Hemostasis Flashcards

1
Q

Number of platelets an average megakaryocyte generates is approximately:

A

2000-4000

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2
Q

Normal platelets have a circulating lifespan of approximately:

A

10 days

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3
Q

Platelets interacting with and binding to other platelets is referred to as:

A

Aggregation

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4
Q

Alpha granules are found on the platelet in the:

A

Organelle zone

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5
Q

Anticoagulant required for routine coagulation

A

Sodium citrate

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6
Q

Dilution of anticoagulant for coagulation studies

A

1:10

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7
Q

Anticoagulant in a blood specimen collected from a polycythemic patient should be:

A

Reduced in volume

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8
Q

If a physician suspects a qualitative platelet defect, the most useful test to order is:

A

Bleeding time

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9
Q

Platelet aggreg studies: Normal response to ADP, collagen, epinephrine; no response with ristocetin

A

von Willebrand disease

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10
Q

Which of the coagulation factors is considered labile?

A

V

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11
Q

APTT test reagent is composed of:

A

Calcium ions & Phospholipids

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12
Q

APTT monitors ____ therapy.

A

Heparin

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13
Q

PT test reagent is composed of:

A

Calcium & thromboplastin

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14
Q

A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase time is characteristic of:

A

Therapeutic heparinization

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15
Q

Hemophilia B is a disorder that presents with a decrease in Factor ___.

A

IX

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16
Q

Fibrin strands are cross-linked and the fibrin clot is stabilized by the activity of :

A

Factor XIIIa

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17
Q

A deficiency of protein C is associated with increased risk of ____.

A

Thrombosis

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18
Q

A patient on warfarin therapy will be deficient in a functional amount of:

A

Protein C & S

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19
Q

Patient on therapeutic warfarin: ____ PT, ____ APTT, ____ BT, ____ platelet count

A

Increased; increased; normal; normal

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20
Q

Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration of:

A

Protamine sulfate

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21
Q

If a patient presents with a prolonged APTT that does not correct upon mixing, the next to be performed should be:

A

DRVVT

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22
Q

The activity of the lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodies appears to be directed against:

A

Phospholipid

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23
Q

Megakaryocyte progenitors arise from the CMP under the influence of the transcription gene product, ____, regulated by cofactor ____.

A

GATA-1; FOG1

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24
Q

Nuclear lobularity first becomes apparent as an indentation at the ___ stage, rendering the cell identifiable as an MK-II stage.

25
The platelet membrane surface called the ____, absorbs albumin, fibrinogen, and other plasma proteins.
Glycocalyx
26
On further activation, in conjunction with aggregation, platelets change in shape from discoid to ____ and extend ____.
Round; pseudopods
27
Phosphatidylserine is the polar phospholipid on which the factor ____ and factor ___ complexes assemble.
IX/VIII (tenase); X/V (prothrombinase)
28
____ control cellular activation for all cells at the inner membrane surface; abY heterotrimers that bind GDP when inactive.
G-proteins
29
Preferred & other names: Factor V
Proaccelerin | Labile factor, accelerator globulin (aCg)
30
Preferred & other names: Factor VII
Proconvertin | Stable factor, serum prothrombin conversion accelerator (SPCA), autoprothrombin I
31
Preferred & other names: Factor VIII
``` Antihemophilic factor Antihemophilic globulin (AHG), antihemophilic A, platelet cofactor 1 ```
32
Preferred & other names: Factor IX
Plasma thromboplastin | Christmas factor, antihemophilic factor B, platelet cofactor 2
33
Preferred & other names: Factor X
Stuart-Power factor | Stuart factor, Power factor, autoprothrombin III
34
Preferred & other names: Factor XI
Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA) | Antihemophilic factor C
35
Preferred & other names: Factor XII
Hageman factor | Glass factor, contact factor
36
Preferred & other names: Factor XIII
Fibrin-stabilizing factor | Laki-Lorand factor, fibrinase, fibrinoligase, serum transglutaminase
37
Other names: HMWK
Fitzgerald factor, Flaujeac factor, Williams factor, contact activation factor
38
Other name: Prekallikrein
Fletcher factor
39
What is the largest fragment of the FDPs?
Fragment X
40
Which fragments are the most important in exerting anticoagulant effects?
X & Y
41
Which fragments inhibit fibrin polymerization?
Y & D
42
Which fragment is a powerful inhibitor of thrombin?
E
43
What is the principle inhibitor of coagulation?
Antithrombin III
44
This test which uses coagulant properties of Russel's viper venom was used to help distinguish between FX & FVII deficiencies
Stypven time
45
What are the factors present in adsorbed plasma?
I, V, VIII, XI, XII
46
What are the factor present in aged serum?
VII, IX, X, XI, XII
47
Platelet estimation on PBS: How many platelets should be normally seen/OIF?
8-20
48
There are approximately ____ red cells per platelet in normal peripheral blood.
10-40
49
In Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum, ____ are the most common causes of death.
Subarachnoid & GI bleeding
50
Purpura associated with abdominal pain, secondary to GIT bleeding
Henoch's purpura
51
Purpura associated with join pain esp the knees and ankles
Schonlein's purpura
52
Triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Thrombocytopenia, recurrent infections, eczema
53
Triad of Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
Tyrosinase-(+) oculocutaneous albinism, accumulation of ceroid-like pigment in macrophages, bleeding tendency
54
Triad of Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Albinism, recurrent infections, giant lysosomes
55
These are proteins that precipitate when plasma is diluted with water and acidified
Euglobulins
56
This is a test for secondary FDPs, resulting to a fel formation
Protamine sulfate gelation test
57
What is the reason behind a biphasic curve in aggregation studies?
Initial phase: interaction of the agent with the platelet | Second phase: release of nonmetabolic ADP from platelet granules
58
vWF molecules are stored in ____ in platelets and in ____ in ECs.
a-granules; Weibel-Palade