Hemoflagellates Flashcards
1
Q
What are Blood & Tissue Flagellates also known as?
A
Hemoflagellates
2
Q
To which order do Blood & Tissue Flagellates belong?
A
Kinetoplastida
3
Q
What distinctive organelle gives the Kinetoplastida its name?
A
Kinetoplast
4
Q
What does the Greek word ‘kineto’ mean?
A
Movement
5
Q
What does the Greek word ‘plast’ refer to?
A
Formed or molded
6
Q
What is typically found within a kinetoplast?
A
DNA
7
Q
Where is the kinetoplast usually located?
A
Within the mitochondrion
8
Q
Name one genus of Blood & Tissue Flagellates.
A
Trypanosomes or Leishmania
9
Q
List three species of Trypanosomes.
A
- Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
- Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
- Trypanosoma cruzi
10
Q
What are the four stages of development of hemoflagellates?
A
- Amastigote
- Promastigote
- Epimastigote
- Trypomastigote
The stages transition between their insect vector and vertebrate host.
11
Q
What is the amastigote form also known as?
A
Leishmania form (aka. Donovan Leishman)
This is a non-flagellated form found within macrophages.
12
Q
Describe the characteristics of the amastigote stage.
A
Non-flagellated, ovoidal, intracellular, can find a small kinetoplast
Specifically located within the macrophages of their host.
13
Q
What defines the promastigote form?
A
Elongated, spindle-shaped, pointed end with a free flagellum from the kinetoplast
The flagellum arises at the anterior end.
14
Q
What are the key features to identify the stages of hemoflagellates?
A
Presence of kinetoplast and their location, presence or absence of flagella
These features help distinguish between the developmental stages.
15
Q
What is the appearance of the epimastigote form?
A
Elongated, spindle-shaped, somewhat flattened, has a small kinetoplast
The kinetoplast is situated anterior to the nucleus.
16
Q
Where is the nucleus located in the epimastigote stage?
A
The nucleus is present.
The free flagellum extends from the anterior end backward.
17
Q
In the trypomastigote form, where is the kinetoplast located?
A
Posterior to the nucleus
The flagellum runs along the full body of the undulating membrane.
18
Q
How does the trypomastigote form differ morphologically from the epimastigote?
A
The flagellum on the margin of the undulating membrane ends at the kinetoplast, which is posterior to the nucleus
This results in a different arrangement of the flagellum.
19
Q
Which genus features both amastigote and promastigote stages?
A
Genus Leishmania
These forms are part of the life cycle of Leishmania.
20
Q
Which group of Trypanosoma includes the epimastigote and trypomastigote forms?
A
Trypanosoma brucei group
This group includes multiple stages of development.
21
Q
Fill in the blank: The Trypanosoma cruzi group has _______ stage(s) of development present.
A
ALL stages of development
This indicates a complete life cycle representation.
22
Q
What is the genus of species that are pathogenic to man and other animals?
A
Trypanosomes
Trypanosomes are known for causing diseases such as sleeping sickness and Chagas disease.
23
Q
What is the invertebrate host stage of the Trypanosoma brucei group?
A
Epimastigote
The epimastigote stage is infective within the invertebrate host, specifically insects.
24
Q
What type of host does Trypanosoma brucei infect in the bloodstream?
A
Mammalian host
In the bloodstream, the infective form is called trypomastigotes.
25
What is the mode of transmission for Trypanosoma brucei?
Vector-borne
## Footnote
Transmission occurs through the bite of tsetse flies.
26
Where do trypomastigotes reside in the Trypanosoma cruzi group?
Gut of the invertebrate host
## Footnote
Specifically, they are found in the hindgut of insects.
27
What is the intracellular form of Trypanosoma cruzi found in mammalian hosts?
Amastigotes
## Footnote
Amastigotes are present within reticuloendothelial cells.
28
What is the size range of trypanosomes?
14-33 microns in length, 1.5-3.5 microns in breadth
## Footnote
They are minute and actively motile due to the presence of flagella.
29
What is the shape and movement characteristic of trypanosomes?
Fusiform-shaped with wavy spiral motion
## Footnote
They exhibit a characteristic movement due to a contractile flagellum.
30
What is the diagnostic stage of the Trypanosoma brucei group?
Trypomastigote
## Footnote
This stage is crucial for diagnosing infections in vertebrate hosts.
31
What is the infective stage of the Trypanosoma cruzi group?
Metacyclic trypomastigote
## Footnote
This stage is involved in transmission to mammalian hosts.
32
What disease is caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense?
West African Sleeping sickness
## Footnote
Also known as Gambian trypanosomiasis.
33
What disease is associated with Trypanosoma cruzi?
Chagas disease
## Footnote
This disease is also referred to as American trypanosomiasis.
34
Fill in the blank: The invertebrate hosts for Trypanosoma cruzi include _______.
Reduviid bugs
## Footnote
Common genera include Panstrongylus, Rhodnius, Eutratoma, and Triatoma.
35
True or False: Trypanosomes have a single nucleus.
True
## Footnote
They possess a large, oval nucleus.
36
What is the characteristic of the karyosome in trypanosomes?
Centrally located
## Footnote
The karyosome is found at the center of the nucleus.
37
What is the mode of transmission for Trypanosoma cruzi?
Bites of Reduviid bugs, blood transfusions, transplacental transfer, organ transplant
## Footnote
These are key transmission routes for Chagas disease.
38
What are the clinical presentations of the T. brucei group distinguished by?
They are distinguished between ACUTE and CHRONIC stages.
39
What is the initial stage following the bite of an infective tsetse fly in Trypanosoma brucei called?
ACUTE stage.
40
List three signs and symptoms of the acute stage of Trypanosoma brucei.
* Irregular fever (or intermittent fever)
* Headache
* Joint and muscle pain
41
What is the medical term for joint pain?
Arthralgia.
42
What is the medical term for muscle pain?
Myalgia.
43
What type of rash may appear in the acute stage of Trypanosoma brucei?
Rash that may progress to skin lesions or skin eruptions.
44
What is a 'chancre' in the context of Trypanosoma brucei?
A rash that turned into lesions, common in Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense.
45
What is Winterbottom’s Sign?
Enlargement of lymph nodes in the posterior cervical region.
46
Which Trypanosoma brucei group is more commonly associated with Winterbottom’s Sign?
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense.
47
What may lead to death in chronic stages of Trypanosoma brucei infection?
The disease itself or intercurrent infections such as malaria, dysentery, or pneumonia.
48
What is the hallmark of the chronic stage of Trypanosoma brucei infection?
Sleeping sickness.
49
What is the Kerandel sign?
A delayed pain when soft tissues are compressed.
50
What disease is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?
Chagas disease.
51
What is Romaña's sign?
Presence of swelling around one eye.
52
What are the two stages of Chagas disease?
* Acute
* Chronic
53
List three symptoms of the acute stage of Chagas disease.
* Fever
* Skin lesions (Romaña's sign)
* Rashes
54
In the chronic stage of Chagas disease, where does T. cruzi reside?
In tissues like heart and digestive muscles/tissue.
55
What are three signs and symptoms of chronic Chagas disease?
* Heart failure (cardiomegaly)
* Megaesophagus
* Megacolon
56
How long can chronic Chagas disease last?
20 years or more.
57
True or False: Chagas disease is often fatal in older children and adults.
True.
58
What lab diagnosis technique is used for the T. brucei group?
Stained blood preparation
## Footnote
This technique helps in identifying the presence of trypanosomes in the blood.
59
What type of sample is collected for lymph aspirates?
Lymph fluid
## Footnote
This sample is specifically used for diagnosing T. brucei group infections.
60
What is the purpose of a thick blood smear with Giemsa stain?
To identify trypanosomes
## Footnote
This method allows for visualization of the parasites in blood samples.
61
What is xenodiagnosis?
Using laboratory reared bugs to feed on patients suspected of being infected
## Footnote
This technique involves allowing uninfected bugs to feed on the patient's blood to detect infection.
62
Name two serologic tests used in the diagnosis of trypanosomiasis.
* Immunofluorescent antibody test
* Hemagglutination assay
## Footnote
These tests help in detecting antibodies against trypanosomes.
63
What are mott cells and where are they found?
Plasma cells with immunoglobulins in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
## Footnote
Mott cells may also be referred to as Russell bodies.
64
What culture medium is used for the T. cruzi group?
Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle (NNN) Culture Medium
## Footnote
This medium is essential for culturing T. cruzi in a laboratory setting.
65
List three samples that can be collected for diagnosing trypanosomiasis.
* Blood
* Lymph fluid
* Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
## Footnote
These samples are crucial for laboratory diagnosis of trypanosomiasis.
66
What are the first-line treatments for African Sleeping Sickness?
* Pentamidine
* Suramin
* Melarsoprol (for late stage)
## Footnote
Pentamidine and Suramin do not penetrate the CSF, while Melarsoprol is used when CNS involvement occurs.
67
What medications are used for Chagas Disease?
* Nifurtimox
* Bezuidazole
## Footnote
Both medications are partially effective in treating acute Chagas disease.
68
Where is African trypanosomiasis endemic?
In the area known as the 'tsetse belt' across a third of Africa
## Footnote
This region is characterized by the presence of tsetse flies, which are vectors for the disease.
69
In which regions is Chagas disease prevalent?
Throughout Central and South America
## Footnote
This disease is mainly transmitted by triatomine bugs in these regions.
70
What is one method to prevent contact with tsetse flies?
Control measures such as traps, screens, and insecticides
## Footnote
These measures aim to reduce the population of tsetse flies to prevent transmission of trypanosomiasis.
71
What is the role of health education in the prevention of trypanosomiasis?
To reduce the pool of human infection
## Footnote
Health education informs communities about prevention and treatment options for trypanosomiasis.
72
True or False: Suramin can enter the cerebrospinal fluid.
False
## Footnote
Suramin is effective for African Sleeping Sickness but does not penetrate the CSF.
73
What are the two primary morphological forms of Leishmania?
Intracellular amastigote and flagellate promastigote
74
Name three species of Leishmania.
Leishmania tropica, Leishmania donovani, Leishmania braziliensis
75
What is the size of the amastigote form of Leishmania?
2-3 microns
76
Describe the shape of the amastigote form of Leishmania.
Small, ovoid
77
True or False: The amastigote form of Leishmania is motile.
False
78
In which cells does the amastigote of Leishmania live intracellularly?
* Monocytes
* Polymorphonuclear cells (PMN)
* Endothelial cells
79
How many nuclei does the amastigote form of Leishmania have?
One nucleus
80
What is the size of the promastigote form of Leishmania?
15-20 microns
81
Describe the shape of the promastigote form of Leishmania.
Spindle-shaped or elongated
82
Where does the flagellum arise in the promastigote form of Leishmania?
From the kinetoplast at the anterior end
83
Who are the vertebrate and invertebrate hosts of Leishmania?
Vertebrate host: man; Invertebrate host: Sandflies (Genus Phlebotomus)
84
What is the infective stage of Leishmania?
Promastigote/Leptomonas form
85
What is the diagnostic stage of Leishmania?
Amastigote/Leishmanial form
86
Where does Leishmania tropica inhabit?
Lymphoid tissue of the skin
87
What disease is caused by Leishmania donovani?
Visceral leishmaniasis
88
List other names for visceral leishmaniasis caused by Leishmania donovani.
* Kala-azar fever
* Dumdum fever
* Black fever
* Death fever
* Tropical splenomegaly
89
What disease is caused by Leishmania tropica?
Cutaneous leishmaniasis
90
What are some other names for cutaneous leishmaniasis?
* Oriental sore
* Old World Leishmaniasis
* Aleppo Button
* Delhi Boil
* Baghdad Boil
* Jericho Boil
91
What disease is caused by Leishmania braziliensis?
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
92
What does 'mucocutaneous' refer to in the context of leishmaniasis?
Skin and mucous membrane
93
What is another name for mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?
Espundia
94
What is the term for leishmaniasis found in the New World?
New World Leishmaniasis
95
What is another name for visceral leishmaniasis?
Kala-azar fever
## Footnote
This term is commonly used in medical literature to refer to visceral leishmaniasis.
96
Where are phagocytosed parasites primarily found in visceral leishmaniasis?
In the reticuloendothelial cells of:
* Spleen
* Liver
* Lymph nodes
* Bone marrow
* Intestinal mucosa
## Footnote
These organs are critical sites for the immune response and harboring the parasites.
97
List three clinical manifestations of visceral leishmaniasis.
* Fever
* Malaise
* Loss of appetite
## Footnote
Other symptoms may include diarrhea, wasting, hepatomegaly, skin darkening, weight loss, cough, anemia, splenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy.
98
What is a major characteristic of cutaneous leishmaniasis?
Ulceration in the skin leaving an ugly scar
## Footnote
The lesions caused by cutaneous leishmaniasis do not heal spontaneously.
99
What does cutaneous leishmaniasis resemble in terms of skin lesions?
Lepromatous leprosy
## Footnote
The thickening of the skin can be similar in appearance to the lesions seen in leprosy.
100
What is the initial lesion in mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?
Papule that later develops into an ulcer
## Footnote
This progression is typical for mucocutaneous leishmaniasis following an insect bite.
101
What is a hallmark feature of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?
The appearance of the Tapir nose
## Footnote
This refers to highly disfiguring tissue destruction and swelling in the oronasal region.
102
True or False: Lesions in cutaneous leishmaniasis heal spontaneously.
False
## Footnote
Unlike some other skin conditions, lesions from cutaneous leishmaniasis do not heal on their own.
103
What are some clinical manifestations of visceral leishmaniasis aside from fever?
* Diarrhea
* Wasting
* Hepatomegaly
* Skin darkening
* Weight loss
* Cough
* Anemia
* Splenomegaly
* Lymphadenopathy
## Footnote
These symptoms can vary in severity and are indicative of the systemic effects of the disease.
104
Where does Leishmaniasis occur geographically?
Southern regions of America, Mediterranean, East and North Africa, Arabian Peninsula, Persian Gulf, Indian subcontinent, China, Southern Soviet Union
## Footnote
These regions are known to have endemic cases of Leishmaniasis.
105
What is the primary method for lab diagnosis of Leishmaniasis?
Giemsa or Wright’s stained smear
## Footnote
Specimens are obtained from skin lesions biopsies or aspirates.
106
What culture mediums can be used for Leishmaniasis diagnosis?
* Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle (NNN) Culture Medium
* Schneider's Medium
* Drosophila Medium
## Footnote
These mediums are used to culture specimens for identification of Leishmania.
107
What is the Montenegro skin test used for?
To indicate Leishmaniasis infection
## Footnote
An intradermal injection of a suspension of killed promastigotes is administered, and a positive result is indicated by wheal formation.
108
What indicates a positive result in the Formol-gel Test?
Gel formation
## Footnote
The test is performed using serum and formalin, and the combination must form a gel.
109
Name two serological tests used in the diagnosis of Leishmaniasis.
* Complement fixation test (CFT)
* Fluorescent antibody test (FAT)
## Footnote
These tests help in detecting antibodies against Leishmania.
110
What are the primary drugs used to treat Leishmaniasis?
* Pentavalent antimonials
* Sodium stibogluconate
* N-methyl-glucamine antimonate
## Footnote
These antimony compounds are the first line of treatment.
111
What are some secondary drugs for Leishmaniasis treatment?
* Amphotericin B
* Pentamidine (for Kalaazar fever)
* Metronidazole
* Nifurtimox
## Footnote
These drugs may be used if primary treatments are ineffective.
112
What is one method of prevention and control of Leishmaniasis?
Vaccination
## Footnote
Vaccination is one of the key strategies to prevent the disease.
113
What are protective measures against sandflies in Leishmaniasis prevention?
* Control of sandfly vectors
* Protective measures from sandflies
* Mechanical destruction of animal reservoir habitats
* Poisoning of animals
## Footnote
These measures help reduce the risk of transmission of the disease.
