration, Cystic fibrosis

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33
Q

KRAS mutation

A

adenocarcinoma, SCC

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34
Q

High AST and ALT

A

Hepatitis

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35
Q

Most common non invasive malignancy

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

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36
Q

High AFP?

A

Testicular carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, pregnancy

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37
Q

Psammoma bodies

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

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38
Q

Balloon cells, mallory cells, neutrophils

A

Acute fatty liver hepatitis

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39
Q

ERCC1

A

NSCLC

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40
Q

Patient with HIV, raised ICP, new onset epilepsy

A

toxoplasmosis

41
Q

benign polyp condition

A

hyperplastic polyps

42
Q

What kind of brain bleed? Elderly, alcoholic, fluctuating consciousness, trauma

A

subDural haemorrhage

Alcoholics like to “d”own alcohol

43
Q

Lung injury in alpha 1 antitrypsin

A

emphysema

44
Q

E Cadherin Positive breast cancer

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

45
Q

Most common breast malignancy

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

46
Q

Frank haematuria following throat infection

A

IgA nephropathy

47
Q

Soap bubble appearance of some. Lytic lesions around epiphyses

A

Giant cell tumour

48
Q

Shepherd’s crook deformity, soap bubble osteolysis, chinese letters

A

Fibrous dysplasia

49
Q

Knee mass, Codman’s triangle, sunburst appearance

A

Osteosarcoma

50
Q

Fluffy calcification, axial skeleton

A

Chondrosarcoma

51
Q

Onion skinning of periosteum

A

Ewing’s sarcoma (children and adolescents)

52
Q

Bone lesion, relieved by aspirin, radiolucent nidus

A

osteoid osteoma

53
Q

GI polyps, multiple osteomas, epidermoid cysts

A

Gardner syndrome

54
Q

In the hands: Cotton wool calcification, O ring sign

A

Enchondroma

55
Q

Osteochondroma

A

Cartilage capped bony outgrowth

56
Q

Nephritic syndrome, deafness, eye disorders

A

Alport’s Syndrome (Hereditary Nephritis)

57
Q

Asymptomatic haematuria

A

Thin Basemene Membrane Disease, IgA Nephropathy, Alport Syndrome

58
Q

Ovarian mass with psammoma bodies

A

Serous cystadenoma

59
Q

Three types of ovarian tumour

A

Epithelial, germ cell, sex cord/stroma

60
Q

Germ cell tumours

A

Dysgerminoma, teratoma, choriocarcinoma

61
Q

Sex cord tumours

A

Fibroma, granulosa-theca, Sertoli-Leydig

62
Q

Which receptor is associated with good/bad prognoses in breast cancer?

A
EP/PR = good
HER2 = bad
63
Q

Brain bleed: elderly alcoholic, fluctuating consciousness, minor trauma

A

Subdural haemorrhage

64
Q

Brain tumour associated with neurofibromatosis type II

A

meningioma

65
Q

Childhood brain tumour

A

pilocytic astrocytoma

66
Q

Pott’s disease?

A

a skeletal deformity associated with osteomyelitis of the spine due to infection with TB

67
Q

large tense bullae on erythematous base, difficult to rupture, linear deposition of IgG

A

PemphigOID

Pemphigu’s’ are easier to rupture because they are ‘s’ofter

68
Q

Ejection systolic murmur at upper-left sternal edge

A

aortic stenosis

69
Q

CP + fever + pericardial rub 4 weeks post MI

A

Dressler syndrome (secondary pericarditis)

70
Q

Aschoff bodies and anitschkov myocytes

A

Rheumatic fever

71
Q

Lambert Eaton syndrome

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome in small-cell carcinoma

72
Q

Keratinisation + intracellular ‘prickle’ desmosomes

A

squamous cell carcinoma

73
Q

Onion skinning in autoimmune condition

A

CREST

74
Q

Epigastric pain relieved by food, worse at night

A

Duodenal ulcer

75
Q

Wet cornflakes appearance of colon

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

76
Q

Group of tumours that produce 5-HT (serotonin) and investigation?

A

Carcinoid syndrome

Ix: 24 hour urine 5-HIAA

77
Q

Courvoisier’s sign

A

ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

78
Q

Anti nuclear and anti smooth muscle Ig

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

79
Q

Associated with p-anca, cholangiocarcinoma

A

PSC

80
Q

Young person with signs of Parkinson’s disease and liver signs

A

Wilson’s disease

81
Q

Hepatomegaly, skin bronzing, diabetes

A

Haemochromatosis

82
Q

Perl’s Prussian blue stain

A

Haemochromatosis

83
Q

Aflatoxin exposure

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

84
Q

IgG binding to hemi-desmosomes

A

bullous pemphigOID

85
Q

Poly-ostotic + café-au-lait spots + precocious puberty

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

86
Q

Mutation of alpha-synuclein protein

A

Familial Parkinson’s disease free of Lewy bodies

87
Q

young male + colon ca proximal to splenic flexure + autosomal dominant condition

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer = Lynch syndrome

88
Q

Browns tumours, salt and pepper skull

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

89
Q

nikolsky sign positive and demoglein 1

A

pemphigus vulgaris

90
Q

micro nodular vs macro nodular hepatitis

A

micro is alcoholic hepatitis (alcoholics are secretive - micro)
macro is viral

91
Q

Radiosensitive cancer of the testicle in a young man with a white/smooth appearence?

A

Seminoma

92
Q

Hurtle cells

A

hashimoto’s thyroiditis

93
Q

Nests of epithelial cells

A

renal clear cell tumour

94
Q

Spotty necrosis + inflammatory infiltrate

A

acute hepatitis

95
Q

concentric “onion skin” fibrosis around the bile duct and loss of bile ducts

A

PSC

96
Q

malignancy in the ovary that metastasized from a primary site, classically the gastrointestinal tract

A

Krukenberg tumour

97
Q

an example of a drug that inhibits the enzyme dipeptidyl dipeptidase IV (DPP-4)

A

gliptins

98
Q

the drug used for patients with type 2 diabetes which inhibits the enzyme alpha glucosidase in the brush border membrane of the small bowel

A

acarbose