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Internal Medicine > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

What solid cancer are patients with allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplants at risk of developing?

A

Oral cancers

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2
Q

Phenytoin use causes anemia due to deficiency of what substance?

A

Folic Acid

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3
Q

Chronic isoniazid use causes deficiency of what vitamin?

A

Vitamin B 6

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4
Q

What are the levels of MCV, homocysteine and methylmalonic acid in Vitamin B6 deficiency?

A

MCV is normal, homocysteine levels are elevated and methylmalonic acid levels are normal

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5
Q

Which myeloproliferative disorder has the highest risk of transformation into acute leukemia?

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia. May accelerate and transform to AML or ALL (blast crisis)

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6
Q

What is the single most accurate test for diagnosing alpha thalassemia?

A

Genetic studies (DNA PCR)

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7
Q

Which is the best initial test to diagnose sickle cell disease?

A

Peripheral blood smear

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8
Q

What is the treatment of choice for M3 subtype of AML (aPML)?

A

ATRA + Daunorubicin

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9
Q

What is the standard post-remission monitoring of acute promyelocytic leukemia?

A

Sequential monitoring of RT-PCR for t(15;17)

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10
Q

DIC is a common presentation of which subtype of AML?

A

AML M3 (APL)

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11
Q

What does the iron panel (Iron, Ferritin, Transferrin saturation, TIBC) look like in anemia of chronic disease ?

A

Low iron, high ferritin, high transferrin

saturation, low TIBC

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12
Q

What kind of anemia is common in chronic inflammatory conditions ?

A

Anemia of chronic disease

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13
Q

What does the iron panel (Iron, Ferritin, Transferrin saturation, TIBC) look like with iron deficiency anemia ?

A

Low iron, Low ferritin, Low transferrin saturation, High TIBC

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14
Q

What condition is associated with ATP7B gene?

A

Wilson’s Disease

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15
Q

True or False: Wilson’s disease is an exacerbating condition for porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT).

A

False; Wilson’s disease is not an exacerbating condition for PCT.

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16
Q

True or False: Estrogen use, Chronic alcohol use, Hemochromatosis, and Hepatitis C infection are all exacerbating conditions for PCT.

A

True

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17
Q

Patients whose lab results show either elevated PT or PTT levels and who are not on anticoagulation should have a ____________ study completed

A

1:1 mixing study

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18
Q

If the mixing study corrects the PT or PTT, what would this indicate?

A

This would indicate that the patient has a factor deficiency.

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19
Q

What condition is described here? “Condition that is associated with BCR/ABL fusion gene on cytogenetic testing”

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

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20
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) will usually cause an (elevated or depressed?) LAP level

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) will usually cause a depressed LAP level

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21
Q

How long should heparin be continue to be used for at least __ hours until two consecutive INR readings are greater than or equal to __?

A

48 hours; 2.0

22
Q

What are the most common and second most common forms of porphyria?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) and Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)

23
Q

This most common porphyria is characterized by onycholysis and blistering of the skin generally in areas that are exposed to higher levels of sunlight.

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)

24
Q

This second most common porphyria is a rare autosomal dominant metabolic disorder in which the porphobilinogen deaminase enzyme is deficient.

A

Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)

25
Q

What electrolyte is low with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

A

Sodium; Low sodium levels is known as hyponatremia

26
Q

What electrolyte is low with primary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Calcium; Low calcium levels is known as hypocalcemia.

27
Q

What electrolyte is low with renal tubular acidosis type 1 and 2?

A

Potassium; Low potassium levels is known as hypokalemia.

28
Q

What electrolyte is low with primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Phosphorous; Low phosphorous levels is known as hypophosphatemia.

29
Q

Late hemolytic reactions tend to have a (negative or positive?) Coomb’s test result

A

Negative

30
Q

Early hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibility generally result in a (negative or positive?) Coomb’s test.

A

Positive

31
Q

Which is the only type of microcytic anemia associated with increased iron levels?

A

Sideroblastic anemia

32
Q

Microcytic anemia associated with an abnormal or slightly increased erythrocyte count is seen with which disease?

A

Beta thalassemia

33
Q

What is the treatment for myelodysplasia with 5q syndrome?

A

Lenalidomide

34
Q

What kind of anemia (microcytic or macrocytic or normocytic) does myelodysplasia present with?

A

Macroctyic anemia

35
Q

What is the treatment for myelodysplasia without 5q syndrome?

A

Azacitidine

36
Q

Which kind of macrocytic anemia does alcohol abuse more commonly result in?

A

Macrocytic anemia due to folate deficiency

37
Q

Environmental exposure to nitrous oxide/laughing gas can cause which kind of macrocytic anemia?

A

Macrocytic anemia due to B12 deficiency. Nitrous oxide inactivates Vitamin B12

38
Q

What is the target hemoglobin level while treating patients of anemia of chronic kidney disease with EPO?

A

11-12 g/dL

39
Q

Which is the most common infection preceeding aplastic anemia?

A

Hepatitis

40
Q

What cause is suggested by aplastic anemia associated with Café au lait spots and short stature?

A

Fanconi’s anemia

41
Q

What is the best therapy for aplastic anemia in a young patient?

A

Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

42
Q

What is the most accurate test for diagnosing beta thalassemia?

A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

43
Q

What is the cause of microcytic anemia with normal iron studies?

A

Thalassemia

44
Q

How is Cooley’s anemia managed?

A

Chronic transfusion lifelong

45
Q

Which of the following therapies for sickle cell disease is contraindicated in pregnancy? Hydroxyurea, folic acid,
oxycodone, acetaminophen, exchange transfusion

A

Hydroxyurea

46
Q

What is the most common manifestation of HbSC disease?

A

Visual problems like retinopathy

47
Q

Which of the following is not associated with increased reticulocyte count? Acute blood loss, PNH, Iron deficiency anemia, Hereditary spherocytosis

A

Iron deficiency anemia

48
Q

How much time is required by reticulocytes in circulation to transform into mature RBCs?

A

1 day

49
Q

How does metformin affect vitamin B12?

A

Metformin may hinder absorption of vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum

50
Q

Alcohol use can lead to which deficiency associated with elevated MCV?

A

Folate deficiency

Internal Medicine (7 decks)

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