Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Term 1 > Histology > Flashcards

Histology Flashcards

1
Q

One of the early vascular changes in inflammation is adhesion of ________________ to the endothelium. What is this called?

A

Neutrophils

Pavementing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Neutrophils are attracted to a site of tissue damage by ______________________. Two chemical mediators are: ______ & _____.

A

Chemotaxis

C5a & LTB4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The 3 major steps in acute inflammation.

A
  1. Vascular dilation
  2. Endothelial activation
  3. Neutrophil activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define opsonization

A

Coding bacteria with chemical markers (IG’s); this promotes phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name 1 serum test for generalized acute inflammation.

A

CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define pus

A

Thick, semi-fluid containing neutrophils, fluid & necrotic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define abscess

A

Circumscribed collection of pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 major morphological variants of acute inflammation?

A
  1. Supperative/purulent
  2. Fibrinous
  3. Serous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Common examples of this type of inflammation include: lobar pneumonia, bronchopneumonia, acute appendicititis

A

Purulent inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How would you classify these types of baceria? Sterpt, E. Coli, Pneumonia, N. meningitidis, N. gonorrhea

A

Pyogenic bacteria (promote purulent inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe what happens in pneumonia

A

Pulmonary alveolar capillaries in the walls between the alveoli are engorged with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe what happens in lobar pneumonia

A

Inflammatory response is localized to alveoli immediately adjacent to the fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tracheobroncitis & bronchiolitis spread down the respiratory tract with this morphologic variant of acute inflmmation

A

Purulent inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When a patient tells you he’s been coughing, what should be the first question you ask?

A

Is your cough productive, i.e. are you coughing anything up? What does it look like?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where are you more likely to find fibrinous inflammation?

A

Serous-lined cavities (i.e. pleural, pericardial, periotoneal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is acute fibrinous pericarditis?

A

Fibrinous inflammation – a mat of fibrin coats the visceral layer of serous pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This type of inflammation is characterized by an acute process by which the main tissue response is accumulation of fluid with a low plasma protein & cell content.

A

Serous inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Differentiate between exudate & transudate

A

Exudate: low protein content
Transudate: high protein content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give 2 examples of acute serous inflammation.

A
  1. Burns

2. Pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation (Celus)

A
  1. Redness
  2. Swelling
  3. Pain
  4. Heat
    (5. ) Loss of fx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is salpingitis?

A

Inflammation of Fallopian tube?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is pleurisy?

A

Pleuritis / inflammation of the pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is acute cellulitis?

A

Infection causing inflammation of sub-cutaneous tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is acute cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 3 determinants of outcome of acute inflammation?

A
  1. Severity of tissue damage
  2. Regeneration / stem cells
  3. Type of agent causing damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In total resolution of acute inflammation, fibrin is broken down by ______________.

A

Fibrinolysins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give 2 examples of scar formation.

A
  1. Bone fx

2. Astrocyte formation in brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 3 possible resolutions of acute inflammation?

A
  1. Total resoulution
  2. Healing by fibrosis
  3. Chronic inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the different variations of chronic inflammation?

A
  1. Specific (Immune/non-immune) +/- granuloma

2. Non-specific - non-resolution acute inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why is fibrosis so serious in a virus like HBV?

A

The negative effect is a result of the fibrous tissue, and not necessarily the virus itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are granulomas?

A

Clusters of:

  1. Epitheliod macrophages
  2. Multinucleated giant cells (20-30 cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a classic example of a chronic granuloma bacterial disease?

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A

Outpatching of the colon due to a low fiber diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an example of an autoimmune condition leading to systemic fibrosis?

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the primary components of infliltrate in chronic inflammation?

A

Plasma cells, lymphocytes, macrophages, eosinophils, fibroblasts (replace normal muscle and tissue!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 6 types of anemia?

A
  1. Fe-deficient
  2. Pernicious (Intrinsic factor/B12)
  3. Hemolytic (destn of cells)
  4. Aplastic (destn of marrow)
  5. Hemorrhagic
  6. Thalassemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the difference between the dorsal and ventral tongue?

A

Dorsal - what you see when you stick your tongue out; Ventral- underneath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Differentiate between extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue.

A

Extrinsic- entire tongue moves; intrinsic- flexibility, speech swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What divides the tongue into anterior and posterior parts?

A

Sulcus terminalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the embryologic remnant found in the tongue?

A

The foramen cecum (at the apex of the sulcus terminalis)

Embryologic remnant of thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The 3 major buds of the tongue. State which have taste buds.

A
  1. Filliform papullae (most numerous, flame shape; mechanical fcn)
  2. Fungiform papillae (Taste buds; not as highly keratinized as Filliform pap.)
  3. Circumuallate (Can be seen grossly; with taste buds; lines the sulcus terminalis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 3 cell types in taste buds?

A
  1. Basal/stem cells
  2. Supporting cells
  3. Neuroepithelial cells (sensory - CN 7, 9, 10)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which are the 3/5 taste buds that require a G-protein coupled receptor (IP3–> Ca)

A
  1. Sweet
  2. Bitter
  3. Umami
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which 2 taste buds do not require a G protein?

A

Salty & sour [Have H+ & Cl- channels]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the 4 layers of the GI’s tissues?

A
  1. Mucosa (Epithelium, lamina propria (lymph glands), muscularis internale)
  2. Submucosa
  3. Muscularis externa
  4. Serosa/adventita
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the function of mucosa?

A

Protection, absorption, secretion

47
Q

What is submucosa made of?

A

Dense irregular C/T (usually no glands), Mesiner’s Plexus (enteric parasympathetics)

48
Q

Where does submucosa have glands in the digestive system?

A
  1. Esophagus

2. Duodenum

49
Q

Where do parasympathetics live in the GI tract?

A

Meisner’s Plexus (submucosal plexus)

50
Q

What are the components of the muscularis externa?

A
  1. Inner circular - mixing of food
    - Auerbach’s Plexus (Myenteric Plexus)
  2. Outer longitudinal - propulsion of food
51
Q

What is the function of muscularis externa?

A

Peristalsis

52
Q

What is the function of serosa & adventitia?

A
  1. Serosa: C/T, mesothelium; friction free movement / continuous with mesentary
  2. Adventia: Connects to body walls
53
Q

What are the primary digestive organs?

A

Esophagus, stomach (cardiac, fundus, pyloric), small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, ileum), colon (cecum (appendix), ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid, rectum, anus)

54
Q

What is the esophagus?

A

A tube from the oral cavity to the stomach

Fx: movement of food (which can be partially digested and abrasive)

55
Q

Discuss the 4 layers of esophageal tissue.

A
  1. Mucosa (strat. sq. non keritinized); LP w/ glands, 1 longitundinal muscular layer
  2. Submucosa: dense irregular C/T; esophageal glands
  3. Musc:
    Upper 1/3- striated
    Mid 1/3- mixed striatead & smooth
    Distal 1/3- only smooth
  4. Serosa below diaphragm; adventitia above diaphragm
56
Q

What are the 3 regions of the stomach?

A
  1. Cardiac
  2. Fundus
  3. Pyloric
57
Q

What are the 5 types of cells found in the fundus?

A
  1. Surface mucous - gastric pits (secrete mucous with bicarbonate)
  2. Mucous neck cells - neck (secrete mucous for movement)
  3. Parietal cells - neck (secrete HCl, intrinsic factor for B12 absorption)
  4. Chief cells - base (secrete pepsinogen)
  5. Enteroendocrine cells - base (Secrete hormones into lamina propria; open/closed)
58
Q

Who stimulates parietal cells?

59
Q

What is the function of the small intestine and what are its components?

A

Digestion & absorption of nutrients

  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
60
Q

What are the specializations of the small intestine?

A
  1. Plicae circularis: permanent folds in jejunum
  2. Villi - evaginations (S/A)
  3. Microvilli - S/A
61
Q

Discuss the 4 layers of stomach tissue.

A
  1. Mucosa - simple columnar [musc: inner circular, inner oblique w/ rugae folds, outer longitudinal]
  2. Submucosa - lymph and vessels
  3. Muscularis externale - inner oblique, inner circular, outer longitudinal
  4. Serosa
62
Q

How do we differentiate stomach tissue?

A

By the presence of glands

  1. Cardiac - short pits, short glands
  2. Fundus - short pits, long glands
  3. Pyloric - long pits, short glands
63
Q

Does the esophagus have glands in the submucosa?

A

Yes - Bruner’s glands

64
Q

What covers microvilli?

A

Glycocalyx

65
Q

How do we differentiate between the different areas of the small intestine?

A
  1. Duodenum - submucosal glands (Burner’s)
  2. Jejunum - no glands - pliae circularis
  3. Ileum - Peyer’s patches - lymphatics - M cells
66
Q

What are the 5 cell types of the small intestine?

A
  1. Enterocyte - has microvilli / absorption & secretion
  2. Goblet - mucus –> lumen
  3. Paneth - antimicrobial
  4. Enteroendocrine - hormones
  5. M cell – modified enterocytes (appendix) – antigen transport molecules, near Peyer’s patches
67
Q

Where are broken down proteins and carbohydrates absorbed?

A

Into the blood

68
Q

Where are broken down fats absorbed?

A

Lacteals, the lymphatic system

69
Q

What are the 4 hormones secreted by enteroendocrine cells?

A
  1. CCK - contrxn gallbladder, panc. secretion
  2. GIP - dec. gastric mobility
  3. Secretin - panc bicarb
  4. Motilin - inc. peristalsis
70
Q

What are the regions of the colon?

A

Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, anus

71
Q

What is the function of the colon?

A

Reabsorption & movement of chyme –> anus

72
Q

What are the 3 ways to identify the large intestine?

A
  1. Taenia coli - 3 long bands
  2. Haustra - sacculations
  3. Omental appendices - fat projections on wall
73
Q

What are the characteristics of the mucosa in the colon?

A
  • Goblet cells
  • Enterocytes
  • Invaginations
74
Q

Does colonic mucosa have Paneth cells?

A

No – they would kill the normal gut flora

75
Q

Why are gut flora important?

A

Aid in Vitamin K and Vitamin B digestion

76
Q

What is the main characteristic of the muscular externale layer of the colon?

A

Tinea coli (3 longitudinal muscular bands)

77
Q

How do you differentiate the appendix from the cecum histologically and grossly?

A

No tinea coli

78
Q

Does the rectum have tenia coli?

79
Q

What are the 3 zones of the anal canal?

A
  1. Colorectal, anal transition, squamous zone – keratinized
80
Q

What prevents automatic defecation?

A

External anal sphincter w/ skeletal muscle

81
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A
  1. Produce and secrete bile (exocrine)
  2. Manufacture blood proteins
  3. Detoxification
  4. Storage & breakdown of glycogen
82
Q

What are the parenchymal cells in the liver?

A

Hepatocytes

83
Q

What are 3 interpretations of the liver lobules?

A
  1. Classic hexagonal
  2. Portal lobule (bile centric; triad in the center)
  3. Liver acinus (zones, 1, 2, 3 – zone 1 in immediate zone of the toxic blood supply)
84
Q

In the liver acinus model, cells in which zone are protected from ischemia? Which cells are most prone to toxins?

A

Zone 3- farthest from triad/closest to the central vein, protected from toxic, most impacted by ischemia.

85
Q

What are the components of the portal triad?

A
  1. Hepatic artery
  2. Hepatic bile duct
  3. Portal vein
86
Q

How many nuclei do hepatocytes have?

87
Q

What are the functions of hepatocytes?

A
  1. Storage of glycogen & lipids
  2. Detoxification
  3. IgA release
  4. Gluconeogenesis
  5. Phagocytosis (Kupfer cells)
88
Q

Trace the path backwards from the hepatic vein.

A
  1. IVC
  2. Hepatic vein
  3. Sublobular veins
  4. Central vein
  5. Sinusoids
89
Q

What brings bile to the bile duct?

A

Bile canaliculi (Canal of Herring)

90
Q

What are the phagocytic cells associated with hepatocytes?

A

Kuppfer cells

91
Q

What type of capillaries are found in a liver plate?

A

Discontinuous; no basal connections

92
Q

What is the name of the subendothelial space between hepatocytes and sinusoids?

A

Space of Disse

93
Q

What do we find within the Space of Disse?

A
  1. Fat storing cells (Ino) / Vitamin A
  2. Reticular fibers
  3. Non-myelinated nerves
  4. Short microvilli of hepatocytes
94
Q

What are the principal components of bile?

A
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Bile salts
  3. Cholesterol
  4. Phospholipids
  5. Ions
  6. Water
95
Q

What are the endocrine products of the liver?

A
  1. Glucose

2. Plasma proteins (fibrinogen, albumin, Factor VIII)

96
Q

How do we know we are looking at a gallbladder on a histological slide?

A
  1. False-lumens that result from folding
97
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

Store & [bile]

98
Q

Contraction of the gallbladder is stimulated by this hormone

99
Q

What type of epithelium do we see in the gallbladder?

A

Simple columnar

100
Q

What are the names of the deep invaginations we see in the gallbladder tissue?

A

Sinuses of Rokitansky

101
Q

What are ducts of Luschka?

A

Non-functional cystic ducts

102
Q 
What type of muscle do we see in the gallbladder?
a) circular
b) longitudinal
C) oblique
d) all
A

c) oblique

103
Q

What is responsible for removing H2O in the gallbladder?

A

Microvilli

104
Q

What is the pancreas?

A

Retroperitoneal endocrine (Islets of Langerhan: alpha-glucagon; beta-insulin; delta: somatostatin; PP: polypeptide; gastrin: HCl/parietal cells) & exocrine (lipase, amylase, trypsin)

105
Q

What stimulates acinar cells in the pancreas?

A

CCK (release enzymes)

106
Q

What stimulates the centroacinar cells in the pancreas?

A

Secretin (release bile); the centroacinar cells lead to the intercalated duct, which eventually leads to the pancreatic duct

107
Q

Why can pancreatitis be so severe and painful?

A

Pancreatic lipase & amylase literally digest the pancreas

108
Q

Trace pancreatic juices from the pancreatic duct backwards.

A

Intercalated –> Intralobular –> Interlobular –> Pancreatic duct; the acinar units encapsulate the ducts

109
Q

Differentiate between the pancreas and the parotid gland.

A

Pancreas: exocrine/endocrine, NO myoepithelial cells, no striated ducts

Parotid: exocrine, myoepithelials, striated duct

110
Q

What is a myoepithelial cell?

A

contractile muscle cell found on the surface of some acini of the salivary glands, which is believed to facilitate the secretion of fluids from the gland

111
Q

Sublingual gland

A

Mostly mucous with serous demilunes

112
Q

Submandibular gland

A

Mostly serous

113
Q

Parotid

A

Exclusively serous

Term 1 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions