Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Pathology > Hemostasis > Flashcards

Hemostasis Flashcards

1
Q

What is involved in primary hemostasis?

A

Platelets

Vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is involved in secondary hemostasis or coagulation?

A

Coagulation factors

Vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is involved in tertiary hemostasis or fibrinolysis?

A

Fibrinolytic molecules

Vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are platelets?

A

Small fragments of megakaryocyte cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the composition of platelets

A

Phospholipid membrane with glycoproteins
Open canalicular system of membrane invaginations
Cytoskeleton is a peripheral microtubule ring and is made of actin and mysoin
Tubular system of ER
α-granules
Dense granules
Glycogen and mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of the platelet membrane?

A

Coagulation and cell to cell interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of the open canalicular system of membrane invaginations in platelets?

A

Substance trafficking between platelet and plasma

Increase platelet surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the tubular system of ER in platelets do?

A

Stores Ca for platelet activation and thromboxane production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do α-granules play a role in?

A

Hemostasis

Angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the dense granules in platelets?

A 
Ca
Mg
ADP
ATP
Serotonin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do glycogen and mitochondria do for platelets?

A

Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What plays a role in megakaryopoiesis and thrombopoiesis?

A

Thrombopoietin and other cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where do megakaryopoiesis and thrombopoiesis occur?

A

Bone marrow
Spleen
Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens with megakaryopoiesis and thrombopoiesis?

A

Platelets are released directly into the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is thrombopoietin made?

A

Hepatocytes (dog)
Renal tubular epithelium
BM stromal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is TPO expressed?

A

Constitutively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the plasma concentration of TPO dependent on?

A

MPL receptor numbers present in platelets and megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does inflammation/IL-6 impact TPO?

A

IL-6 leads to TPO expression in the BM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are reticulated platelets?

A

Young platelets
Increased RNA
Less than 24 hours in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the concentration of platelets depend on?

A 
Production
Consumption
Destruction
Shift/sequestration
Dilution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the methods of evaluating platelets?

A

Blood smear
Blood sample
Platelet count
Mean platelet volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe a blood smear for platelet evaluation

A

Platelet estimation

Morphologic abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe a blood sample for platelet evaluation

A

EDTA (not heparin)
Citrate, theophylline, dipyridamole, and adenosine (CTAD tubes) may be useful for cats
8 hours at RT and 48 hours at 4 deg C
Check for platelet clumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What can be used for platelet count for platelet evaluation?

A

Impedance counters
Optical or layer flow cytometers
QBC
Hemocytometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe mean platelet volume for platelet evaluation

A

Varies between analyzer, anticoagulant, and storage time

Presence of cell fragments and large platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the concentration of platelets like when there is thrombocytopenia?

A

Concentration is lower than the LRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What breeds a predisposed to thrombocytopenia?

A

Greyhounds

Shiba Inus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does thrombocytopenia reflect?

A

A pathologic process, it is not a diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is present if the thrombocytes are less than 30,000/μL?

A 
Petechiae and ecchymosis
Mucosal bleeding (epistaxis, hematochezia, melena), hematuria, and hyphema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are causes of pseudo-thrombocytopenia?

A

Not all of the platelets were counted
In vitro platelet activation or aggregation
Presence of large platelets in impedance counters
Cold agglutinins, or anticoagulant-induce, antibody mediated agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a thrombocytopenia shift/sequestration?

A

Reversibly distributed platelets in vascular systems (spleen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does thrombocytopenia shift/sequestration result in?

A

Mild or moderate thrombocytopenia
Splenomegaly
Severe hypothermia
Endotoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are causes of decreased production of platelets?

A 
Generalized BM or MK-specific process
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia of CKCS
Drugs (predictable and dose-dependent; idiosyncratic)
Infectious
Marrow replacement (myelophthisis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What infections caused decreased production of platelets?

A

Direct infection of MK (BVD and canine distemper)
Myelosuppressive cytokinesm (EIA)
Unclear (parvo, canine monocytic ehrlichiosis)
FeLV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What kinds of marrow replacement cause decreased production of platelets?

A

Bone marrow neoplasia

Myelonecrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the cause of platelet destruction?

A

Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (IMT)
Drug induced IMT
IMT associated to infection
Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is found with IMT?

A

Platelet surface-associated immunoglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What happens to platelets with IMT?

