Hemostasis Flashcards

1
Q

Number of platelets an average megakaryocyte generates is approximately:

A

2000-4000

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2
Q

Normal platelets have a circulating lifespan of approximately:

A

10 days

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3
Q

Platelets interacting with and binding to other platelets is referred to as:

A

Aggregation

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4
Q

Alpha granules are found on the platelet in the:

A

Organelle zone

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5
Q

Anticoagulant required for routine coagulation

A

Sodium citrate

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6
Q

Dilution of anticoagulant for coagulation studies

A

1:10

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7
Q

Anticoagulant in a blood specimen collected from a polycythemic patient should be:

A

Reduced in volume

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8
Q

If a physician suspects a qualitative platelet defect, the most useful test to order is:

A

Bleeding time

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9
Q

Platelet aggreg studies: Normal response to ADP, collagen, epinephrine; no response with ristocetin

A

von Willebrand disease

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10
Q

Which of the coagulation factors is considered labile?

A

V

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11
Q

APTT test reagent is composed of:

A

Calcium ions & Phospholipids

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12
Q

APTT monitors ____ therapy.

A

Heparin

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13
Q

PT test reagent is composed of:

A

Calcium & thromboplastin

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14
Q

A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase time is characteristic of:

A

Therapeutic heparinization

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15
Q

Hemophilia B is a disorder that presents with a decrease in Factor ___.

A

IX

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16
Q

Fibrin strands are cross-linked and the fibrin clot is stabilized by the activity of :

A

Factor XIIIa

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17
Q

A deficiency of protein C is associated with increased risk of ____.

A

Thrombosis

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18
Q

A patient on warfarin therapy will be deficient in a functional amount of:

A

Protein C & S

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19
Q

Patient on therapeutic warfarin: ____ PT, ____ APTT, ____ BT, ____ platelet count

A

Increased; increased; normal; normal

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20
Q

Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration of:

A

Protamine sulfate

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21
Q

If a patient presents with a prolonged APTT that does not correct upon mixing, the next to be performed should be:

A

DRVVT

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22
Q

The activity of the lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodies appears to be directed against:

A

Phospholipid

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23
Q

Megakaryocyte progenitors arise from the CMP under the influence of the transcription gene product, ____, regulated by cofactor ____.

A

GATA-1; FOG1

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24
Q

Nuclear lobularity first becomes apparent as an indentation at the ___ stage, rendering the cell identifiable as an MK-II stage.

A

4N

25
Q

The platelet membrane surface called the ____, absorbs albumin, fibrinogen, and other plasma proteins.

A

Glycocalyx

26
Q

On further activation, in conjunction with aggregation, platelets change in shape from discoid to ____ and extend ____.

A

Round; pseudopods

27
Q

Phosphatidylserine is the polar phospholipid on which the factor ____ and factor ___ complexes assemble.

A

IX/VIII (tenase); X/V (prothrombinase)

28
Q

____ control cellular activation for all cells at the inner membrane surface; abY heterotrimers that bind GDP when inactive.

A

G-proteins

29
Q

Preferred & other names: Factor V

A

Proaccelerin

Labile factor, accelerator globulin (aCg)

30
Q

Preferred & other names: Factor VII

A

Proconvertin

Stable factor, serum prothrombin conversion accelerator (SPCA), autoprothrombin I

31
Q

Preferred & other names: Factor VIII

A
Antihemophilic factor
Antihemophilic globulin (AHG), antihemophilic A, platelet cofactor 1
32
Q

Preferred & other names: Factor IX

A

Plasma thromboplastin

Christmas factor, antihemophilic factor B, platelet cofactor 2

33
Q

Preferred & other names: Factor X

A

Stuart-Power factor

Stuart factor, Power factor, autoprothrombin III

34
Q

Preferred & other names: Factor XI

A

Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA)

Antihemophilic factor C

35
Q

Preferred & other names: Factor XII

A

Hageman factor

Glass factor, contact factor

36
Q

Preferred & other names: Factor XIII

A

Fibrin-stabilizing factor

Laki-Lorand factor, fibrinase, fibrinoligase, serum transglutaminase

37
Q

Other names: HMWK

A

Fitzgerald factor, Flaujeac factor, Williams factor, contact activation factor

38
Q

Other name: Prekallikrein

A

Fletcher factor

39
Q

What is the largest fragment of the FDPs?

A

Fragment X

40
Q

Which fragments are the most important in exerting anticoagulant effects?

A

X & Y

41
Q

Which fragments inhibit fibrin polymerization?

A

Y & D

42
Q

Which fragment is a powerful inhibitor of thrombin?

A

E

43
Q

What is the principle inhibitor of coagulation?

A

Antithrombin III

44
Q

This test which uses coagulant properties of Russel’s viper venom was used to help distinguish between FX & FVII deficiencies

A

Stypven time

45
Q

What are the factors present in adsorbed plasma?

A

I, V, VIII, XI, XII

46
Q

What are the factor present in aged serum?

A

VII, IX, X, XI, XII

47
Q

Platelet estimation on PBS: How many platelets should be normally seen/OIF?

A

8-20

48
Q

There are approximately ____ red cells per platelet in normal peripheral blood.

A

10-40

49
Q

In Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum, ____ are the most common causes of death.

A

Subarachnoid & GI bleeding

50
Q

Purpura associated with abdominal pain, secondary to GIT bleeding

A

Henoch’s purpura

51
Q

Purpura associated with join pain esp the knees and ankles

A

Schonlein’s purpura

52
Q

Triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Thrombocytopenia, recurrent infections, eczema

53
Q

Triad of Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome

A

Tyrosinase-(+) oculocutaneous albinism, accumulation of ceroid-like pigment in macrophages, bleeding tendency

54
Q

Triad of Chediak-Higashi syndrome

A

Albinism, recurrent infections, giant lysosomes

55
Q

These are proteins that precipitate when plasma is diluted with water and acidified

A

Euglobulins

56
Q

This is a test for secondary FDPs, resulting to a fel formation

A

Protamine sulfate gelation test

57
Q

What is the reason behind a biphasic curve in aggregation studies?

A

Initial phase: interaction of the agent with the platelet

Second phase: release of nonmetabolic ADP from platelet granules

58
Q

vWF molecules are stored in ____ in platelets and in ____ in ECs.

A

a-granules; Weibel-Palade