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CH-47F > DES Study Guide > Flashcards

DES Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Operational defects for the ANVIS 6?

A

Flashing, Flickering, or Intermittent Operation; Edge Glow; Emission Point Shading

Refer to ANVIS -10 for detailed information

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2
Q

What should you do prior to entering moderate or severe turbulent air?

A

Deselect FLT DIR; Alert Crew; Adjust Airspeed

Decrease airspeed to Vne minus 15 KCAS in severe turbulence or Vne minus 10 KCAS in moderate turbulence

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3
Q

What is the visual illusion most likely to occur in a low contrast environment under NVGs?

A

Structural Illusion, False Horizon Illusion, Confusion with ground lights Illusion, Vection (Induced Motion) Illusion

Refer to TC 3-04.93 for additional details

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4
Q

What altitude should aircrews climb to if they encounter IIMC in Oahu’s TFTA?

A

MSL

The same applies for aircrews conducting terrain flight at PTA

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5
Q

How long should the next aircraft wait before continuing with the COMMO Check if an aircraft does not respond?

A

Approximately 5 seconds

Refer to 25th CAB ANNEX A for specifics

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a required report to Lightning Radio during terrain flight operations?

A

Upon departing the Start Point (SP) of a route

Reports are required upon departing a previously coordinated area and every 15 minutes

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7
Q

What visual signal should a trail aircraft display after experiencing Lost Communications during the day?

A

Flash Visual Position Lights

Refer to 25th CAB Aviation SOP ANNEX A for details

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8
Q

What is the maximum authorized power for departure and arrival below KCAS?

A

10 Minute, 40 KCAS

This is the maximum power authorized for cruise flight

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9
Q

What does an ECU reading of 0D-0A-XX-88 indicate?

A

Engine passes test of hexadecimal displays

XX is the PATN

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10
Q

What threat type is the Igla-S/SA-24?

A

Manportable Surface-to-Air Missile (MANPAD)

Refer to Weapon Equipment Guide for further details

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11
Q

Who is the approval authority for seats out operations in Army aircraft?

A

First one-star in the passenger’s chain of command

Refer to document 95-1, 2-15 (4) for details

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12
Q

What is the requirement for having life rafts on board during over-water flight?

A

Life rafts sufficient for all persons on board are required if more than 30 minutes flying time or 100 nautical miles from nearest shore

Refer to 95-1, 8-11, f2 for specifics

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13
Q

What is profile drag?

A

Profile drag is incurred from the frictional resistance of the blades passing through the air

It provides supplemental, corrective, or exact amplification to the general mission tasking

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14
Q

What is Vection?

A

Induced motion is falsely perceived motion of oneself when no physical motion is actually occurring

Refer to TC 3-04.93 for further understanding

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15
Q

What is the maximum number of aircraft or formations allowed on an NOE route?

A

2

Refer to Local Flying Rules for more information

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16
Q

What are the weather required for operations within the TFTA during the day?

A

500 feet ceiling and 1 mile visibility

Night and NVG require 1,000 feet ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility

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17
Q

What is the definition of a Certified Load?

A

Certified sling loads

Detailed regulations can be found in Army manuals

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18
Q

What is Vection?

A

Induced motion is falsely perceived motion of oneself when no physical motion is actually occurring.

(TC 3-04.93, 9-42)

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19
Q

Identify the below threat.

A

SA-8 Gecko Russian Amphibious (WEG)

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20
Q

What is the definition of a Certified Load?

A

Certified sling loads are those items of equipment and their associated rigging procedures which have completed the evaluation and testing required by the US Army Natick Soldier Research Development, and Engineering Center (NSRDEC) for sling load certification.

(TM 4-48.11, pg 1-1 to 1-2)

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21
Q

What is the definition of a Unique Load?

A

Unique loads are equipment carried on a one time or low-frequency basis, such as telephone poles, artillery targets, or barrier material.

(TM 4-48.11, pg 1-1 to 1-2)

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22
Q

What is the definition of a Suitable Load?

A

Suitable sling loads are those items of equipment and their associated rigging procedures that have not been certified but have demonstrated acceptable static lift and flight characteristics during a flight test.

(TM 4-48.11, pg 1-1 to 1-2)

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23
Q

What is Settling with Power?

A

A condition of powered flight in which the helicopter settles in its own downwash.

(TC 3-04.4)

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24
Q

What are the conditions for Settling with Power?

A
  • A vertical or near-vertical descent of at least 300 feet per minute (FPM)
  • Slow forward airspeed (less than ETL)
  • Rotor system must be using 20 to 100 percent of the available engine power

(TC 3-04.4)

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25
Q

What are the CH47F PTIT limits?

A
  • Maximum continuous = 816°C
  • Maximum for not more than 30 mins = 854°C
  • Maximum for not more than 10 mins = 899°C
  • Maximum for not more than 2.5 mins (contingency power) = 932°C
  • Maximum transient for not more than 12 secs (never exceed) = 943°C
  • Maximum transient for not more than 4 sec (-31 ECU) (never exceed) = 943°C
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26
Q

What is VRF On Top?

A

IFR clearance allowing aviators to fly VFR altitudes, permitting them to select an altitude or flight level of their choice (subject to ATC restrictions) but does not imply cancellation of the IFR flight plan.

(TC 3-04.5, 10-44)

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27
Q

What is VFR Over the Top?

A

Strictly a VFR operation in which the aviator maintains VFR cloud clearance requirements while operating on top of an undercast layer.

(TC 3-04.5, 10-52)

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28
Q

What IFR planning requirements must be met to file to an airport without needing an Alternate?

A
  • Radar is required to execute the approach procedure to be flown
  • The instrument approach NAVAIDs to be used are unmonitored
  • The predominant weather at the destination is forecast at ETA through one hour after ETA to be less than:
    • Ceiling 400 feet above the weather planning minimum required for the approach to be flown
    • Visibility one mile (or metric equivalent) greater than the planning minimum required for the approach to be flown
  • An alternate is not required if descent from en route minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach, and landing can be made in VFR conditions.

(95-1, 5-2)

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29
Q

What is the definition of SEAD?

A

Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses – Activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades enemy air defense systems in a specific area by physical attack and/or electronic warfare (EW) to enable tactical air operations to be successfully conducted.

(ADRP 1-02)

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30
Q

What is the focal point of the Air Assault planning process?

A

Ground Tactical Plan.

(ATP 3-04.1, 5-23)

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31
Q

What is an Air Assault?

A

The movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or to seize and hold key terrain.

(ATP 3.04.1)

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32
Q

What does the circled symbol on the approach plate signify?

A

Signifies that the airport has nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums.

(TC 3-04.5 4-15, 4-56)

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33
Q

What is the minimum altitude that all army aircraft will maintain above national parks, wildlife refuges, and monuments?

A

2,000 AGL.

(95-1, 2-16, d)

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34
Q

What are Class D VFR weather minimums?

A
  • 3 SM Visibility
  • Cloud Clearance 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal.

(95-1 table 5-1)

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35
Q

What is the Max S/E GWT at Cruise on PPC?

A

Max GWT SE value will give you the MAX allowable GWT that will sustain SE flight at the planned cruise PA to be flown for the mission.

(TM -10-2, 9-2 (2))

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36
Q

What is the definition of FADECF?

A

F: Fly the aircraft
A: Alert the crew to the problem
D: Diagnose the emergency
E: Execute emergency procedure steps IAW the FRCs
C: Communicate the plan of action to the crew and supporting agencies.

(TC 3-04.93)

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37
Q

What taxi instructions are Army Aviators required to readback to ATC?

A

Pilots will acknowledge by readback all runway assignment and hold short instructions.

(GP 6-10)

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38
Q

What are three of the seven core competencies of Army Aviation?

A
  • Provide accurate and timely information collection
  • Provide reaction time and maneuver space
  • Destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, or delay enemy forces.
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39
Q

What are four of the eight tasks of the GSAB?

A
  • Air Movement
  • Aerial FARP Support
  • Air Assault
  • Personnel Recovery
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40
Q

What is a Degraded Visual Environment (DVE)?

A

A state of reduced visibility whereby spatial situational awareness and aircraft control cannot be maintained with the same precision as in normal visual meteorological conditions.

Examples include: brownout, whiteout, fog, smoke, blowing dust, snow, heavy rain, sea spray, or low illumination.

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41
Q

What does ‘ANGELS 9’ mean during a flight in a combat environment?

A

The other aircraft is flying at 9000 feet MSL.

(ATP 1-02.1)

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42
Q

What is an Airspace Coordination Area?

A

A three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate ground commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires.

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43
Q

What prescribes arrival times and order of aircraft, ground personnel, and equipment movement to the PZ in an Air Assault?

A

Loading Plan.

(ATP 3-04.1, pg 8-9)

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44
Q

What are the three doctrinal methods for defeating threat weapon systems?

A
  • Threat avoidance (TTP)
  • Threat suppression and destruction
  • ASE system defeat of threat systems.
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45
Q

True or False: The statement ‘You are flying straight and level over a desert environment’ is a scenario that requires further assessment.

A

True.

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46
Q

What are the three doctrinal methods for defeating threat weapon systems?

A
  • Threat avoidance (TTP)
  • Threat suppression and destruction
  • ASE system defeat of threat systems
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47
Q

In the scenario described, which visual illusion may the pilot be experiencing?

A

False Horizon Illusion

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48
Q

Which factors influence physiological responses to heat stress?

A
  • Amount of work performed
  • Physical condition
  • Ability to adapt to the environment
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49
Q

What predisposes a Soldier to heat injuries? Select all that apply.

A
  • Prior history of heat illness
  • Use of alcohol within the last 24 hours
  • Being overweight
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50
Q

What is the upper limit of the Class D airspace surrounding Eastern WV Regional Shepherd Field (KMRB)?

A

3100 ft AGL

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51
Q

What type of special use airspace is indicated by a blue hash-marked circle on the chart?

A

Prohibited Area: Established for security or other reasons associated with national welfare

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52
Q

What does the term ‘Free Fire Area’ refer to?

A

A specific area into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing headquarters

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53
Q

What do the following graphic symbols indicate? A friendly platoon air axis of advance.

A

An enemy armor company counterattack

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54
Q

What should combat identification criteria for air defense include?

A
  • Host-nation restrictions
  • Base defense zone procedures
  • Special weapons systems control procedures
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55
Q

What is the primary purpose of an Air Mission Brief (AMB)?

A

To allow the staff to work through contingencies and refine the plan

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56
Q

What does an ‘Operational Environment’ encompass?

A
  • Physical areas of air, land, maritime, space, and cyberspace
  • Information environment
  • Electromagnetic spectrum
  • Other factors
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57
Q

Which of the following is NOT a core competency of Army Aviation?

A

Endstate and military condition setting

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58
Q

What is NOT a necessary element of an Air Movement Table?

A

It includes the refuel schedule for all lifts if required

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59
Q

Which publication would you reference to determine the difference between the Air Assault Task Force Rehearsal and the Aviation Task Force Rehearsal?

A

ATP 3-04.1 - Aviation Tactical Employment

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60
Q

What is a ‘Serial’ in the context of air operations?

A

A tactical grouping of one or more serials with each serial containing a number of aircraft

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61
Q

Which is NOT an emission control (EMCON) action to consider in a near-peer radar environment?

A

Turning off the radar altimeter

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62
Q

True or False: During NOE flight, the aircraft’s RADAR, IR, and optical signature increases.

A

True

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63
Q

At what distance do 7.62-mm tracers burn out, considered the maximum effective range for area targets using the M240H?

A

900 meters

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64
Q

What does the signal man gesture for during sling load operations?

A

Release the load

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65
Q

Who is generally the senior leader of the largest ground maneuver force?

A

Air Assault Task Force Commander

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66
Q

What is a core competency of Army Aviation?

A

Enable Mission Command Over Extended Ranges and Complex Terrain

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67
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic planning stages of the reverse planning sequence?

A

Ground Movement Plan

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68
Q

What does ‘ANGELS 1’ mean during a flight?

A

The other aircraft is flying at 1000 feet MSL

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69
Q

In the scenario where flight lead calls out ‘Dirt 12 O’clock,’ what are they indicating?

A

They are receiving indications of a surface radar threat, in search mode, at the 12 O’clock

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70
Q

What indicates a surface radar threat in track mode at the 12 O’clock?

A

Receiving indications of a surface radar threat in track mode

Refer to ATP 1-02.1 pg 14 for more details.

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71
Q

What indicates a surface radar threat in search mode at the 12 O’clock?

A

Receiving indications of a surface radar threat in search mode

Refer to ATP 1-02.1 pg 14 for more details.

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72
Q

What is observed at the 12 O’clock?

A

IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) is observed

IMC refers to conditions under which pilots must fly using instruments.

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73
Q

What does the Loading Plan prescribe in an Air Assault?

A

Arrival times and order of aircraft, ground personnel, and equipment movement to the PZ

Refer to ATP 3-04.1 pg 5-11 for more details.

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74
Q

Name the four types of doctrinal personnel recovery operations.

A
  • Immediate
  • Deliberate
  • Unassisted
  • Externally supported

Refer to ATP 3-04.1 pg 8-5 for more details.

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75
Q

What does TOWRICO stand for?

A

Take Off When Ready In Chalk Order

Refer to the Aviation Handbook pg 52 for more details.

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76
Q

What is JSTARS?

A

A United States Air Force airborne ground surveillance, battle management, and command and control aircraft

It tracks ground vehicles and collects imagery.

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77
Q

Which threat weapon system has an upgraded L-band search radar capable of tracking up to 40 targets?

A

SA-22 Greyhound (Pantsir-S1)

This system can engage four targets simultaneously.

78
Q

What is an Air Control Point?

A

An easily identifiable point on the terrain or an electronic NAVAID used for navigation

Refer to ATP 3-04.1 pg 5-8 for more details.

79
Q

What is an Airspace Coordination Order (ACO)?

A

A recurring order implementing the airspace control plan

It provides specific coordination measure details.

80
Q

What is the purpose of an Air Tasking Order (ATO)?

A

To task and disseminate projected sorties, capabilities, and forces to targets and specific missions

Refer to ATP 3-52.1 for more details.

81
Q

What is the maximum speed to maximize fuel over the greatest distance?

A

Max Range

Refer to TC 3-04.4 pg 1-28 for more details.

82
Q

Which publication details the difference between the Air Assault Task Force Rehearsal and the Aviation Task Force Rehearsal?

A

FM 3-04

It contains relevant information for mission planning.

83
Q

What does the signal ‘Hookup Complete’ represent during sling load operations?

A

The signal man gestures to indicate the hookup is complete

Refer to TC 3-21.60 pg 3-10 for more details.

84
Q

Which threat weapon system is armed with the 9M311 ‘Treugol’nik surface-to-air missile?

A

SA-19 Tunguska (2S6M)

This system also has two 2A38 30 mm cannons.

85
Q

What is the Initial Planning Conference (IPC)?

A

A coordinated staff effort where the Air Assault Task Force Commander approves the plan

It is NOT a working meeting but a confirmation brief.

86
Q

What defines an Air Assault?

A

The movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or seize terrain

Refer to ATP 3-04.1 pg 8-1 for more details.

87
Q

What is an Air Movement?

A

The air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment including airdrops and air landings

Refer to ATP 3-04.1 pg 9-1 for more details.

88
Q

What is the purpose of the initial planning conference?

A

To ensure all elements conducting parallel planning are using common information

It addresses impacts from enemy and environmental factors.

89
Q

What is covered in the Air Mission Coordination Meeting (AMCM)?

A
  • Friendly and enemy situation
  • Weather and illumination
  • AATF mission
  • Concept of the operation
  • PZ operations
  • Route overview
  • Cherry considerations
  • LZ Operations
  • Laager plan
  • Attack/reconnaissance/UAS
  • Deception plan
  • Airspace coordination/control
  • Fire support plan
  • FARP plan
  • Contingencies
  • Command and control
  • Proposed timeline

The AMCM results in finalized air movement and landing plans.

90
Q

What is an Air Mission Brief (AMB)?

A

A decision brief from the AATF staff to the AATFC that codifies all planning leading up to the air mission and defines tasks and coordinating instructions for all involved elements of the air assault.

Includes a written OPORD and military briefing. It finalizes all elements of the air assault planning process for AATFC approval.

91
Q

What is central to the air mission brief?

A

The ground tactical plan.

Aviation units contribute by presenting the assault and attack aviation sequence of events.

92
Q

What documents are required for a comprehensive air mission brief?

A
  • Air movement table
  • Communications card
  • Pickup zone diagrams
  • HLZ diagrams
  • Operations sketch
  • Route cards
  • Execution checklist

Each document serves a specific purpose in regulating and coordinating the air assault.

93
Q

What does the air movement table do?

A

Regulates the sequence of flight operations from PZ to HLZ and tracks staging through the landing phases of an air assault.

94
Q

What is an Aircrew Operation Order?

A

A detailed order briefed by the aviation task force headquarters oriented to the aviation-specific needs of the supporting unit for mission execution.

It includes necessary support or logistics functions such as aviation maintenance, aircraft recovery teams, fuel, or ammunition.

95
Q

What is a Flight Lead?

A

An experienced pilot in command who conducts the mission with oversight by the AMC, responsible for leading the flight according to the mission brief and commander’s intent.

96
Q

What are the general flight lead duties?

A
  • Lead mission planner
  • Selection of mission-critical control measure locations
  • Coordinating route timings
  • Management of the planning cell
  • Development of mission-specific timeline
  • Briefing of routes and contingencies
  • Execute selected contingencies
  • Other duties as defined by unit SOP

Flight leads assist in selecting primary and alternate flight routes and HLZs.

97
Q

What is the role of an Air Mission Commander (AMC)?

A

The commander or designated representative who leads a tactical mission involving more than one aircraft, with decision-making authority for elements under command.

98
Q

What responsibilities does an AMC have?

A
  • Accomplish the mission according to the commander’s intent
  • Make final decisions on coordination and employment of elements
  • Understand the scheme of maneuver
  • Employ enabling assets at the correct time and location
  • Maintain situational awareness and submit reports

AMCs must report accurately and often to higher headquarters.

99
Q

What does the SALUTE report stand for?

A
  • S - Size of the detected element
  • A - Activity of detected element
  • L - Location of the detected element
  • U - Unit of the detected element
  • T - Time and date of observation
  • E - Equipment of the observed element
100
Q

True or False: The AMC develops the situation in isolation.

A

False

The AMC must integrate information from operations and intelligence sections.

101
Q

What does AMC stand for?

A

Aviation Mission Coordinator

AMC is responsible for coordinating aviation missions.

102
Q

What is the purpose of sending fuel and ammunition reports to higher headquarters?

A

To synchronize battle handovers (BHOs) for continuous aviation support to the movement to contact.

103
Q

What are BDA reports used for?

A

To update enemy losses and validate the planned enemy force during operations.

104
Q

What does Personnel Recovery (PR) refer to?

A

The military efforts to prepare for and execute the recovery and reintegration of isolated personnel.

105
Q

What is an Evasion Plan of Action (EPA)?

A

A course of action to improve a potential isolated person’s chances of successful evasion and recovery.

106
Q

What does the acronym METT-TC stand for?

A

Mission, Enemy, Terrain and Weather, Troops and Support Available, Time Available, Civil Considerations.

107
Q

What is the first variable in the METT-TC analysis?

A

Mission.

108
Q

What is the second variable in METT-TC?

A

Enemy.

109
Q

What does the Terrain and Weather variable in METT-TC assess?

A

Enemy observation, fields of fire, obstacles, and terrain effects on communication.

110
Q

What does the Troops and Support Available variable in METT-TC focus on?

A

The number of aircraft and other critical equipment ready for the mission.

111
Q

What is the Time Available variable concerned with?

A

The amount of planning and execution time available for the mission.

112
Q

What are Civil Considerations in METT-TC?

A

Areas, structures, capabilities, organizations, people, and events affecting the operation.

113
Q

Identify the weapon system: BMP.

A

BTR – 80, SA – 8 Gecko, 2S3.

114
Q

What is the length of the runway at Kandahar?

A

3200 Meters.

115
Q

What are the five basic plans of the Air Assault Reverse Planning sequence?

A
  • Ground tactical plan
  • Landing plan
  • Air movement plan
  • Loading plan
  • Staging plan.
116
Q

How should Chalk 2 notify the flight of Lost Communications?

A

Flash Visual Position Lights.

117
Q

What is required to be present for the Aircrew Brief?

A

None of the Above.

118
Q

How many no notice evaluations must each crewmember receive per year according to 25th CAB SOP?

A

One annually.

119
Q

What are the seven core competencies of Army Aviation?

A
  • Provide accurate timely info collection
  • Reaction time/Maneuver space
  • Destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, delay enemy forces
  • Air assault ground force
  • Air movement (personnel, equipment, supplies)
  • Evacuate wounded/personnel recovery
  • Enable mission command over long range/terrain.
120
Q

True or False: The Aviation Task Force Commander (ATFC) is typically the maneuver commander in charge of the assault.

A

True.

121
Q

What is the Air Mission Coordination Meeting (AMCM)?

A

The first meeting between the AATF staff, fires, and supporting aviation unit.

122
Q

True or False: Army personnel recovery is the military efforts taken to prepare for and execute the recovery and reintegration of isolated personnel.

A

True.

123
Q

How many hours semi-annually is each aviator required to fly Hood/Weather?

A

3 hours semi-annually.

124
Q

What is the point separating up flow air from down flow air called?

A

Demarcation Line.

125
Q

What aerodynamic phenomenon occurs between 10-20 KIAS that causes the aircraft to roll right and pitch up?

A

Dissymmetry of lift.

126
Q

What type of drag increases with airspeed and is dominant at high airspeeds?

A

Parasite drag.

127
Q

What is the best power margin for maneuvering flight indicated by airspeed?

A

Total airspeed.

128
Q

What type of hypoxia is caused by blood loss?

A

Hypemic.

129
Q

What are the three types of fatigue?

A
  • Acute
  • Chronic
  • Motivational Exhaustion (burn out).
130
Q

What sensory systems are used in maintaining equilibrium, orientation, and balance?

A
  • Vestibular
  • Somatosensory
  • Visual.
131
Q

The most common form of spatial disorientation is:

A

The leans.

132
Q

What is the minimum period of medical restriction from flying duty following any immunization?

A

12 hours.

133
Q

Following blood donation of 200cc or more, how long will aircrew members be restricted from flying duty?

A

12 hours.

134
Q

What is the minimum period of flying duty restriction following any immunization?

A

12 hrs

(AR 40-8, pg 2)

135
Q

Following blood donation of 200cc or more, aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for how many hours?

A

72 hrs

(AR 40-8, pg 2)

136
Q

All dietary supplements, herbal and dietary aids, and performance enhancers are prohibited unless cleared by whom?

A

flight surgeon or APA

(AR 40-8, pg 2)

137
Q

True or False: Height Above Touchdown (HAT) is related to circling minima.

A

True

138
Q

What is the maneuvering speed for a category B approach?

A

91-120 KIAS

(TC 3-04.5, pg 4-21, table 4-2)

139
Q

Which portion of category A approaches can be reduced by 50%?

A

Visibility

(TC 3-04.5, pg 4-22, para 4-90)

140
Q

How many hours of time in a compatible flight simulator can RW aviators apply toward their aircraft flying-hour minimums?

A

12, semi-annual

141
Q

What is the required ceiling and visibility to apply the VFR Kicker Rule?

A

3 SM – 2000 ft MSL

142
Q

What factors affect fatigue?

A
  • Prolonged mental or physical work
  • Extended periods of anxiety
  • Exposure to hard environments
  • Loss of sleep
  • Boring or monotonous tasks

(TC 3-04.93 para 3-60)

143
Q

What are the fundamentals of Army Aviation movement to contact?

A
  • Focus all efforts on finding the enemy
  • Gain enemy contact early with the smallest reconnaissance force within the allotted time
  • Maintain contact and fix the enemy while retaining freedom of maneuver
  • Maintain adequate follow-on combat power
  • Destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, or delay enemy forces

(FM 3-04, pg 3-2)

144
Q

What are the fundamentals of Army Aviation Security?

A
  • Provide early and accurate warning
  • Provide reaction time and maneuver space
  • Orient on the protected force, area, or facility
  • Perform continuous reconnaissance
  • Maintain enemy contact

(FM 3-04 pg 3-30)

145
Q

What is the purpose of air assault security?

A

To protect helicopters conducting assaults and air movement missions

146
Q

What does ARP-39 detect?

A

CMWS, ATIRCM

-10, pg 4-105 - 109

147
Q

What is the maximum effective range against a point target for the M240B?

A

800 meters

148
Q

What is the purpose of an Airspace Control Order (ACO)?

A

Directs the use of joint airspace and details the approved requests for ACMs

149
Q

What is an Air Tasking Order (ATO)?

A

The daily operation order listing all aviation assets directed by the JFC

150
Q

What information does the special instructions (SPINS) section of the ATO provide?

A

Supplemental, corrective, or amplification to the general mission tasking

151
Q

What are the four tenets of Army operations?

A
  • Simultaneity
  • Depth
  • Synchronization
  • Flexibility

(ADP 3-0 pg 3-12)

152
Q

What are the four tenets of Army operations?

A
  • Simultaneity
  • Depth
  • Synchronization
  • Flexibility
153
Q

What is a decisive operation?

A

The operation that directly accomplishes the mission and is the focal point of the entire operation.

154
Q

What is the purpose of a shaping operation?

A

To create and preserve conditions for the success of the decisive operation through effects on the enemy, other actors, and the terrain.

155
Q

What characterizes a sustaining operation?

A

It enables the decisive or shaping operations by generating and maintaining combat power.

156
Q

What are the three types of operations in Army operations?

A
  • Decisive operations
  • Shaping operations
  • Sustaining operations
157
Q

True or False: Sustaining operations focus externally on the enemy.

A

False

158
Q

What are the six warfighting functions?

A
  • Command and control
  • Movement and maneuver
  • Intelligence
  • Fires
  • Sustainment
  • Protection
159
Q

What is the command and control warfighting function?

A

Related tasks and a system that enable commanders to synchronize and converge all elements of combat power.

160
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ warfighting function is concerned with moving and employing forces to achieve a position of relative advantage over the enemy.

A

[Movement and maneuver]

161
Q

What does the fires warfighting function encompass?

A

Related tasks and systems that create and converge effects in all domains against the adversary.

162
Q

What are important considerations when developing an Air Movement Plan?

A
  • Air routes
  • En route formations
  • Terrain flight modes
  • Fires
  • Suppression of enemy air defense
  • Air assault security
  • Mission command
163
Q

What is an Air Movement Table?

A

A document that ensures all personnel, equipment, and supplies are accounted for in the movement and that each aircraft is fully loaded and directed to the right landing zone.

164
Q

What does the air movement table contain?

A
  • Aircraft allocations
  • Number and type of aircraft in each serial
  • Departure point
  • Route to loading area
  • Loading, liftoff, and landing times
165
Q

What is a serial in the context of air movement?

A

A tactical grouping of two or more aircraft under the control of a serial commander.

166
Q

True or False: The landing zone time refers to the time the serial lands in the landing zone.

A

True

167
Q

What does the protection warfighting function aim to do?

A

Preserve the force so the commander can apply maximum combat power to accomplish the mission.

168
Q

What is the purpose of sustaining operations?

A

To determine endurance, tempo, and operational reach.

169
Q

What happens if sustaining operations fail?

A

Results in mission failure.

170
Q

What is the role of commanders during decisive, shaping, and sustaining operations?

A
  • Maintain positions of relative advantage
  • Integrate operations with unified action partners
  • Ensure continuity throughout operations
171
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ warfighting function provides support and services to ensure freedom of action.

A

[Sustainment]

172
Q

What does the term ‘shaping operations’ refer to?

A

Operations that set conditions for the success of the decisive operation.

173
Q

What does the term ‘CALL SIGN’ refer to?

A

A unique identifier for an aircraft in the air

Not a joint brevity term.

174
Q

What is ‘VISUAL’ in aviation terminology?

A

Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position

Opposite of BLIND.

175
Q

What does ‘ZULU’ signify?

A

End of mission

Not a joint brevity term.

176
Q

What is the default action for a ‘BREAK’ command?

A

Perform an immediate maximum performance turn in the indicated direction

Default is a 180-degree turn.

177
Q

Define ‘DEFENDING’ in aviation context.

A

Aircraft is in a defensive position and maneuvering with reference to a surface-to-air missile threat.

178
Q

What does ‘DEFENSIVE’ indicate?

A

Aircraft is under attack, maneuvering defensively, and unable to ensure deconfliction or mutual support.

179
Q

What does ‘DIRT’ refer to?

A

Radar warning receiver indication of surface threat in search mode.

180
Q

What does ‘ENGAGED’ mean when called from an aircraft?

A

A call from an aircraft maneuvering in the visual arena to relinquish communication responsibilities.

181
Q

What is a ‘FALLEN ANGEL’?

A

A downed aircraft.

182
Q

What does ‘NAKED’ signify in radar terms?

A

No radar warning indications.

183
Q

What is indicated by ‘SINGER’?

A

Radar warning receiver indication of surface-to-air missile launch.

184
Q

What does ‘SPUR RIDE’ refer to?

A

Attempt by a helicopter buddy or self-extraction team to attach themselves to the outside of the helicopter.

185
Q

Define ‘SUPPORTING’ in mission context.

A

Unit is assuming a supporting role and is in a position to influence the outcome.

186
Q

What does ‘BLIND’ mean in aviation communication?

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft or ground unit

Opposite of VISUAL.

187
Q

What does ‘CONTACT’ mean?

A

Acknowledges sighting a specified reference point either visually or via sensor.

188
Q

What does ‘LOOKING’ indicate?

A

The aircrew does not have the ground object reference point or target in sight.

189
Q

What is ‘NOJOY’ in military terminology?

A

Aircrew does not have visual contact with the target.

190
Q

Fill in the blank: ‘The main axis of activity in military operations is referred to as _______.

A

[key learning term]

CH-47F (8 decks)

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