A

Destruction by MPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does IMT result from?

A

Defective immune system

Defective platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe idiopathic or primary IMT

A

Not associated to a detected disease
It could be autoimmune
Common in dogs
Ab may target MKs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosis of drug induced IMT?

A

PSAIg present
Plasma Ab bind in vitro to platelets only in presence of the drug
Resolution after drug is discontinued
Relapse after drug is reintroduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are drugs that can cause drug induced IMT?

A

Gold salts, sulfonamides (dogs)
Methimazole and proplyrhiouracil (cats)
Penicillin and TMS (horses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are infections that can cause IMT?

A 
Acute canine ehrlichiosis
Other Ehrlichia and Anaplasma
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Histoplasmosis, Leishmaniasis
Distemper or modified virus vaccination
Equine infectious anemia
Babesiosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What must neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia be differentiated from?

A

Other causes especially sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe IMT caused by neoplasia

A

May include immunologic mechanisms

Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Descibe IMT caused by systemic immune mediated disease (i.e. SLE)

A

SLE: evidence of increase PSAIg

Evan’s syndrome: IMHA with IMT described in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What can cause thrombocytopenia dilution?

A 
Blood loss (acute and severe)
Hemodilution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe thrombocytopenia associated with blood loss

A

Thrombocytopenia could be due to consumption

Mild to moderate and self-limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are causes of thrombocytopenia via consumption?

A

Platelet activation with accelerated consumption or use
Disseminated intravascaulr coagulation (DIC)
Drugs or foreign material
Evenomation
Vasculitis or endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What results from platelet activation with accelerated consumption or use?

A

Localized intravascular coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a potent platelet activator?

A

Thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe idiopathic thrombocytopenia of CKCS

A

Congenital
Common in the breed
Macrothrombocytopenia
No clinical bleeding problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is thrombocytopenia do to infectious causes frequently associated to?

A

Endotoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are bacteria that can cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Ehrlichia and Anaplasma spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a fungi that can cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Histoplasma spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are protozoa that can cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Leishmania, Babesia, and Theileria spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How do infectious causes result in decreased platelet production?

A

Direct infection
Immune suppression
BM inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How does Anaplasma platys cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Infect platelets
Clinical or subclinical
Mild parasitemia
PCR diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What neoplasma can cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Carcinomas
Sarcomas
Lymphomas
Leukemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How do neoplasms cause decreased production of platelets?

A

Myelophthisis
Myelodysplasia
Estrogen secretion
Chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How do neoplasms cause consumtpion of platelets?

A

DIC

Vasculitis or thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do neoplasms cause destruction of platelets?

A

Secondary IMT

Hemorrhage, sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How do neoplasms cause sequestration of platelets?

A

Splenomegaly or heptomegaly

Organ congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How does hypophosphatemia cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Hyperalimentation
Decreased platelet survial
Decreased platetlet ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does anaphylaxis cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Mechanism incompletely characterized
Inflammatory mediators
DIC
Immune-complex interaction with platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is thrombocytosis?

A

Platelet concentration greater than URL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What can cause thrombocytosis?

A

Redistribution or increased production (hemic neoplasias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the cause of physiologic thrombocytosis?

A

Redistribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What causes an increased production of platelets?

A 
Inflammation (IL-6 induced TPO production)
Nonhemic malignant neoplasia
Iron deficiency
Vinca alkaloids
Rebound (recovery from thrombocytopenia)
Postsplenectomy
Blood loss
Hypercortisolemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the functions of platelets?

A 
Primary hemostatic plug
Adhesion
Aggregation
Degranulation
Facilitation of coagulation
Clot retratction
71
Q

How do platelets cause adhesion?

A

Perturbed endothelium or exposed subendothelium

Via vWF binding to GPIb

72
Q

What are the agonists that cause aggregation with platelets?

A

ADP
Collagen
PAF
Thrombin

73
Q

What are the high affinity sites for cagulation?

A

Enzymes
Cofactors
Zymogen

74
Q

What is involved with the contractile process of clot retraction?

A

Activated platelets
GPαIIbβ3 via fibrinogen
Actin and myosin

75
Q

What is the standardized primary hemostasis test?

76
Q

What is the BMBT procedure?

A

Small cut that is 5 mm x 1 mm of the upper lip
Start timing when the cut is made (1-5 minutes)
Remove excess blood with a filter paper without disturbing the cut
The end point is when no blood is transferred to the filter paper

77
Q

What can BMBT detect?

A

Only moderate to marked primary hemostasis defects

78
Q

What could it mean if BMBT is prolonged (>4-5 minutes)?

A 
Thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopathia (platelet dysfunction)
vWD
Anemia
Vascular disease
Antiplatelet drugs
Afibrinogenemia
79
Q

What is von Willebrand Factor responsible for?

A

Platelet adhesion

Platelet aggregation

80
Q

What is vWF produced by?

A

Endothelial cells

81
Q

What does vWF from with Factor VIII?

A

Noncovalant complexes

82
Q

What is the purpose of the noncovalent complexes formed by vWF and factor VIII?

A

It is protective and a stabilizer for factor VIII

83
Q

What is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder of dogs?

A

von Willebrand disease

84
Q

What is type 1 vWD?

A

All vWF multimers are present in decreased concentration

Dioberman Pinchers and many other breeds

85
Q

What is type 2 vWD?

A

Deficiency of vWF with disproportionate decrease of large multimers
German Shorthaired Pointers, German Wiredhaired Pointers, and horses

86
Q

What is type 3 vWD?

A

Absence of all multimers

Chesapeaks Bay Retrievers, Dutch Kooikers, Scottish Terriers, Shetland Sheepdogs

87
Q

What are the clinical and lab findings of vWD?

A 
Mild to severe mucosal bleeding
Hemarthrosis and hematomas in horses
Absence of petechiae
Prolonged BMBT
Possibly decreased PTT due to decrease of factor VIII
88
Q

What should be used to analyze vWF?

A

Sodium citrate or EDTA

89
Q

How long is the vWF antigen stable at room temperature?

90
Q

What is coagulation?

A

Interconnected series of reactions that forms thrombin, which converts soluble fibrinogen into soluble fibrin

91
Q

What are the enzymatic factors involved in coagulation produced by?

A

Hepatocytes

92
Q

What enzymatic facotrs are vitamin k dependent?

A

2, 7, 9, and 10

93
Q

Which enzymatic factor is sex-linked (x chromosome)?

94
Q

What are the nonenzymatic factors involved in coagulation?

A

Tissue factor
Fibrinogen
FV and FVIII (cofactors)

95
Q

What is tissue factor?

A

Cofactor for FVII

Major activator of coagulation in vivo

96
Q

What is fibrinogen?

A

Positive acute phase protein produced by hepatocytes

97
Q

What are FV and FVIII (cofactors)?

A

Markedly accelerate coagulation

Facilitates surface attachment of other factors

98
Q

Which nonenzymatic factor is sex-linked?

99
Q

When are FV and FVIII consumed?

A

During coagulation

100
Q

What is the extrinsic pathway initiated by?

A

Tissue factor that activated factor VII

101
Q

What does the extrinsic pathway initiate?

A 
Common pathway (factor X)
Intrinsic pathway (factor 9)
102
Q

What is the extrinisc pathway important in?

A

Initiating thrombin generation

103
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway initiated by?

A

HMWK, PK, and factor 12 contacting negatively charged surfaces

104
Q

What does the intrinsic pathway start?

A

Common pathway by activating factor 10

105
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway inhibited by?

A

ATIII (2, 9, 10, 11)

106
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway activated by?

A

Factor 7a, which activates factor 9

107
Q

What does thrombin activate in the intrinsic pathway?

A

Factors 5, 8, and 11

108
Q

What is the common pathway initiated by?

A

Activation of factor 10

109
Q

What does the common pathway lead to?

A

Formation of thrombin from prothrombin

110
Q

What does thrombin do in the common pathway?

A

Forms fibrin monomers and them multimers cross linked by factor XIIIA

111
Q

What is the common pathway inhibited by?

112
Q

What is antithrombin 3 produced by?

A

Hepatocytes

113
Q

What does AT3 do?

A

Binds, inactivates and removes coagulation factors (most importantly 2a, 9a, and 10a)

114
Q

What is AT3 markedly enhanced by?

115
Q

What kind of sample is needed to determine the ACT (activated coagulation/clotting time)?

A

Whole blood

116
Q

What is ACT?

A

Screening coagulation test that evaluates surface activation (intrinsic and common)

117
Q

What can increase the ACT?

A

Thrombocytopenia

118
Q

What can ACT be used to monitor?

A

Heparin therapy

119
Q

What does the activated partial thromboplastic time (aPTT) screen for?

A

Intirinsic and common pathways

120
Q

What is the sample needed for aPTT?

A

Citrated blood (plasma)

121
Q

What does prothrombin time screen for?

A

Extrinsic and common pathways

122
Q

What is the samples needed for prothrombin time?

A

Citrated blood (Plasma)

123
Q

What does PT test?

A

Ca, phospholipids, and TF

124
Q

What does thrombin time asses?

A

Transformation of fibrinogen in fibrin without the interference of thrombin generation

125
Q

What is the sample neededfor thrombin time?

A

Citrated blood (plasma)

126
Q

What is the test done for TT?

A

Thrombin is added to the sample

127
Q

What does it mean if there is prolonged time with a TT?

A 
Hypofibrinogenemia or afibrinogenemia
Increased consumption, localized coagulation, or DIC
Hereditary deficiency
Dysfibrinogenemia
Heparinized sample
Increased FDPs
Paraproteinemia
128
Q

What are proteins induced by vitamin K antagonism (PIVKA)?

A

Incomletely carboxylated vit K dependednt factors

Due to antagonism, deficiency, absence of vit K

129
Q

What is used to test PIVKA?

A

Thrombotest PT

130
Q

What is a thrombotest PT?

A

A modified PT test with added FV and fibrinogen so that it detects activity of factors 2, 7, and 10

131
Q

What does it mean if the thrombotest PT is prolonged?

A

VitK antagoism or deficiency
Other acquired and hereditary coagulopathies
Cats with hepatic, biliary, or inflammatory bowel diseases
Heparin

132
Q

What does it mean if there is decreased ATIII activity?

A

Hypercoagulable states
Decreased production
Loss due to protein-losing nephropathy or severe hemorrhage
Consumption (DIC, spesis, heparin)

133
Q

What does it mean if there is decreased ATII?

A

Decreased production
Loss due to protein losing nephropathy
Consumption (DIC, sepsis, heparin)

134
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

Enzymatic degradation of fibrin

135
Q

What does fibrinolysis counteract?

A

Coagulation

136
Q

When is fibrinolysis initiated?

A

At the same time as coagulation

137
Q

Where does fibrinolysis happens?

A

On the hemostatic plug

138
Q

What does plasmin do?

A

Degrades fibrin, fibrinogen, FVa, FVIIIa, vWF, HMWK

139
Q

What is plasmin inhibited by?

A

Plasmin inhibitor

140
Q

What is plasmin cleared by?

141
Q

What is plasmin activated by?

A

tissue-plasminogen activator

142
Q

What is used to assess fibrinolysis?

A

Fibrin and fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs)

143
Q

What are FDPs cleared by?

A

Lvier
Phagocytes
Kidneys

144
Q

What are effects of increased FDPs?

A

Prolonged PT, aPTT, TT, ACT
Impairs platelet function
Compete with fibrinogen for thrombin
Compete with fibrinogen for paltelet binding sites
Associate with fibrin monomers and may disrupt polymerization

145
Q

What do FDPs detect?

A

Increased fibrinolysis due to excessive coagualtion

May also detect increased fibrinogenolysis

146
Q

What is the sample needed to look at FDPs?

A 
Serum: special tubes with thrombin or Botrox atrox venom
Citrated plasma (24 hours at 4 deg C)
147
Q

What are interpretive considerations (false results) of FDPs?

A

Serum samples: FDPs incorporated into the clots
Generation of FDPs during blood collection
Unspecificty of test

148
Q

What are interpretive considerations (increased) of FDPs?

A 
Higher concentration in equine neonates
Localized intravascular coagualtion
DIC
Sepsis and inflammatory conditions
Hemorrhagic fluid from body cavities
Hyperplasminemia leading to increased fibrinolysis
149
Q

What does D-dimer detect?

A

Increased fibrinolysis due to excessive coagulation

Factor 13a cross-linked fibrin

150
Q

What is the sample used for D-dimer?

A

Citrated plasma

151
Q

What can biopsy and histology of blood vessels show?

A

Vasculitis and thrombosis

Diseases involving small vessels

152
Q

How can you diagnose vessel disorders?

A

Gross examination
Serology
Imagining
Biopsy

153
Q

What are causes of large vessel disorders?

A

Surgical and nonsurgical traumas
Invasion
Aneurysms
Anomalies

154
Q

What are causes of small vessel disorders?

A

Vasculitis

Vasculopathies

155
Q

What are examples of blood disorders?

A

Impaired primary hemostatsis
Impaired secondary hemostasis
Excessive fibrinolysis: DIC and come envenomations

156
Q

What is the bleeding pattern seen with a primary hemostasis problem or small vessels?

A

Petechiae and ecchymosis

Hemorrhages through mucosal surfaces

157
Q

What is the bleeding pattern seen with a secondary hemostasis problem?

A

Subcutaneous hematomas and hemorrhage into blood cavities

Hemorrhages through mucosal surfaces

158
Q

What are some predisposing factors to bleeding disorders?

A

Breed: might help diagnose inherited diseases
Age: young, prompt inherited
Gender: hemophilia A F8 deficiency and Hemophilia B F9 deficiency, males are not carries only affects; females can be carriers or affected

159
Q 
What is the diagnosis?
PT= WRI
PTT= WRI
FDPs= WRI
TT= WRI
Platelets= WRI
BMBT= Prolonged
A

Functional platelet problem: vWD or thrombopathia

160
Q 
What is the diagnosis?
PT= WRI
PTT= WRI
FDPs= WRI
TT= WRI
Platelets= decreased
BMBT= Prolonged
A

Thrombocytopenia with or without platelet functional problems

161
Q 
What is the diagnosis?
PT= Prolonged
PTT= Prolonged
FDPs= WRI
TT= Prolonged
Platelets= WRI
BMBT= WRI or Prolonged
A

Hepatic disease

162
Q

What does hepatic disease cause defects in?

A

Production and clearing of procoagulants, anticoagulants, profibrinolytics, and antifibrinolytics

163
Q

What tests determine hepatic disease and what is the result?

A

PT, aPTT, TT, ACT: Decreased production
FDPs and D-dimers: decreased clearance, intravascular coagualtion
Thrombocytopenia: sequestration, decreased production
BMBT: thrombocytopenia, thrombopathia
Fibrinogen, ATIII: decreased production, consumption

164
Q 
What is the diagnosis?
PT= WRI
PTT= Prolonged
FDPs= WRI
TT= WRI
Platelets= WRI
BMBT= WRI
A

Acquired: hepatic disease, heparin contamination, heparin therapy, VitK antagonism
Inherited: hemophilias A and B F11 deficiency

165
Q 
What is the diagnosis?
PT= Prolonged
PTT= WRI
FDPs= WRI
TT= WRI
Platelets= WRI
BMBT= WRI
A

Hepatic or heptobiliary disease, VitK antagonism

166
Q 
What is the diagnosis?
PT= Prolonged
PTT= Prolonged
FDPs= WRI
TT= WRI
Platelets= WRI
BMBT= WRI
A

VitK antagonism, hepatic disease

167
Q 
What is the diagnosis?
PT= Prolonged
PTT= Prolonged
FDPs= Increased
TT= Prolonged
Platelets= Decreased
BMBT= Prolonged
A

Typical of fulminant consumptive coagulopathy

168
Q

What is consumptive coagulopathy?

A

The process of accelerated or unbalanced coagulation that leads to destruction or removal of procoagulant moleucles
DIC

169
Q

What can you expect to find with consumptive coagulopathy?

A 
3 or more of:
Thrombocytopenia
Prolonged PT and/or PTT
Increased FDPs and/or increased d-dimer
Decreased fibrinogen concentration
Decreased ATIII
RBC fragments
170
Q

What is dilutional coagulopathy?

A

Dilution of blood components by colloid fluids, crystalloid fluids, plasma-poor packed erythrocytes, or oxyglobin solution

171
Q

What can cause the inhibition of functional factors?

A

Heparin

FDPs

172
Q

What is thrombosis?

A

Formation of thrombi within vascular system

Shift of equilibrium between prothrombic factors and antithrombic factors

173
Q

What are the potential hemostatic abnormailites caused by thrombosis?

A 
Increased D-dimers
Increased FDPs
Decreased ATIII
Thrombocytopenia
Increased tt: decreased fibrinogen

Clinical Pathology (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions