25th Aviation SOP Annex A Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of incorporating risk management into the planning process?

A

To identify hazards and implement control measures

This is a fundamental aspect of mission planning.

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2
Q

What are the five steps of risk management?

A
  • Identify hazards
  • Assess hazards
  • Develop controls and make a risk decision
  • Implement controls
  • Supervise and evaluate

These steps help in systematically managing risks.

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3
Q

What do CDRs, AMC, MBOs, and planners need to understand to assess and mitigate risk?

A
  • Crew capabilities
  • Equipment capabilities
  • Mission requirements
  • Enemy situation
  • Environmental factors

Understanding these elements is crucial for effective risk management.

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4
Q

What is the best method of mitigating overall mission risk?

A

Crew selection

Analyzing crew capabilities against mission requirements is essential.

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5
Q

Who has the final mission approval authority for a LOW risk level?

A

Company/Troop Commander (O-3 or MEDEVAC O-4)

This indicates the hierarchy in risk management approvals.

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6
Q

Who has the final mission approval authority for a MEDIUM risk level?

A

Battalion, Squadron, or Aviation Task Force Commander (O-5)

The authority level increases with the risk level.

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7
Q

Who has the final mission approval authority for a HIGH risk level?

A

Aviation Brigade Commander (O-6)

This reflects the increasing responsibility associated with higher risk levels.

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8
Q

Who has the final mission approval authority for an EXTREMELY HIGH risk level?

A

First General Officer in the chain of command

This emphasizes the serious nature of extremely high risks.

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9
Q

What should be referred to for guidance on approval authority?

A

Local policy or operations order

This ensures compliance with established protocols.

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10
Q
A
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11
Q

What is the maximum duty period for all aircrew members?

A

12 Hour maximum duty period

Refer to Safety SOP for MEDEVAC Duty for more details.

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12
Q

Who can request the first duty period extension and for how long?

A

ACM from ATP CO/TRP CDR for up to two hours (<14)

ACM stands for Aircrew Member.

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13
Q

What is the process for the second duty period extension?

A

Requested by ACM from BN/SQN/TF CDR up to two more hours (<16)

BN/SQN/TF refers to Battalion/Squadron/Task Force.

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14
Q

Who approves the third duty period extension beyond 16 hours?

A

CAB CDR

CAB stands for Combat Aviation Brigade.

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15
Q

What is the maximum duty day that a CAB Commander may approve for a BN/SQN/TF?

A

14-hour duty day maximum

See SOP for additional details.

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16
Q

What are the maximum flight hours during a duty period for manned rotary wing during the day?

A

8 Hours Day

Flight hours are regulated based on various conditions.

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17
Q

What is the maximum flight time for a combination of day and night hours for manned rotary wing?

A

7 Hours Combination (D, N, NG, NS, H, W)

NS or NG can’t exceed 6 hours.

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18
Q

What is the maximum flight time for NVD operations for manned rotary wing?

A

6 Hours NVD (NS, NG)

NVD refers to Night Vision Device.

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19
Q

What are the maximum flight hours during MOPP 3 and MOPP 4 for manned rotary wing?

A

3 Hours MOPP 3 and MOPP 4

MOPP stands for Mission Oriented Protective Posture.

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20
Q

What are the maximum flight hours during a duty period for UAS?

A

8 Hours

UAS stands for Unmanned Aerial System.

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21
Q

What is the maximum flight time for UAS during MOPP 3 and MOPP 4?

A

5 Hours MOPP 3 and MOPP 4

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22
Q

What is the process for the first flight time extension?

A

Requested by ACM from ATP CO/TRP CDR for up to one hour

ATP CO/TRP CDR refers to Aviation Task Force Commanding Officer/ Troop Commander.

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23
Q

What is the process for the second flight time extension?

A

Requested by ACM from BN/SQN/TF CDR up to one additional hour

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24
Q

Who can request the third flight time extension and for how long?

A

ACM from CAB CDR for as many hours as required

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25
Q

What is the status of flight simulator hours performed prior to live flight in the same duty period?

A

Cumulative

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26
Q

What is the purpose of the Initial Planning Conference (IPC)?

A

Conducted during course of action development and analysis for aviation missions

Includes air assault or combined arms missions such as movement to contact, zone recon, in contact attack, and SCAR.

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27
Q

Who are the key attendees of the Initial Planning Conference (IPC)?

A

Supported unit and aviation unit personnel, including:
* Assault and scout/attack AMCs
* Aviation LNO
* AHB S2
* AHB S3
* Flight leads
* BN/SQDN AMSO
* Aviation brigade staff personnel

The IPC is the first meeting between the supported unit and the aviation unit.

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28
Q

What should commanders consider if aviation unit staff cannot attend the IPC?

A

Employ LNOs that can operate within the mission command concept

LNOs must be equipped with AMPS and mission planning materials.

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29
Q

What are the responsibilities of the aviation S3 during the IPC?

A

Leads continuous parallel planning in coordination with the AATF S-3

Must follow current doctrine and unit SOP.

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30
Q

What elements should be determined by the supported unit and aviation unit during the IPC?

A

Elements include:
* Task organization
* Number of aircraft required
* Aircraft configuration
* Command and control relationships
* Fighter management cycles
* Proposed timelines
* Parallel planning responsibilities

Responsibilities may include terrain analysis on proposed flight routes and timing.

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31
Q

What does the staff need to review in preparation for the IPC?

A

Review the ground tactical plan or attack/air interdiction plan for:
* Task organization for combat
* Fires
* Scheme of maneuver
* Commander’s intent / destruction criteria

Fires include field artillery, attack reconnaissance, CAS, and EW assets.

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32
Q

What must the aviation staff provide input on for the landing plan?

A

Input includes:
* Desired location(s)
* Capacity and requirements
* Enemy disposition and capabilities
* Unit tactical integrity
* Supporting fires
* Obstacles analysis
* Orientation
* Door gunner fires plan

Focus on fratricide mitigation.

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33
Q

What are the components of the air movement plan developed by the aviation unit?

A

Components include:
* Air routes (primary and alternate)
* Enroute formation
* Terrain flight modes
* Fires
* Suppression of enemy air defense (SEAD)
* Air assault security
* Air movement table
* C2 support for AMC and/or AATFC

Ensures comprehensive planning for air operations.

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34
Q

What input does the aviation unit provide for the loading plan?

A

Input includes:
* Location (primary and alternate)
* PZ markings
* Hand and arm signals
* Hookup procedures
* Troop entry/exit sequence and direction
* Securing equipment
* Assigned seating
* Door operation procedures
* Contingencies
* Spare aircraft

Covers operational details for troop loading.

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35
Q

What details should the aviation unit provide for the staging plan?

A

Details include:
* Planned aircraft arrival times
* Order of aircraft arrival
* Loads requiring inspection or certification

Ensures readiness and safety prior to mission execution.

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36
Q

What acronym do planners use for all mission planning constants?

A

METT-TC

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37
Q

What is the guideline for briefing mission planning constants?

A

Constants should not be briefed unless there is a deviation from the 25th CAB Aviation Operations Handbook.

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38
Q

How should maps be numbered and oriented for quick cockpit orientation?

A

Number them and mark the top of the map with an up arrow.

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39
Q

What are the rotor disk separation definitions for briefing purposes?

A
  • Tight = 1-2 disk separation
  • Close = 3-5 disk separation
  • Loose = 6-10 disk separation
  • Extended = greater than 10 rotor disks
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40
Q

What is the standard rotor disk separation for day conditions during inbound landings?

A

1 rotor disk

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41
Q

What factors should be considered when selecting rotor disk separation?

A
  • Actions on enemy contact
  • Evasive maneuvers
  • Terrain
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42
Q

What is the recommended separation for AH escort aircraft in open terrain?

A

300-500 meters

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43
Q

What is the acceptable distance for navigation planning verification?

A

Within ± 300 meters or 0.2 NM

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44
Q

What is the required accuracy for headings in navigation planning?

A

Within ± 2 degrees

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45
Q

What airspeed should be maintained from takeoff to the release point?

A

70 Knots (Ground)

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46
Q

What is the planning airspeed for a UH-60 internal load?

A

100 Knots

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47
Q

What determines emissions control (EMCON) settings?

A

METT-TC

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48
Q

What is the recommended serial separation for UH-60s?

A

Not less than 1 Minute

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49
Q

What type of flight routes are preferred to mitigate risk?

A

One-way flight routes

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50
Q

What should be avoided in route planning regarding enemy defenses?

A

Known or suspected enemy air defenses

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51
Q

What should be done if heading changes exceed 60 degrees during NVG operations?

A

The AMC/flight lead must brief the crews.

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52
Q

What is the minimum width for plotted routes?

A

At least two kilometers wide

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53
Q

How far should the release point (RP) be plotted from the assault base?

A

3 to 8 kilometers

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54
Q

What should be established when transitioning from movement to maneuver?

A

Checkpoints, observation points, or phase lines

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55
Q

Fill in the blank: Planners will analyze METT-TC for ________ planning.

A

route

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56
Q

True or False: The primary exfil route can be the same as the alternate infil route.

A

False

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57
Q

What color corresponds to RTE MERCURY?

A

Magenta

RTE refers to the classification of the celestial bodies.

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58
Q

What color corresponds to RTE VENUS?

A

Cyan

RTE is used to categorize planets in this context.

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59
Q

What color corresponds to RTE EARTH?

A

White

Earth is represented in a neutral color for distinction.

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60
Q

What color corresponds to RTE MARS?

A

Green

Mars is often associated with a color that symbolizes life.

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61
Q

What color corresponds to RTE JUPITER?

A

Blue

Jupiter is the largest planet and is represented by a color typically associated with vastness.

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62
Q

What color corresponds to RTE SATURN?

A

Red

Saturn is depicted in a color that can symbolize strength and durability.

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63
Q

What color corresponds to RTE URANUS?

A

Yellow

Uranus is often represented in a bright color for visibility.

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64
Q

What color corresponds to RTE NEPTUNE?

A

Black

Neptune is associated with a color that signifies mystery.

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65
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for a UH-60 / AH-64?

A

50 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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66
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for a CH-47?

A

80 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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67
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Operations?

A

100 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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68
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Long Line Operations?

A

125 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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69
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Operations (Short and Long Line) with NVGs?

A

150 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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70
Q

What does METT-TC stand for in relation to landing zone sizes?

A

Mission, Enemy, Terrain, Troops, Time, Civilian considerations

These factors may dictate smaller aircraft separation distances.

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71
Q

Who has the final authority on landing zone size and use?

A

The aviation commander

This is according to FM 3-21.38.

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72
Q

What factors must be considered for external load operations?

A

Hookup team’s equipment, exit direction, location, load positioning, aircraft maneuver areas

These factors affect the necessary space in the landing zone.

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73
Q

What can dictate LZ/PZ sizes and touchdown point locations?

A

Enemy artillery capabilities

This is crucial for ensuring safety during operations.

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74
Q

True or False: Close intervals formations at the PZ/LZ may cause damage to aircraft or injury to ground forces.

A

True

This is due to the risk of being within the blast radius of enemy artillery.

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75
Q

What is the 0.1% probability of incapacitation (PI) distance from a 155 Howitzer?

A

300 meters

This distance is relevant when in a standing position.

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76
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for a UH-60 / AH-64?

A

50 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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77
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for a CH-47?

A

80 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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78
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Operations?

A

100 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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79
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Long Line Operations?

A

125 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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80
Q

What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Operations (Short and Long Line) with NVGs?

A

150 meters

This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.

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81
Q

What does METT-TC stand for in relation to landing zone sizes?

A

Mission, Enemy, Terrain, Troops, Time, Civilian considerations

These factors may dictate smaller aircraft separation distances.

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82
Q

Who has the final authority on landing zone size and use?

A

The aviation commander

This is according to FM 3-21.38.

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83
Q

What factors must be considered for external load operations?

A

Hookup team’s equipment, exit direction, location, load positioning, aircraft maneuver areas

These factors affect the necessary space in the landing zone.

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84
Q

What can dictate LZ/PZ sizes and touchdown point locations?

A

Enemy artillery capabilities

This is crucial for ensuring safety during operations.

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85
Q

True or False: Close intervals formations at the PZ/LZ may cause damage to aircraft or injury to ground forces.

A

True

This is due to the risk of being within the blast radius of enemy artillery.

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86
Q

What is the 0.1% probability of incapacitation (PI) distance from a 155 Howitzer?

A

300 meters

This distance is relevant when in a standing position.

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87
Q

What does AMCM stand for?

A

Air Mission Coordination Meeting

AMCM is a key meeting in aviation operations for air assault task forces.

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88
Q

Who chairs the AMCM?

A

The AATF S-3

The AATF S-3 is responsible for overseeing the coordination of air missions.

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89
Q

What is the primary purpose of the AMCM?

A

To approve the aviation course of action based on the AATFC’s ground tactical plan

The AMCM ensures that aviation operations align with ground tactics.

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90
Q

What percentage solution should subordinate unit S-3s have before attending the AMCM?

A

80 to 90 percent

This ensures that units are prepared to discuss their requirements effectively.

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91
Q

What is the role of the brigade aviation element (BAE) in the AMCM?

A

To coordinate information and run the AMCM

The BAE plays a crucial role in facilitating the meeting and ensuring effective communication.

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92
Q

What must assault LNOs know at the completion of the AMCM?

A

Helicopter loads, landing zones, and sequence of operations

This knowledge is essential for effective air assault operations.

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93
Q

What do scout/attack LNOs need to understand regarding air routes?

A

The air routes to be used

Knowledge of air routes is critical for mission success and safety.

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94
Q

What must all participants agree upon during the AMCM?

A

Tentative air movement table including start and end times of serials

This agreement is vital for planning and executing air movements.

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95
Q

What factors guide the decision-making process in the AMCM?

A

WARNORD and standard planning factors

These factors help shape the operational planning and execution of air missions.

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96
Q

True or False: The AMCM occurs before the development of the ground tactical plan.

A

False

The AMCM follows the development of the ground tactical plan.

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97
Q
A
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98
Q

What does REDCON stand for?

A

Readiness Condition Levels

REDCON refers to the classification system used to report the readiness status of military units.

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99
Q

What must PCs report to the commander/AMC?

A

Their REDCON levels

This reporting enables an understanding of the flights’ overall readiness.

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100
Q

What is the response time for REDCON level 1?

A

Immediate takeoff

REDCON level 1 indicates the highest state of readiness.

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101
Q

What is the response time for REDCON level 2?

A

15 minutes

This level indicates a high readiness status but not as immediate as level 1.

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102
Q

What is the response time for REDCON level 3?

A

30 minutes

This level indicates a moderate readiness status.

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103
Q

What is the response time for REDCON level 4?

A

1 hour

This level indicates a lower state of readiness.

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104
Q

What is the response time for REDCON level 5?

A

> 1 hour

This level indicates the lowest state of readiness.

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105
Q

Which aircraft is associated with REDCON level 1?

A

AH-64

The AH-64 is a type of attack helicopter.

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106
Q

What is the status of the crew at REDCON level 1?

A

Ready for takeoff

This indicates that the crew is fully prepared to engage.

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107
Q

What is the ammunition status for REDCON level 3?

A

Ammo loaded

This indicates that the aircraft is equipped with ammunition but may not be fully ready for immediate action.

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108
Q

What communications equipment must be operational at REDCON level 1?

A

MSN FREQS and internal secure portable radio

Effective communication is critical for readiness.

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109
Q

Fill in the blank: At REDCON level 2, the crew is on _______.

A

standby with comms

This indicates that the crew is prepared but not actively engaged.

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110
Q

What does ‘SYS OFFI’ refer to in the context of aircraft systems?

A

System OFF Indicator

This indicates that specific systems on the aircraft are turned off.

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111
Q

True or False: The CH-47 is an aircraft type listed under all REDCON levels.

A

True

The CH-47 is a type of transport helicopter mentioned in the readiness report.

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112
Q

What does it mean when an aircraft is ‘initialized’ at REDCON levels?

A

Systems are prepared for operation

This indicates that the aircraft systems are set up and ready to be activated.

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113
Q

What is the importance of maintenance in REDCON reporting?

A

Ensures aircraft readiness and operational capability

Regular maintenance is crucial for flight safety and readiness.

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114
Q

What is the purpose of initial communication checks in aircraft operations?

A

To provide the CDR/AMC/serial commander with an assessment of communications capabilities prior to flight.

CDR stands for Commander, AMC stands for Air Mission Commander.

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115
Q

What must PCs report to the CDR/AMC?

A

Any changes to comms capabilities immediately.

PCs refer to Pilots in Command.

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116
Q

What steps should crews take before initiating the commo check?

A

Set all radios to GPS time and check SATCOM, HF, and Digital Comms with the Command Post.

Digital Comms includes BFT, JVMF, and Video Data Link.

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117
Q

Who initiates the commo check and at what time?

A

The Lead initiates the commo check at the briefed time (secure and FH).

FH refers to Flight Hours.

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118
Q

What is an example of a transmission used during the commo check?

A

FM1 (‘Lead on FM 1’)

Variations such as ‘1-1’, ‘Gun 1’, or ‘Scout 1’ are authorized.

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119
Q

What should subsequent chalks do if they do not respond within 10 seconds?

A

The next chalk continues the commo check.

A chalk refers to a specific group of aircraft or personnel.

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120
Q

What does the Lead announce after completing the commo check?

A

Commo check complete or directs troubleshooting as required.

The AMC reassigns duties based on the radio status as required.

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121
Q

What is the significance of conducting rotor stables and post-operations maintenance?

A

It instills pride and ownership and allows an understanding of aircraft capabilities/deficiencies.

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122
Q

What does FM1 typically represent in radio net remarks?

A

BN/BDE CAN or BN CMD, supported unit, LZ/PZ, etc.

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123
Q

What does UHF serve as in radio net remarks?

A

CO/TM Backup internal or ABN (UHF common with AH, UH/CH, and/or FW).

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124
Q

What is the role of VHF in radio communications?

A

ATC/Flight Following.

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125
Q

What does FM2 refer to in the context of radio net remarks?

A

CO/TM Primary company, team/serial internal, IDM.

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126
Q

What does HF represent in communication settings?

A

BN/BDE CMD.

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127
Q

When should SATCOM be used according to radio net remarks?

A

As required, with at least one aircraft within the flight or serial on BDE/BN CMD.

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128
Q

Fill in the blank: The mission will dictate _______ settings.

A

SATCOM.

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129
Q

What determines aircraft lighting settings?

A

METT-TC

METT-TC stands for Mission, Enemy, Terrain and Weather, Troops and Support Available, Time Available, and Civilian Considerations.

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130
Q

During which brief will lighting configurations be discussed?

A

AvOPORD brief

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131
Q

What factors influence the determination of lighting configurations?

A
  • Regulations
  • Mission requirements
  • Environmental considerations
  • Tactical considerations
  • Risk mitigation considerations
132
Q

How should pilots position lights when maintenance support is required?

A

To ‘flash bright’

133
Q

What color should anti-collision lights be during the day?

134
Q

What color should anti-collision lights be at night?

135
Q

In what scenarios can the use of lights be beneficial?

A
  • Lost visual contact procedures
  • In-flight link up
  • Passage of lines
136
Q

What does the command SMASH refer to?

A

Turn on/off anti-collision lights

137
Q

What does the term CLOAK or CLOAKING mean?

A

Switch(ing) from normal or overt external lighting to covert night vision device only compatible lighting

138
Q

What does the command LIGHTBULB refer to?

A

Turn all position lights to bright

139
Q

What is the minimum power takeoff position for lead?

A

Lead set in a position that allows separation for minimum power takeoff for all aircraft in the flight

Lead should orient as necessary to observe the flight.

140
Q

How should all other aircraft orient during takeoff?

A

All other aircraft will orient in the takeoff direction in the briefed formation

141
Q

What should an aircraft do if it cannot make the takeoff time?

A

Advise lead (by exception)

142
Q

What is the TORCH call?

A

Lead will provide TORCH call a minimum 5 second warning prior to departure

143
Q

What speed should lead accelerate to after takeoff?

A

60 KIAS, climbing < 500fpm

144
Q

What should the trail call once the flight is formed?

A

1-1, 1-5, SADDLE, FENCE OUT

145
Q

What is REDCON 1?

A

A status indicating readiness for takeoff, signaled by turning off anti-collision lights

146
Q

When lineup is not possible, what are the two forms of takeoff?

A
  • Simultaneous takeoff from different locations
  • Takeoff when ready in chalk order (TOWRICO)
147
Q

What must aircraft do during simultaneous departures?

A

Report REDCON 1 in REVERSE chalk order

148
Q

What should lead announce when departing?

A

1-1 is UP when the aircraft is up and out of its position

149
Q

What is the proper closure rate adjustment when closing within 10 rotor disks?

A

Adjust closure rate to <10 KIAS above the briefed airspeed

150
Q

What should the preceding aircraft do upon receiving a CLOSING call?

A

Acknowledge with ‘CHALK # is CLOSING’ and display briefed formation lighting

151
Q

What does TOWRICO stand for?

A

Takeoff When Ready in Chalk Order

152
Q

What should an aircraft announce if it experiences a minor state of emergency?

153
Q

What are Fence In/Out Checks?

A

Checks to ensure the aircraft is configured for the mission as briefed

154
Q

What does WAILRM stand for in Fence-out posture?

A
  • W – Weapons armed/safe as required
  • A – ASE and countermeasure dispenser (SAFE/ARM switch) set as desired
  • I – IFF/Transponder mode on as briefed
  • L – Lighting as briefed
  • R – Recorder on
  • M – MPD/MFD/EDM configured
155
Q

What happens if an aircraft experiences significant delays during a TOWRICO departure?

A

Announce chalk position and ‘LAME DUCK’

156
Q

What is the status of a LAME DUCK aircraft?

A

It becomes the trail aircraft

157
Q

What does the term SADDLED mean in formation brevity?

A

Wingman or element has returned to briefed formation position

158
Q

What does CLOSING indicate in formation brevity?

A

Decreasing separation

159
Q

What does OPENING indicate in formation brevity?

A

Increasing separation

160
Q

What does FLOAT(ING) mean in formation brevity?

A

Expanding the formation laterally within visual limits to maintain contact or prepare for a defensive response

161
Q

Who is responsible for weapons release and weapon system status?

A

Air Mission Commander

The Air Mission Commander can delegate authority to each Pilot-In-Command (PC) according to established rules.

162
Q

What does ‘WEAPONS HOLD’ mean?

A

Do not fire except in self-defense or in response to a formal order

This is one of the weapons control measures that restricts firing.

163
Q

What is the criteria for ‘WEAPONS TIGHT’?

A

PC fires only at targets positively identified as HOSTILE

This follows established rules of engagement and directed engagement criteria.

164
Q

What does ‘WEAPONS FREE’ allow the Pilot-In-Command to do?

A

Engage any target not positively identified as FRIENDLY

This is permitted in accordance with established rules of engagement.

165
Q

What is the definition of ‘ARMED’ in weapons status?

A

AH Weapon Activation Switch (WAS) is activated, weapons loaded and aircraft ARM

This indicates the aircraft is ready for combat operations.

166
Q

What conditions define ‘AH SAFE’ status?

A

AH Weapon Activation Switch (WAS) is deactivated, weapons loaded and aircraft SAFE

This indicates that the aircraft is not in a combat-ready state.

167
Q

What does ‘LOADED’ indicate for UH/CH M240H?

A

Weapon is manned, ammunition in feed tray, cover closed, bolt forward, weapon selector on FIRE

This status indicates the weapon is ready to fire.

168
Q

What does ‘STOWED’ mean for the UH/CH M240H?

A

M240H is stowed, ammunition in feed tray, cover closed, bolt forward, weapon selector on FIRE

This means the weapon is secured but still ready to fire.

169
Q

What is the status of the weapon in ‘CLEAR(ED)’?

A

AH Weapon systems are downloaded and SAFE; M240H is stowed, chamber and feed tray visually cleared of ammo, bolt locked to the rear and weapon on SAFE

This indicates that the weapon is safe and cleared of ammunition.

170
Q

What is the responsibility of all aircraft in a flight regarding obstacles?

A

To announce obstacles if deemed a hazard.

171
Q

What should a crewmember do if they first see another aircraft posing a mid-air threat?

A

Call it out if the Pilot on the controls cannot find the traffic.

172
Q

What phrase should a crewmember use when taking controls to avoid a hazard?

A

I have the controls, avoiding bird two o’clock, our level.

173
Q

How should an aircraft in the flight announce a traffic alert?

A

By stating ‘Break Left / Right’ or ‘Climb/ Descend’.

174
Q

What types of obstacles should be considered during evasive maneuvers?

A

Obstacles that are not along the route of flight but may impact evasive maneuvers.

175
Q

Is it necessary for the entire flight to acknowledge every obstacle?

A

No, only if deemed a hazard and asked to acknowledge.

176
Q

What is the hazard classification for ground-based wires or towers over 100 ft?

177
Q

What is the hazard classification for ground-based wires or towers between 50-100 ft?

178
Q

What is the hazard classification for ground-based wires or towers under 50 ft?

179
Q

Provide an example of a call regarding an ALPHA wire hazard.

A

Lead this is trail, call contact on Alpha Wires 500 meters 12 o’clock.

180
Q

What phrase might be used to communicate a Bravo antenna hazard?

A

1-1 this is 1-2, there is a Bravo antenna on the NE corner of the LZ.

181
Q

What should be considered when employing underwire flight as a course of action?

A

Analyze risk versus reward.

182
Q

What is a suggested method for wire crossings?

A

Identify two wire-supporting structures and use distance estimation.

183
Q

True or False: The enemy is always observant to our TTPs.

184
Q

Fill in the blank: All aircraft in a flight should use Map underlays with ________ plotted on them.

185
Q

What must the PC/AMC determine if a flight descends >300’ during the day or >150’ at night from the planned altitude?

A

A course of action must be determined

This is necessary to maintain cloud clearance.

186
Q

What is the action required if a flight slows >20 KIAS during the day or >10 KIAS during night/NVG from the planned airspeed?

A

Determine a course of action

This is due to visibility issues.

187
Q

What are the options to adjust the mission when conditions are met?

A
  • Reversing course
  • Altering the route to continue VFR
  • Landing at the nearest suitable area
  • Initiating an IFR flight plan
  • Aborting the mission

These options provide flexibility to ensure safety.

188
Q

What is the first step for a single-ship IIMC situation?

A

Announce ‘IIMC,’ maintain proper aircraft control, immediately transition to instruments

Immediate action is crucial for safety.

189
Q

What should be done with the attitude indicator during IIMC recovery procedures?

A

Level the wings

This helps maintain controlled flight.

190
Q

What must be maintained regarding heading during IIMC recovery procedures?

A

Maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles

This is important to avoid disorientation.

191
Q

What adjustment should be made regarding torque during IIMC recovery?

A

Adjust torque as necessary to establish a climb

This helps regain altitude safely.

192
Q

What should be done with trim during IIMC recovery procedures?

A

Trim aircraft as necessary

Proper trimming aids in stable flight.

193
Q

What should be adjusted as necessary during IIMC recovery?

A

Airspeed

Adjusting airspeed is critical for maintaining control.

194
Q

Should the crew initiate a descent to recover from IIMC?

A

No, at no time should the crew initiate a descent

This is a critical safety guideline.

195
Q

What is the first step for multi-ship IIMC situations?

A

Announce ‘Chalk # IIMC, [Heading],’ maintain proper aircraft control, immediately transition to instruments

The announcement ensures all crew members are aware.

196
Q

What must be executed as briefed per the AMB during multi-ship IIMC?

A
  • Altitude
  • Heading
  • Airspeed
  • Contact ATC or Controlling Agency
  • Execute Recovery Procedures as directed

Following briefed procedures ensures coordinated recovery.

197
Q

Who will brief recovery airfields and approaches available along the route of flight?

A

The PC

This ensures that all options are considered before flight.

198
Q

What factors does the PC consider when deciding which airfield and instrument approach to use for recovery?

A
  • Aircraft fuel status
  • Equipment
  • Weather

These factors influence the safety and feasibility of recovery.

199
Q

What should flights conduct based on the type of enemy contact?

A

Evasive maneuvers

Evasive maneuvers are determined by the type of enemy contact, including direct fire, EW/Radar, and indirect fire contact.

200
Q

What is the minimum consideration when conducting evasive maneuvers?

A

Mission planning, briefings, and rehearsals

These should address break contact actions and consider formation size, mission profile, concealment, and threat systems.

201
Q

What should flights do if able regarding immediate threats?

A

Immediate suppression

Flights should suppress the threat based on its location, range, ROE, weapons status, and mission.

202
Q

What is important for multi-ship flights when suppressing a threat?

A

Announce actions to the flight

This prevents target fixation that could lead to mid-air collisions, fratricide, or unnecessary ammunition expenditure.

203
Q

How should flights maneuver to avoid contact?

A

Deploy to cover or maneuver out of contact

This involves preventing the threat from maintaining contact and leveraging ASE for concealment.

204
Q

What factors should the AMC consider when developing a course of action?

A

Threat, ROE, Bypass, engagement, and displacement criteria

The AMC should select a COA and execute it, leveraging indirect fires if available.

205
Q

What should the AMC report rapidly and accurately?

A

Contact and the course of action

The AMC should consider impacts to mission timeline, SEAD, and request adjustments as needed.

206
Q

What does ‘OBSERVING FIRE’ indicate?

A

Enemy ground fire observed, not an immediate threat

Example: ‘OBSERVING FIRE 11 o’clock.’

207
Q

What does ‘TAKING FIRE’ mean?

A

Enemy ground fire is an immediate threat

Example: ‘TAKING FIRE 2 o’clock.’

208
Q

What action does ‘SUPPRESSING’ refer to?

A

Immediate suppressive fire to protect aircraft and crew

Used in conjunction with ‘TAKING FIRE’. Example: ‘TAKING FIRE 10 o’clock, SUPPRESSING.’

209
Q

What does ‘ENGAGING’ indicate?

A

Effective fire with the intent of killing the enemy

Primarily used by attack aircraft. Example: ‘Contact, ENGAGING.’

210
Q

What does ‘BREAK [direction]’ command?

A

Perform an immediate maximum performance turn in indicated direction

Default is a 180-degree turn. Example: ‘1-1 BREAKING LEFT.’

211
Q

What does ‘SUPPORTING’ signify?

A

Assuming a supporting role and deconfliction responsibility

Example: ‘1-2 SUPPORTING.’

212
Q

What does ‘DEFENDING [direction]’ mean?

A

Aircraft is in a defensive position against a threat

Example: ‘1-1 DEFENDING WEST.’

213
Q

What does ‘DEFENSIVE’ indicate?

A

Aircraft is under attack and maneuvering defensively

Example: ‘1-1 DEFENSIVE.’

214
Q

What is the purpose of a ‘JINK’ maneuver?

A

Perform an unpredictable maneuver to negate tracking

Example: ‘1-1 JINKING EAST.’

215
Q

What do the terms ‘SLASH’, ‘SHANK’, ‘RUSH’, and ‘SPEAR’ refer to?

A

Classified 2800/2900 tasks for RADAR guided threat

Specifics are classified and not detailed in the text.

216
Q

What is the first step in the disorientation procedure for single-ship navigation?

A

Use the GPS and identify your present position

Quickly identify easily identifiable landmarks with the map within the immediate area of the aircraft or flight.

217
Q

What should a pilot do if they become disoriented in a single-ship?

A

Return to the last known point

Fly a cardinal heading to search for a landmark and find it on the map.

218
Q

In a disorientation scenario, what should the pilot do if they cannot re-orient themselves?

A

Contact approach and request assistance

219
Q

What does Chalk 1 announce if lost or experiencing navigation failures in formation flying?

220
Q

What should Chalk 2 do if Chalk 1 announces ‘CHECK NAV’?

A

Vectors them back on course

221
Q

What announcement is made to initiate formation changes?

A

LEAD announces ‘At my command execute (formation), acknowledge.’

222
Q

What is the response required from all aircraft after LEAD announces a formation change?

A

All aircraft acknowledge in CHALK order

223
Q

What does LEAD announce after the acknowledgment of a formation change?

A

Execute (Formation)

224
Q

What does the trail aircraft announce once the flight is in the new formation?

225
Q

What phrase indicates a lead change request in formation flying?

A

LEAD CHANGE Right or Left

226
Q

What heading change must the departing aircraft make during a lead change?

A

Up to 30 degrees

227
Q

What is the minimum separation required after a lead change?

A

A minimum of eight rotor disks

228
Q

What should the former lead aircraft do after achieving proper separation?

A

Adjust flight path to parallel the formation and reduce airspeed by 10 KIAS

229
Q

What should each aircraft in formation announce as they pass the former lead?

A

Chalk number and ‘CLEAR’ (e.g. ‘Chalk 3 CLEAR’)

230
Q

What should the trail aircraft announce once the lead change process is complete?

A

SADDLED, # of A/C in flight

231
Q

When may the tactical lead change procedure be executed?

A

IAW the TC 3-04.4 Fundamentals of Flight and based on METT-TC

232
Q

What should the lead aircraft call when changing airspeed?

A

Lead calls ‘Accelerating to ________ kts’ or ‘Slowing to ______ kts, acknowledge.’

233
Q

What is the acknowledgment order for airspeed changes?

A

Flight acknowledges in dash order

234
Q

What does ‘CHECK NAV’ mean?

A

Check navigation

235
Q

What does ‘SADDLED’ indicate in formation flying?

A

[A/A] Wingman or element has returned to briefed formation position

236
Q

What does ‘YARDSTICK’ refer to in tactical air navigation?

A

[A/A] Use A/A tactical air navigation (TACAN) for ranging

237
Q

What steps should aircrews perform to regain visual contact?

A
  1. Utilize all digital equipment/tools to gain and maintain situational awareness
  2. Verbally announce loss of visual contact
  3. Announce heading, indicated airspeed, MSL altitude, distance, and bearing
  4. Decelerate to 10 KIAS less than the announced airspeed and coordinate altitude deconfliction
  5. Subsequent aircraft follow procedures to maintain visual contact
  6. Accelerate to an airspeed not more than 10 knots greater than the announced airspeed to rejoin formation
  7. Return to the correct assigned altitude and display appropriate lighting
  8. Announce ‘SADDLE’ when join-up is complete
  9. If unable to regain visual contact, continue mission as two flights while maintaining radio contact

These steps help minimize in-flight collision potential while re-establishing contact.

238
Q

What should be announced on the internal frequency upon losing visual contact?

A

Verbal announcement of loss of visual contact, e.g., ‘Flight, 1-3 BLIND with 1-2’

This communication is crucial for situational awareness among the aircrew.

239
Q

What information must an aircraft provide when visual contact is lost?

A

Heading, indicated airspeed, MSL altitude, distance and bearing from a common reference point

A common reference point can be a planned CP or WP.

240
Q

What is the purpose of decelerating to 10 KIAS less than the announced airspeed?

A

To minimize in-flight collision potential while contact is being re-established

This action is part of the immediate response to lost visual contact.

241
Q

What altitude changes should be coordinated when visual contact is lost?

A

Climb 200’ above or descend 200’ below the announced altitude

This depends on the initial altitude deviance and the threat environment.

242
Q

What should the last aircraft in a large formation ensure?

A

That it is not below minimum bucket speed

This is critical for safety in large formations.

243
Q

What is the procedure for regaining visual contact after it has been lost?

A

Accelerate to an airspeed not more than 10 knots greater than the announced airspeed and announce ‘closing’

This helps in rejoining the formation safely.

244
Q

What should an aircraft do after visual contact is re-established?

A

Return to the correct assigned altitude and display appropriate lighting

This ensures that all aircraft are in their proper positions.

245
Q

What does the term ‘SADDLE’ signify?

A

It indicates that the join-up is complete

This is a key communication in formation flying.

246
Q

What is the procedure if visual contact cannot be regained?

A

Continue the mission as two flights while maintaining radio contact

Link-up should occur on the ground at the next pickup or landing zone.

247
Q

What does the term ‘VISUAL’ mean?

A

Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position or ship

It is the opposite of ‘BLIND’.

248
Q

What does the term ‘BLIND’ refer to?

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship, or ground position

It is the opposite of ‘VISUAL’.

249
Q

What does ‘YARDSTICK’ mean in the context of lost visual contact?

A

Use A/A tactical air navigation (TACAN) for ranging

This helps in determining distances between aircraft.

250
Q

What is the purpose of an in-flight link up?

A

To assist in the establishment of a specific flight formation.

251
Q

When are in-flight link ups used?

A

In an emergency and as a function of mission planning.

252
Q

What should AMC consider if an in-flight link up is not possible?

A

A ground link-up.

253
Q

What is important for crews to maintain during an in-flight link up?

A

Situational awareness of the location of other aircraft.

254
Q

Which digital equipment/tools should crews utilize during an in-flight link up?

A
  • TSD
  • FCR
  • PP request
  • BFT
  • TACAN
255
Q

What will the AMC establish at the link-up point?

A

A common link-up point (i.e., ACP along the route).

256
Q

What does AMC need to determine regarding the arrival sequence?

A

The arrival sequence at the link-up point.

257
Q

What parameters must AMC determine for the first aircraft to reach the link-up point?

A
  • Base altitude
  • Airspeed
  • Lighting
258
Q

How can AMC deconflict the in-flight link up?

A

By distance and time.

259
Q

What should AMC do if METT-TC prevents holding at the ACP?

A

Determine an offset holding to the ACP.

260
Q

What is the suggested altitude separation by stacking during an in-flight link up?

A

Stacking up 200 feet above the ACP.

261
Q

What should aircraft announce as they approach the formation?

A

Their arrival and Chalk #.

262
Q

What should aircraft do once visual contact is established?

A

Descend to the briefed base altitude for the holding pattern.

263
Q

What announcement does the trail aircraft make when it has closed with the formation?

A

“SADDLE.”

264
Q

What does lead do after acknowledging the ‘SADDLE’ announcement?

A

Accelerate to normal en-route airspeed.

265
Q

In what order will aircraft depart the holding pattern?

A

In Chalk order per the AMC’s guidance.

266
Q

What does ‘VISUAL’ indicate in lost visual contact brevity?

A

Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or position.

267
Q

What does ‘BLIND’ mean in lost visual contact brevity?

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft or position.

268
Q

What does ‘SADDLED’ mean in lost visual contact brevity?

A

Wingman or element has returned to briefed formation position.

269
Q

What does ‘YARDSTICK’ refer to in lost visual contact brevity?

A

Use A/A tactical air navigation (TACAN) for ranging.

270
Q

What does PACE stand for in lost communications procedures?

A

Primary, Alternate, Contingency, and Emergency

271
Q

What should aircraft experiencing lost communications follow?

A

The appropriate procedure based on chalk position in formation

272
Q

What should be briefed for mixed MDS missions regarding lost communications?

A

Lost commo lighting procedures in detail

273
Q

What visual signal should be applied during the day for lost communications?

A

Red Strobe Flash visual position lights

274
Q

What visual signal should be applied during the night for lost communications?

A

White Strobe Flash visual / IR landing light or white light

275
Q

What should AMCs consider when using overt lost communications signals?

276
Q

What is the minimum separation required for adjacent or trail aircraft during lost communications?

A

3-disk (5-disk at night)

277
Q

What should aircraft experiencing lost communication do until acknowledged?

A

Continue to apply the appropriate visual signal

278
Q

How should aircraft acknowledge a visual signal during lost communications?

A

By responding with its own lost commo visual signal

279
Q

What order should aircraft remain in unless otherwise briefed?

A

Chalk order

280
Q

What should aircraft experiencing lost commo do regarding visual contact?

A

Must remain in visual contact with an unaffected aircraft

281
Q

What should the flight do if tactically feasible after a lost commo event?

A

Change chalk positions on the ground at the next secure landing location

282
Q

What duties does the AMC reassign as necessary during lost communications?

A

Communications duties

283
Q

What assessment will the AMC make regarding the mission during lost communications?

A

To continue or abort the mission

284
Q

What should happen if the lead aircraft has lost commo?

A

Conduct a lead change after receiving the lost commo acknowledgement

285
Q

What should trail aircraft do when the lead has lost commo?

A

Decelerate and allow spacing for the former lead to join as the second to last aircraft in the flight

286
Q

What does the term ALPHA signify?

A

Beginning mission

Not a joint brevity term

287
Q

What is meant by ANGELS?

A

X000’s ft. MSL

288
Q

What does BINGO indicate?

A

Aircraft requires fuel

289
Q

What does the term BLIND refer to?

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship or ground position

Opposite of VISUAL

290
Q

What does CHECK NAV mean?

A

Off course

Not a joint brevity term

291
Q

What does CHERUBS refer to?

A

X00’s ft. AGL

292
Q

What does CLOAK or CLOAKING mean?

A

Switch(ing) from normal or overt external lighting to covert night vision device only compatible lighting

293
Q

What does CLOSING indicate?

A

Decreasing separation

294
Q

What does the term DIRT signify?

A

Radar warning receiver indication of surface threat in search mode

See MUD and SINGER

295
Q

What does FALLEN ANGEL refer to?

A

Downed aircraft

Not a joint brevity term

296
Q

What is the meaning of FARM in a military context?

A

Helicopter status of fuel, ammunition, rocket, and missile

297
Q

What does FENCE OUT/IN indicate?

A

Set cockpit switches as appropriate before entering or exiting the combat area

298
Q

What does FLASHLIGHT mean?

A

Directive term for helicopter to turn on infrared floodlight

299
Q

What does GIMBAL indicate?

A

AH/UAS Sensor target is approaching azimuth or elevation tracking limits

300
Q

What does LAME DUCK refer to?

A

An aircraft in a minor state of emergency

301
Q

What does LIGHTBULB mean?

A

Turn all position lights to bright

302
Q

What does LOOKING signify?

A

Aircrew does not have the ground or surface object in sight

Opposite of CONTACT

303
Q

What does MUD refer to in a military context?

A
  1. Radar warning receiver ground threat displayed with no launch indication
  2. Radar warning receiver indication of surface threat in track mode

See DIRT and SINGER

304
Q

What does NIGHTMARE mean?

A

Execute briefed formation change

Not in Joint brevity

305
Q

What does NO JOY indicate?

A

Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT

Opposite of TALLY

306
Q

What does OPENING signify?

A

Increasing separation

307
Q

What does REMINGTON mean?

A

No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo

308
Q

What does RIFLE refer to?

A

FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch

309
Q

What does ROLEX mean?

A

Timeline adjustment in minutes

310
Q

What does SADDLED indicate?

A

Wingman or element has returned to briefed formation position

311
Q

What does SINGER refer to?

A

[EW] radar warning receiver indication of surface-to-air missile launch

312
Q

What does SPIKE(D) signify?

A

Radar warning receiver indication of an AI threat in track or launch

313
Q

What does SMASH mean?

A

Turn on/off anti-collision lights

314
Q

What does SPARKLE mean?

A

Marking target by infrared pointer

315
Q

What does SPUR RIDE indicate?

A

Attempt helicopter buddy or self-extraction

316
Q

What does SUNSHINE refer to?

A

Illuminating a target with artificial illumination

317
Q

What does SUPPORTING mean?

A

Unit or element is assuming a supporting role

318
Q

What does TALLY indicate?

A

Sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position

Opposite of NO JOY

319
Q

What does TOWRICO mean?

A

Takeoff when ready in chalk order

Not a joint brevity term

320
Q

What does TORCH signify?

A

Takeoff in 5 seconds

321
Q

What does UP indicate?

A

A/C call sign is in the Air

Not a joint brevity term

322
Q

What does VISUAL mean?

A

Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position

Opposite of BLIND

323
Q

What does WINCHESTER indicate?

A

No ordnance remaining

324
Q

What does YARDSTICK refer to?

A

Use A/A tactical air navigation (TACAN) for ranging

325
Q

What does ZULU signify?

A

End of mission

Not a joint brevity term