Hillclimber Study Guide

Question 1

You are flying over an open body of water which is devoid of any visual references when suddenly you are unable to visually judge the aircraft’s true altitude. This causes you to inadvertently begin an uncommanded descent which results in a dangerously low altitude.

This is an example of what type of visual illusion?

Answer 1

Height-depth perception

Question 2

Operational Defects relate to the reliability of the image intensifier and are an indication of instability in the AN/AVS-6.

What are the operational defects?

Answer 2

Shading, Edge Glow, Flashing & Flickering, Intermittent Operation, and Emission Points

Question 3

Aviators must be familiar with high bank angle turn characteristics, anticipate cyclic input results, and apply appropriate control inputs to conduct combat maneuvers successfully.

When flying heavy aircraft in a high hot environment, sufficient time and altitude may not be available to arrest the resultant descent.

A bank angle of 45 degrees requires an increase in torque of what percent to maintain airspeed and altitude?

Answer 3

41.4 %

Question 4

(MOUNTAINOUS OPERATIONS): When flying in a valley, what location requires less power and provides the aircraft a safer flight path?

Answer 4

On the side farthest away from the predominant wind direction, where there is smoother up-flowing air.

Question 5

Life rafts sufficient for all persons on board (see TM 1-1500-204-23-1) are required on CH-47 aircraft during flights ___________.

Answer 5

Made more than 30 minutes flying time from nearest shoreline.

100 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline.

Question 6

Flying in areas where turbulence is forecast should be avoided. However, if forced to enter an area with moderate turbulence, what airspeed should you use?

Answer 6

Vne minus 10 KCAS or to maximum range, whichever is slower.

Question 7

_________ speed is the airspeed range providing the best power margin for maneuvering flight.

Answer 7

Bucket Speed

Question 8

To avoid incursions in the yellow and/or zone of the Cruise Guide Indicator, perform one of more of the following:

Answer 8

Reduce Airspeed

Reduce severity of the maneuver

Lower Thrust

Question 9

When the caution, “DUAL HOOK FAULT” appears, you should:

Answer 9

Manually release the load

Question 10

__________ or anemic, hypoxia is caused by a reduction in blood’s 02-carrying capacity.
Anemia and blood loss are the most common causes of this type of hypoxia.

Answer 10

Hypemic

Question 11

Job stress, illness, and family issues (things that happen externally to us that can impact us internally), are all examples of what kind of stressors?

Answer 11

Cognitive (mental)

Question 12

A false sensation of angular displacement about the roll axis (sensation that aircraft is one-wing low) is what illusion?

Answer 12

Leans

Question 13

When operating in noise sensitive areas, unless required by the mission, all Army aircraft will maintain a minimum ______ of feet above the surface of the following: national parks, monuments, recreation areas and scenic river ways ad-ministered by the National Parks Service; National Wildlife Refuges, Big Game Refuges, or Wildlife Ranges operated by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; and wilderness and primitive areas administered by the U.S. Forest Service.

Answer 13

2000

Question 14

Practice hooded approaches may be made to the decision altitude or minimum descent altitude (MDA) when the aircraft has dual controls and a pilot without vision restriction is at one set of controls. In all other cases, hooded approaches may not be made lower than how many feet AGL?

Answer 14

500

Question 15

Oxygen will be used by aircraft crews and occupants for flights as follows:

Answer 15

On flights above 14,000 feet pressure altitude for any period of time.

Question 16

If no IFR Departure Procedure is published, climb runway heading to _________ above the departure end of runway elevation; turn in the shortest direction of the first filed point.

This procedure keeps the aircraft clear of terrain and obstructions as long as the climb is at ______.

Answer 16

400’ AGL, 200 FPNM

Question 17

This altitude provides obstruction clearance within each bounded latitude/longitude quadrant plus 4 NM as shown on FAA IFR charts. It is intended primarily as a pilot tool for emergencies and situational awareness. It does not provide an acceptable obstruction clearance for the purposes of off-route, random RNAV direct flight in either controlled or uncontrolled airspace.

Answer 17

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA)

Question 18

The Minimum Sector Altitude on the VOR or TACAN-B instrument approach procedure:

Answer 18

2,000FT obstacle clearance 25NM around HNL VORTAC

Question 19

Referring to the VOR or TACAN-B instrument approach procedure, what is the lowest predominant weather you need to file to at Wheeler AFF (Category A) without the requirement of an alternate?

Answer 19

1000ft ceiling - 2 mile visibility

Question 20

You are transitioning VFR above Molokai (PHMK) airspace at 4,000’ MSL, what are your visibility and cloud clearance requirements?

Answer 20

3 SM / 500ft below, 1000ft above, 2000ft horizontal

Question 21

The airspace depiction of KALAUPAPA (PJLU) on the above chart indicates which of the following:

a. Surface based Class E airspace up to and including 700’ AGL
b. Surface based Class E airspace up to but not including 18,000’ MSL
c. Surface based Class G airspace up to Class E, which begins at 700’ AGL
d. Surface based Class G airspace up to and including 1200’ AGL

Answer 21

D

Question 22

The field elevation of KALAUPAPA (PJLU) is:

Answer 22

24 FT MSL

Question 23

This type of Special Use Airspace may contain hazards to nonparticipating aircraft in international airspace.

Answer 23

Warning Area

Question 24

When given “cleared for the option” by ATC, a pilot is authorized to:

Answer 24

Conduct a missed approach

Question 25

IAW USAG Hawaii Local Flying rules, refuelers will not enter the rotor disc until:

Answer 25

Until anti-collision lights are off

Question 26

How many aircraft are authorized in Triangle Sod?

Answer 26

1

Question 27

The ground force commander wishes to conduct operations with his soldiers not utilizing seatbelts during landing to allow for faster egress onto the objective. Which of the following statements are correct to allow this procedure?

Answer 27

The first one-star (0-7) in the passenger’s chain of command is the approval authority for airland seats out operations via memorandum.

Question 28

What do the following graphic symbols indicate:

Answer 28

An enemy armor company counterattack

Question 29

Prior to flight, make every effort to fully charge the EFB. EFB device battery levels must be at least ____ percent for each hour of total flight time, but not less than ____ percent.

Answer 29

10, 50

Question 30

SCENARIO: During a flight in a combat environment, you hear another aircraft report “ANGELS 9”. What does this mean?

Answer 30

The other aircraft is flying at 9000’ MSL

Question 31

________ is an information requirement identified by the commander as being critical to timely decision making (JP 3-0). It is composed of friendly force information requirements and PIRs.

Answer 31

Commander’s Critical Information Requirement (CCIR)

Question 32

Refer to the picture above. Which winch clevis hooks are authorized for personnel lift operations?

Answer 32

2 & 3

Question 33

The most important element of an OPORD is:

Answer 33

Commander’s Intent

Question 34

Due to the lack of rigging procedures, who should be the approval authority for unique sling loads?

Answer 34

High risk approval authority

Question 35

SCENARIO: While conducting planning for an upcoming air assault, $2 informs the aircrews that there are reports of an SA-22 “Pantsyr” located within 45km of the objective area. What type of threat is this system, what munitions does it carry, and what is the range?

Answer 35

Radar Guided / 30mm Cannons and Missiles / 4 km (guns) 8 km (missiles)

Question 36

SCENARIO: While starting the helicopter, after turning “B/U POWER” on, ECL’s in STOP. your CE informs you that you have “88 on 1, and B6 (Soft Fault but abort mission note) on 2”. Your actions should be:

Answer 36

Place to ECL’s in GND, and continue

Question 37

While flying a mission in combat operations, you received the following indication via the Integrated ASE threat display on the HSD page (reference the yellow arrows). What has occurred?

Answer 37

The FWD Left Spiral Antenna has failed and APR-39 is degraded

Question 38

The ASE compass overlay provides the crew with an indication of detected and incoming threats. The picture below depicts which of the following ASE threats symbols?

Answer 38

current radar threat, acquisition

Question 39

Per ATP 3-04.1, During Helicopter Landing Zone / Touchdown Point selection - What is the standard landing point size for an individual CH-47F?

Answer 39

Size 4, (80m / 265ft)

Question 40

SCENARIO: You have been holding for an unknown period of time in a Restricted Operating Zone (ROZ) standing by to insert a QRF element (if needed). What airspeed allows you to get to the LZ the quickest while using the least amount of fuel when called to execute the infil of the QRF?

Answer 40

Max Range

Question 41

What does the number in the TQ AVAIL block on EICAS Page when HOV OVRD is inactive) represent?

Answer 41

This number indicates the 10 minute torque available using the CAAS calculated FAT and pressure altitude

Question 42

North to South Traffic on the TFTA NOE routes is:

Answer 42

Not authorized when Lighting Radio is closed

Question 43

Pineapple Express procedures are:

Answer 43

Enter ACP Pineapple at 2500 feet MSL, proceed direct to WAAF mid-field, remaining west of Wheeler Tower (day) or rotating beacon (night).

Question 44

SCENARIO: You are training NVG EXT Load at HLZ Black. During your patterns, you remain 200’ AHO. What are your VER weather minimums?

Answer 44

3 SM vis, 1,000FT ceiling

Question 45

IAW Local Flying Procedures Multiship Flight lighting is:

Answer 45

Trail aircraft of formations will have anti-collision lighting (minimum upper strobe) lit and navigation/position lights on. Minimum lighting for other aircraft in the formation is anti-collision lighting off and position/navigation lights lit dim.

Question 46

(CAAS 9.4.5 and later) For pre-mission performance planning, ______. maximum authorized for departure and arrival below 40 KCAS, _____ maximum power authorized for cruise flight.

Answer 46

10 Minute Power Available, Maximum Continuous Power

Question 47

DUAL ENGINE FAILURE (ENG1 AND ENG2 FAIL WARNING)

Indications
- Illumination of
ENG1 FAIL
and
ENG2 FAIL
+ audible “WARNING (×3)”
- Rapid loss of NR
- Decrease in TQ, NG, PTIT, and fuel flow on both engines
- Visible flames/smoke coming from engine compartment or fuselage

Immediate Actions

Answer 47

AUTOROTATE
EXT LOAD - JETTISON (IF REQUIRED)
FLT DIR CPL - UNCOUPLED
DAFCS MODES - OFF

Question 48

ABORT START

Indications
- Rapid and abnormal rise in PTIT
- May observe flames and black smoke coming from the engine tail cone

Immediate Actions

Answer 48

ECL - STOP
ENG START SW - MOTOR (IF HIGH PTIT INDICATED)

Question 49

SMOKE AND FUME ELIMINATION

Immediate Actions
______ - ______
__________ - _______
_____ - _____
_____ - _____

Answer 49

A/S - >60KCAS

PILOT’S SLIDING WINDOW - OPEN

HELICOPTER ATTITUDE - YAW LEFT, 1/2 TO 1 BALL WIDTH ON INCLINOMETER

UPPER HALF CABIN DOOR - OPEN

Question 50

ENG FUEL PRESS LO and FUEL LVL (OPPOSITE SIDES) CAUTION

Indications
ENG1 FUEL PRESS
ENG2 FUEL PRESS
and and
R FUEL LVL
L FUEL LVL
+ audible “CHECK CAUTION”
+ audible “CHECK CAUTION”

Answer 50

XFEED SW - CLOSE
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE