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Term 1 > Histology - Post Mid-term > Flashcards

Histology - Post Mid-term Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 major divisions of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. Tissues [no capsule]
    - Diffuse (loose/dense)
    - Nodular (primary-neonate/secondary)
  2. Organs [capsule]
    - Primary: bone marrow, thymus
    - Secondary: lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils
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2
Q

What are the 2 types of diffuse lymphoid tissue?

A
  1. Loose - Lamina propria (first response)

2. Dense - Walls of GI tract, along mucous membrane

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3
Q

What are 2 major differences (histologically) between the thymus and a lymph node?

A

Thymus: no afferent lymph vessel, no reticular fibers

Lymph node: PALS cover the central arteriole

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4
Q

The difference between loose & dense lymphoid tissue…

A

Loose: few lymphocytes
Dense: many lymphocytes, supported by reticular fibers

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5
Q

A germinal center indicates…

A

A response to antigen

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6
Q

What are the 2 divisions of nodular lymphoid tissue

A
  1. B cells w/in germinal center [maturing]

2. Corona/mantle on the outside with T cells

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7
Q

What are differentiating characteristics of the thymus?

A
  1. NO afferent lymphatic vessels
  2. ERC’s
  3. Cortex is divided; medulla is continuous
  4. Capsule: dense irreg. C/T
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8
Q

What is the origin of the thymus?

A

3rd pharyngeal pouch

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9
Q

What syndrome results in lack of a thymus?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

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10
Q

What is the difference between the cortex & the medulla of the thymus?

A

Cortex: immature thymocytes & ERC’s
Medulla: mature T lymphocytes

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11
Q

What type of capillaries are in the thymus?

A

Continuous

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12
Q

How are ERC’s held together?

A

Desmosomes

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13
Q

What is the function of the ERC’s?

A

Blood-thymus barrier

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14
Q

Where are Hassall’s corpuscles found?

A

ONLY in the medulla

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15
Q

When does the thymus undergo involution?

A

After puberty

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16
Q

What is the function of the lymph node?

A

Filter lymph fluid

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17
Q

What area 2 distinguishing characteristics of lymph nodes?

A
  1. Afferent lymphatic vessels

2. Reticular fibers

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18
Q

Where are lymphatic nodules in a lymph node?

A

Cortex (w/ B lymphocytes)

Medulla: T, B, plasma cells

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19
Q

What lymph organ is associated with cancer metastasis?

A

Lymph node

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20
Q

What are the functional divisions of the lymph node?

A
  1. Capsule
  2. Cortex
  3. Paracortex
  4. Medulla
  5. Hilum
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21
Q

Beneath the capsule of a lymph node is…

A

Subscapular sinus

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22
Q

What type of epithelium lines the afferent vessel?

A

Flat epithelial cells

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23
Q

Trace the flow of lymph in a lymph node.

A

Afferent lymphatic –> subscapular sinuses –> radial/trabecular sinuses –> medullary sinus –> efferent lymphatics

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24
Q

Differentiate between the outer cortex & paracortex of a lymph node.

A

Outer cortex: mainly B cells

Paracortex: mainly T cells

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25
Q

Where are HEV’s?

A

Deep cortex of a lymph node; allow for the transition of lymphocytes from the blood stream to the lymph tissue

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26
Q

What are the 2 components of a lymph node’s medulla?

A
  1. Cords - B lymphocytes, plasma cells, reticular cells – branched extension of dense lymphoid tissue
  2. Sinuses - Dilated spaces w/ lymph, few macrophages
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27
Q

What type of collagen is found in lymph nodes?

A

Collagen III (Can stain w/ PAS & Silver)

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28
Q

What is the embryologic origin of the spleen?

A

Mesoderm

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29
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A
  1. Filter blood

2. Immune response to antigens

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30
Q

The outer spleen is covered by:

A

Simple squamous epithelium`

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31
Q

The blood vessels penetrate the parenchyma of the spleen through

A

Trabeculae

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32
Q

The parenchyma of the spleen consists of:

A
  1. Red pulp (Cords of Billroth & sinusoids)

2. White pup (central a.)

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33
Q

What are the divisions of the splenic artery?

A
  1. Branches along capsular artery –> trabeculae –> central arteries
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34
Q

Who surrounds vessels in the spleen?

A

PALS (periarteriolar lymphatic sheath)

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35
Q

What is found around the layer of PALS?

A

B lymphocytes

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36
Q

What is the rim of lymphocytes + APC’s referred to in the spleen?

A

Marginal zone – this is where lymphocytes come into contact with antigens

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37
Q

What differentiates the spleen from a lymph node?

A

The eccentric central artery

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38
Q

What composes the splenic cords of Billroth?

A

RBC’s, lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, granulocytes (immune cells draped on reticular fibers)

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39
Q

What are Littoral cells?

A

Splenic sinusoids are lined by elongated endothelial cells, called Littoral cells

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40
Q

What happens to healthy RBC’s in the spleen?

A

Healthy RBC’s – flexible – enough to squeeze between the endothelial cells to enter the cords; older ones are trapped and degraded by macrophages (found right outside the sinusoids)

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41
Q

What is the function of the tonsil?

A

Process antigens that enter the body through the oral cavity

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42
Q

What is the term for the annular arrangement of lymphoid tissue in the oral cavity?

A

Waldeyer’s ring

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43
Q

In general, all tonsils are lined by …

A

Epithelium

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44
Q

Palatine tonsils are lined by

A

Stratified squamous NK epithelium

* Deep crypts w/ dead bacteria, etc.

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45
Q

An enlarged pharyngeal tonsil is called …

A

Adenoid (in posterior pharyngeal wall / nasopharynx)

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46
Q

How do we differentiate pharyngeal tonsils from palatine tonsils?

A

Pharyngeal – Respiratory pseudostratified epi + St. sq. NK epi

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47
Q

Lingual tonsils are associated with…

A

Mucus glands

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48
Q

3 characteristics of endocrine organs

A
  1. Cords of cells invested in RETICULAR fibers
  2. FENESTRATED capillaries
  3. Produce hormones into B/S or C/T
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49
Q

Who controls the pituitary gland?

A

Hypothalamus

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50
Q

What is another name for the pituitary gland?

A

Hypophysis

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51
Q

How do hormones get from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland?

A

Hypothalmo-hypophyseal portal system

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52
Q

The pituitary is divided into… (mention embryologic origin)

A

Anterior- cells + reticular fibers – Rathke’s pouch (oroectoderm)
Posterior- nervous tissue (neuroectoderm)
Pars intermedia: remnants of Rathke’s Pouch

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53
Q

What is the posterior pituitary?

A

Herring bodies store hormones produced in hypothalmus
Supraoptic- ADH/Vasopressin
Paraventricular- oxtytocin

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54
Q

What are Herring’s bodies?

A

Storage units in the posterior pituitary?

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55
Q

What are glial cells called in the posterior pituitary?

A

Pituicytes

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56
Q

Pars intermedia of the pituitary produces…

A

MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone)

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57
Q

What types (major) of cells do we see in the anterior pituitary?

A
  1. Chromophobes (stem cells/degranulated/support/unknown fx)

2. Chromophils – acidophils/basophils

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58
Q

What are the different types of chromophils of the anterior pituitary?

A

Acidophils - Somatotrophs (GH) / Mamotrophs (prolactin)

Basophils - Gonadotrophs (FSH, LH), Corticotrophs (ACTH), Thyrotrophs (TSH)

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59
Q

Describe the embryology of the adrenal gland.

A

Cortex: mesoderm
Medulla: neural crest cells

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60
Q

Describe the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex (and their products).

A
  1. Zona glomerulosa - aldosterone (mineralcorticoid)
  2. Zona fasciulata
  3. Zona reticularsia
    (2 & 3: cortisol (glucocorticoid) & androgens/DHEA
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61
Q

Describe the regulation of the adrenal cortex

A

Zona glomerulosa - angiotensin 2

Zona fas & Zona retic - ACTH

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62
Q

Briefly describe the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.

A

Angiotensinogen –> (renin) AT1 –> (ACE) AT2 –> aldosterone (reuptake Na/H20 – inc. BP)

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63
Q

Describe the products of the adrenal medulla

A

Catecholamines (adrenaline/noradrenaline)

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64
Q

Describe the blood supply of the adrenal gland

A
  1. Subcapsular plexus (capsule/cortex/medulla)

2. Central vein (supra-renal vein)

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65
Q

The endocrine pancreas cells are located within:

A

Islets of Langerhans

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66
Q

The endocrine pancreas cells are:

A

Alpha - periphery - glucagon
Beta - central - insulin
Delta - somatastatin (paracrine) & gastrin
F/PP - pancreatic polypeptide

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67
Q

The parathyroid glands… (fx)

A

PTH (chief cells)
Stimulate osteoclastic activity
Increase serum calcium
Decrease serum phosphate

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68
Q

The 2 types of parathyroid cells are:

A
  1. Chief (PTH) - smaller/basophilic

2. Oxyphil - acidophilic (unknown fx)

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69
Q

The pineal gland is responsible for secreting…

A

Melatonin (Pinealocytes)

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70
Q

The thyroid gland is divided into…

A

Follicles w/ colloid – lined by simple squamous

Stroma – C/T with fenestrated vessels + C cells

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71
Q

The thyroid secretes…

A

Calcitonin (reduce serum Ca)

T3/T4 (from thyroglobin w/in the colloid) – metabolism

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72
Q

Calcitonin promotes

A

Osteoblastic activity

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73
Q

Thyroid hormones store

A

Iodine

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74
Q

Endocrine stomach

A

Gastrin

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75
Q

Endocrine duodenum

A

Gastrin, secretin, CCK

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76
Q

Endocrine heart

A

ANF (atrial natiuretic peptide)

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77
Q

Endocrine kidneys

A

EPO (active vitamin D)

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78
Q

Endocrine adipose

A

Leptid, Resistin

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79
Q

Endocrine placenta

A

HCG, lactogen, relaxin

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80
Q

What cells release renin in the kidney?

A

JG cells

* In response to decreased extracellular fluid volume (detected by macula densa)

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81
Q

What is the distinguishing histological feature of the PCT of the kidney?

A

Brush border

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82
Q

Which cells of the renal corpuscle are phagocytic?

A

Mesangial cells

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83
Q

Mesengial cells have receptors for..

A
  1. Angiotensin 2

2. ANP

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84
Q

Vascular endothelium of the renal corpuscle are…

A

Fenestrated capillaries w/o diaphragms

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85
Q

Modified simple squamous epithelium lining the glomerulus/Bowman’s capsule…

A

Podocytes

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86
Q

The renal corpuscle consists of:

A
  1. Glomerulus

2. Bowman’s capsule

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87
Q

The uriniferous tubule consists of:

A
  1. Nephron (metanephric intermed. mesoderm)

2. Collecting duct (uteric bud)

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88
Q

Bowman’s space has 2 poles

A
  1. Vascular pole (aff/eff vessels)

2. Urinary pole (PCT)

89
Q

A renal lobe is:

A

Medullary pyramid + cortical tissue

90
Q

The renal cortex appears … (histologically)

A

Granulated

91
Q

What comprises the renal cortex?

A

Renal corpuscle & convoluted tubules

92
Q

What comprises the renal medulla?

A

Several pyramids

93
Q

What is a renal column?

A

Cortical tissue that extends between medullary pyramids

94
Q

Trace the ureter through the kidney

A

Ureter –> pelvis –> major calyx –> minor calyx –> papilla

95
Q

The apex of a medullary pyramid is called

A

Renal papilla (tip: area cribrosa)

96
Q

What is the renal pelvis?

A

Expansion of upper ureter

97
Q

The function of the kidney:

A
  1. Electrolyte/pH balance

2. Filter waste

98
Q

Endocrine kidney

A
  1. EPO

2. Renin (JG cells)

99
Q

A nephron is comprised of:

A
  1. Renal corpuscle
  2. P/D CT
  3. LOH
100
Q

The enzyme renin…

A

Angiotensinogen –> angiotensin 1 (plasma)

A1 -ACE-> A2 [lung caps] –> aldosterone (zonula glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex)

101
Q

Aldosterone stimulates

A

Na retention in the DCT

* H2O follows Na and thus the extracellular space fluid volume is increased

102
Q

Angiotensin 2

A

Potent vasoconstrictor

103
Q

The collecting tubules in the cortex/medulla respond to…

A

ADH/Vasopressin

104
Q

Who empties into the area cribrosa?

A

Papillary collecting tubule (apex of papilla)

105
Q

Who travels along the corticomedullary junction at the base?

A

Arcuate arteries (Renal –> Interlobar –> arcuate)

106
Q

Trace the blood flow to the glomerulus

A
  1. Renal a.
  2. Interlobar a.
  3. Arcuate a. (cortico-medullary jx)
  4. Interlobular a.
  5. Afferent/glomeular artery
107
Q

Trace the blood flow from the glomerulus

A
  1. Efferent artery –> peritubular network supplies convoluted tubules
  2. Vasa recta (into the medullary pyramids)
  3. Hairpin loops into the medulla
  4. Arcuate vein
  5. Interlobar veins –> Renal vein
108
Q

Who drains the outer cortex of the kidney vs. the inner cortex?

A

Outer: Superficial cortical veins –> Interlobular –> Arcuate

109
Q

The renal interstitium is a connective tissue compartment within the kidney. What types of cells are in the cortical and medullary layers?

A

Cortex: Fibroblasts + Mononuclear
Medulla: Pericytes (along descending vasa recta)

110
Q

Within the medullary ray, the two cell types in the collecting tubule are:

A
  1. Principal (light cells) - simple cuboidal; central nucleus
  2. Intercalated (dark) - microplicae folds; apical cytoplasm
111
Q

The medullary collecting cells consist of:

A

Similar to cortical collecting tubule

  1. Dark cells in outer medulla
  2. Light cells in inner medulla
112
Q

The papillary collecting tubule is where

A

The collecting tubulus converge

* Only principal cells!

113
Q

The layers of tissue in the ureter:

differentiate upper 2/3 from lower 1/3

A
  1. Mucosa (transitional epithelium / urothelium)
  2. Submucosa (richly vascularized C/T)
  3. Inner longitudinal / outer circular (lower 1/3 with additional outer circular layer 4 peristalsis)
  4. Adventitia
114
Q

Who has thicker epithelium: ureter or calcyx?

A

Ureter

115
Q

The urinary bladder epithelium is:

A

Transitional

116
Q

The male & female urethera have sub-epithelial glands of…

A

Littre

117
Q

The distal end of the male urethra is called…

A

Fossa ovalis (st. sq)

118
Q

The function of the respiratory system:

A
  1. Provide O2 to tissues in exchange for CO2
119
Q

The 2 major divisions of the respiratory system

A
  1. Conducting – deliver warm, moist air to lungs

2. Respiratory – gaseous exchange

120
Q

The components of the conducting respiratory system:

A
  1. Nose
  2. Pharynx
  3. Larynx
  4. Trachea/Primary bronchus
  5. Secondary bronchus
  6. Bronchioles + terminal bronchi
121
Q

The components of the respiratory pathway of the respiratory system:

A
  1. Respiratory bronchioles
  2. Alveolar ducts
  3. Alveolar sacs
  4. Alveoli
122
Q

The 3 main divisions of the nose:

A
  1. Vestibule - intraepithelial glands + vibrissae
  2. Respiratory - pseudostratified
  3. Olfactory - olfactory (bi-polar nerves), supporting cells, basal stem cells
123
Q

The 2 main divisions of the pharynx:

A
  1. Nasal - pseudostratified – pharyngeal tonsil, eustean tube
  2. Oral - st. sq. NK – pallatine tonsil
124
Q

The 3 parts of the larynx:

A
  1. Superior false vocal cord (vestibular fold - pseudostrat)
  2. Inferior true vocal cord (st. sq.)
  3. Epiglottis (pseudostratified)
125
Q

What types of glands are present in the olfactory region of the nose?

A

Bowman’s glands

126
Q

What are several features of the trachea/primary bronchi?

A
  1. Elastic lamina separates LP from submucosa

2. C-rings of hyaline cartilage

127
Q

What are the effects of dopamine & serotonin on cila?

A

Dopamine: inhibit cilia
Serotonin: excite cilia

128
Q

The intrapulmonary bronchioles are characterized by…

A

2: plates of hyaline cartilage

Bronchioles/terminal: Clara (macrophage) cells, smooth muscle

129
Q

The cell types within the respiratory conduit of the respiratory system:

A
  1. Type I pneumocytes (gas exchange)
  2. Type II pneumocytes (surfactant / Lamellar bodies)
  3. Dust cells (alveolar macrophages)
130
Q

Alveoli contain these types of pores:

A

Pores of Kahn

  • Communication between alveoli
  • Expand/recoil w/ elastic + reticular
131
Q

Who secretes renin in the kidney?

A

JG cells

132
Q

In the kidney, aldosterone receptors are located…

A

DCT

133
Q

The 4 major categories of renal pathology:

A
  1. Glomerular injury
  2. Tubular injury
  3. Interstitial injury
  4. Vascular injury
134
Q

Nephritic syndrome vs. Nephrotic

A

Nephritic – hematuria, edema, hypertension, oliguria (acute proliferative glomerulonephritis)
Nephrotic - proteinuria (IgA nephropathy)

135
Q

2 examples of renal tubular injury

A
  1. Congenital PKD (recessive-fibrocystin; dominant-polycistin)
  2. Acute tubular necrosis (acute ischemia)
136
Q

Example of interstitial kidney injury

A
  1. Acute pyelonephritis (BPH/pregnancy) –> neutrophils in the intersitium + tubules
137
Q

How does hypertension affect the kidney?

A

Thickened vessels, increased pressure

HTN/Hyperglycemia –> microalbuminuria (hyperperfusion)

138
Q

How does diabetes affect the kidney?

A

Kimmelstiel - Wilson nodules

  • Thickened basement membrane, (can lead to glomerulosclerosis) decreased permeability of capillaries
  • Increased mesengial matrix deposition associated with diabetic nephropathy / reduced surface area for filtration
139
Q

Renal cell carcinoma generally affects:

A

Renal tubular epithelial cells

140
Q

What type of carcinoma do you see in the larynx?

A

Squamous cell (characteristic keratin pearls)

141
Q

A mutation in the genes for tubulin/dyenin can lead to…

A

Primary ciliary dyskinesia / Kartenger’s syndrome (with situs inversus)

142
Q

The 2 broad classes of COPD

A
  1. Chronic bronchitis (clinical dx)

2. Emphysema

143
Q

What protein normally restores elastin broken down by cigarette smoke?

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

  • Presistent smoking can lead to increase of neoutrophils and elastase activity
  • This can lead to permanent dilation (difficulty expiring air b/c recoil activity is halted)
144
Q

Cystic fibrosis is a mutation on what chromosome?

A

7

145
Q

What molecule is unable to pass through the defective CFTR in CF?

A

Choloride

146
Q

What is hyaline membrane disease?

A

Infant respiratory distress syndrome

  • Collaped alveoli (atelectatic)
  • No surfactant, high surface tension
  • Vascular congestion
147
Q

Where does squamous cell carcinoma of the lung generally arise?

A

Bronchi (metaplasia of respiratory epithelium to stratified squamous epithelium b/c of chronic irritation)

148
Q

What is the difference between chronic bronchitis & emphysema?

A

Chronic bronchitis – inflammation of bronchioles – thick mucous buildup ** mucus-filled cough **

Emphysema – overinflated alveoli (unnatural retention of air within the lungs) ** SOB **

149
Q

Do we see cartilage in the bronchioles?

A

No

150
Q

What is the difference between the terminal bronchiole and the respiratory bronchiole?

A

Respiratory: beginning of the respiratory portion of the resp. system

151
Q

What type of epithelial changes do we see in the bronchioles?

A

Simple columnar –> simple squamous

152
Q

What is the difference between the trachea and bronchus?

A

Trachea – C rings of cartilage; bronchus – full cartilage; secondary bronchus – cartilaginous plates

153
Q

What two basal lamina are fused in the alveoli?

A

Alveolar basal lamina + capillary endothelial basal lamina

154
Q

What do we see in the terminal bronchioles?

A

CCC – cuboidal, clara, cilia

155
Q

The last time we see smooth muscle in the lung is…

A

alveolar duct

156
Q

The interalveolar septum is characterized by:

A

Pneumocytes type I – blood-gas-barrier

157
Q

What are type II pneumocytes called?

A

Great alveolar/septal/granular

* Produce surfactant

158
Q

What is the difference between the superior and inferior parts of the larynx?

A

Superior – vestibular fold (respiratory epi)

Inferior – vocal fold (stratified sq.)

159
Q

Asthma is characterized by…

A

Dilation of smooth muscles of the bronchioles

  • Decrease in diameter of bronchiole
  • Albuterol (smooth muscle relaxer)
160
Q

The 3 components of the JG apparatus in the kidney:

A
  1. JG cells (release renin)
  2. EC matrix
  3. Macula densa
161
Q

When all the collecting ducts condense, we form…

A

Duct of Ballini

162
Q

ADH acts on…

A

Collecting tubules

163
Q

The 2 types of nephrons

A
  1. JG (long LOH) – vasa recta

2. Cortical (short LOH) – peritubular network

164
Q

The difference between the PCT/thick descending limb & DCT/thick ascending limb

A
  1. PCT – dirty lumen, large internuc spaces
165
Q

The LOH appears (histologically)

A

Simple squamous, bulging lumen

166
Q

Mesengial cells have receptors for:

A
  1. Angiotensin 2

2. ANF

167
Q

Function of skin

A
  1. Barrier
  2. Immunologic
  3. Homeostasis (temperature/H2O loss)
  4. Sensory, endocrine, excretion
168
Q

Layers of epidermis

A 
Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum
Stratum granulosum (keratin granules)
Stratum spinosum (Langerhan cells)
Stratum basale (single layer -- melanocytes + Merkels)
169
Q

Where are Langerhan’s cells in the skin?

A

Stratum spinosum

* Antigen presenting cells

170
Q

Where are melanocytes & Merkel’s cells?

A

Stratum basale

171
Q

The 2 major divisions of the dermis

A

Papillary layer

Reticular layer

172
Q

Function of dermis

A

Protection, shock absorption, nourish the epidermis

173
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is limited to thick skin?

A

Stratum lucidum

174
Q

T/F Black people have more melanocytes

A

False – we have a constant number of melanocytes – relates to amount of melanin produced

175
Q

What are Merkel’s cells?

A

Mechanoreceptors (dense neurosecretory granules)

176
Q

Encapsulated sensory receptors of the skin include:

A
  1. Pacinian (deep pressure – deep dermis/hypodermis)

2. Mesiners (touch – dermal papilla)

177
Q

What is the function of a sebaceous gland?

A 
Secrete sebum (oily coat)
* Associated with acne
178
Q

What is the difference between eccrine and apocrine sweat glands?

A

Eccrine – everywhere

Apocrine – adults / axilla, areola, genitoanal

179
Q

Who stimulates cells of Leydig to secrete? What do they produce/secrete? Where are they located?

A

LH

  • Testosterone
  • Located in the interstitum
180
Q

What are the 2 cell populations that make up the seminiferous epithelium?

A
  1. Spermatogenic cells

2. Sertoli cells

181
Q

What are the functions of Sertoli cells?

A
  1. Support, protect, nourish maturing sperm
  2. Phagocytes
  3. FSH receptors (synthesis of androgen-binding protein)
  4. Secrete inhibin (negative feedback for FSH)
182
Q

What hormone inhibits FSH release? Who produces it?

A

Inhibin

* Sertoli cells

183
Q

LH stimulates… (male)

A

Testosterone production (Leydig cells)

184
Q

FSH stimulates… (male)

A

Synthesis of ABP (androgen-binding protein – binds to testosterone concentrating it to permit sperm maturation)

185
Q

What progenitor cell in the testes undergoes mitosis?

A

Spermatagonia

186
Q

Which cells in the testes under go meiosis?

A

Primary & secondary spermatocytes

187
Q

What is spermeogenesis?

A

Spermatid –> spermatozoa

188
Q

How long does spermatogenesis take?

A

74 days

189
Q

What is unique about spermatogenesis?

A

Daughter cells are connected by intra-cellular bridges

* The synctium is disrupted at the end when the individual spermatozoa are released into the lumen

190
Q

Who sits on the basal lamina of a seminiferous tubule epithelium?

A

Spermatagoina (Type A-pale/dark; B)

191
Q

Flagella are made from what type of microtubule?

A

Centrioles

192
Q

Describe the order:

Spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatazoa, spermatoagonia

A

Spermatagonia (basal)
Spermatocyte (1/2)
Spermatid (centroles)
Spermatazoa (released into lumen)

193
Q

Trace the path of sperm after the seminiferous tubules

A
  1. Tubuli recti
  2. Reti testis
  3. Ductus efferents
  4. Epidymis
  5. Vas deferens
  6. Ampulla –> ejaculatory duct
194
Q

Name the 2 types of erectile tissue in the penis

A
  1. Corpus spongiosum

2. Corpus cavernosum(2)

195
Q

What does the prostate gland secrete?

A

Whitish, thin fluid-containing substance w/ proteolytic enzymes, citric acid, acid phosphatase, lipids

196
Q

What are corpora amylacea?

A

Concretions (calcified) of the prostate

* Can increase with age

197
Q

Who governs the prostate’s secretions?

A

Dihydrotestosterone

198
Q

What does the seminal vesicle secrete?

A

Fructose (70% of ejaculate)

199
Q

What is characteristic of the seminal vesicle?

A

False lumens!

200
Q

What is the ejaculatory duct?

A

Where the vas deferens meets the seminal vesicle (in/around the prostate)

201
Q

Hyperkeratosis

A

Hyperplasia of stratum corneum

202
Q

Parakeratosis

A

Retention of nuclei in stratum corneum

203
Q

Acantholysis

A

Loss of cohesion between keratinocytes (stratum spinosum)

204
Q

Acanthosis

A

Hyperplasia of stratum spinosum

205
Q

Transdermal patches

A

Lipid soluble

206
Q

Psoriasis

A

Acanthosis (hyperplasia of stratum spinosum); cells ascend very quickly and leads to scaling

207
Q

Bullous pemphigoid

A

Autoimmune hemidesmosome destruction (skin)

208
Q

Pemphis vulgaris

A

Autoimmune desmosome destruction (skin)

209
Q

Albinism

A

Melanocytes

  • Inability to take up tyrosine
  • Dysfunctional tyrosinase enzyme
210
Q

Vitiligo

A

No melanocytes

211
Q

Burns (first, second, third)

A

1: epidermis (partial thickness) – red
2: epidermis & dermis (partial thickness) – blister
3: hypodermis – charring – full thickness

212
Q

Differentiate between sq. cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma & melanoma (skin)

A

Squamous: keratin pearls (keratinocytes)
Basal: Basal layer
Melanoma: Melanocytes

213
Q

Von Recklinghausen Disease

A

Neurofibromatosis * Not a skin lesion

* Disease of PNS (Schwann cells)

214
Q

Acne

A

Elevated sebum production can clog the pores

215
Q

Warts

A

Excessive epidermis production

216
Q

Fungal infections

A

Can take 2-4 weeks for the bottom-most cells to ascend – thus treatment course is 2-4 weeks and shouldn’t be stopped early

217
Q

Cellular response to injury consists of:

A
  1. Cloudy swelling (early evidence of injury, loss of normal staining intensity)
  2. Hydropic degeneration (Continued swelling of organelles)
  3. Fatty change (steatosis – accumulation of TAG’s in the cytoplasm – most common in liver)
218
Q

Differentiate between atrophy & hypertrophy

A

Decrease/Increase in size

219
Q

Differentiate between hyperplasia, metaplasia, dysplasia, neoplasia

A

Hyperplasia: increase in number of cells
Metaplasia: Change in differentiation of cells
Dysplasia: Failure of differentiation & maturation (rapid multiplication of cells)
Neoplasia: Abnormal mass of cells (benign–localized/malignant–spread widely)

Term 1 (10 decks)

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