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ECVIM > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Hemophilia C is secondary to a deficit :
- in FIX
- in FXIII
- in FXI
- in FVIII

A
  • in FXI
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1
Q

The only coagulation factors that are not implicated in APTT measurement are :
- FVII and FXIII
- FV and FVIII
- FVII and FV
- FII and FV

A
  • FVII and FXIII
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2
Q

FIX deficiency is responsible for :
- Hemophilia A
- Christmas disease
- Hemophilia C
- Haegman factor difiency

A

Christmas disease (Hemophilia B)

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3
Q

Thrombin time is an indicator of :
- Fibrinogen concentration/function
- Fibrinolysis efficiency
- Platelet dysfunction
- vWf concentration/function

A

Fibrinogen concentration/function

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4
Q

D dimers
- have a long half-life
- can be generated from fibrinogen
- can be generated from insoluble fibrin
- are mostly measured with immunologic assays that do not cross with fibrin monomer fragments

A

are mostly measured with immunologic assays that do not cross with fibrin monomer fragments
(half life around 5 hours)

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5
Q

Which endocrinopathy has not been associated with hyper coagulability ?
- Hyperadrenocorticism
- Hypothyroidism
- Diabetes mellitus
- Hyperthyroidism

A

Hyperthyroidism

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6
Q

Which molecule is not a vitamin K dependent factor ?
- Prothrombine
- Protein S
- FVII
- Factor XI

A

Factor XI

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7
Q

Which of the following abnormalities do not favor coagulation ?
- Decreased level of protein C
- Decreased levels of antithrombin
- Elevated levels of plasminogen
- Elevated levels of vWf

A

Elevated levels of plasminogen

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8
Q

Cryoprecipitate primarily contains :
- FVII and XIII, vWF, fibrinogen
- FVII and XIII, prothrombine, fibrinogen
- FVII and X, vWF, fibrinogen
- FX and XIII, vWF, fibrinogen

A

FVII and XIII, vWF, fibrinogen

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9
Q

About hereditary hypo coagulable states (wrong proposition) :
- Scott syndrome primarily affects German Shepherd
- Hemophilia B is more common than hemophilia A
- FXII deficiency does not result in hemorrhage
- Congenital deficiency of the vitamin K dependent coagulation factors has been reported in cats

A

Hemophilia B is more common than hemophilia A

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10
Q

Type 3 von Willebrand is associated with :
- low vWF concentrations
- normal vWF concentrations but absence of vWF multimers
- low vWF concentrations but absence of vWF multimers
- absence of plasma vWF

A
  • absence of plasma vWF
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11
Q

BMBT is considered prolonged if :
> 10 min
> 2 min
> 4 min
> 20 min

A

> 4 min

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12
Q

Doberman Pinscher are predisposed to :
Type 1 vWD
Type 2 vWD
Type 3 vWD
Glantzmann’s thrombasthenia

A

Type 1 vWD

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13
Q

Which treatment is not recommended for IMHA ?
* cyclophosphamide
* azathioprine
* cyclosporine
* mycophenolate mofetil

A

cyclophosphamide

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14
Q

Which affirmation is true ?
* epoetin has a longer half life than darbepoetin
* darbepoetin is associated with a higher risk of anti-EPO antibodies formation
* seizures, fever, arthralgia, mucocutaneous ulcers can be seen with epoetin
* in dogs with aregenerative anemia, darbepoetin is given SC once monthly

A
  • fever, arthralgia, mucocutaneous ulcers can be seen with epoetin
    and local reactions (may be predictive of Ab formation)
    All Erythropoiesis stimulating agents carry the risk of hypertension and seizures
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15
Q

Which factor does not inhibit EPO synthesis ?
* Low albuminemia
* PTH
* ACTH
* Ferritin

A
  • ACTH (it stimulates EPO synthesis)
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16
Q

Hepcidin :
* is synthesized by macrophages
* inhibits ceruleoplasmin
* inhibits ferroportin
* is down regulated by inflammation

A
  • inhibits ferroportin
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17
Q

What is the duration of erythropoiesis ?
a) 10-12 days
b) 3-4 days
c) 5-7 days
d) 10-13 days

A

c) 5-7 days

18
Q

What cytokines are responsible for the initiation of a Th2 response ?
a) IL-4, IL-33
b) IL-6, IL-23
c) IL-5, IL-10
d) IL-12, IFN gamma

A

a) IL-4, IL-33

19
Q

What is not true about Th1 response ?
a) Th1 response is initiated by IL-2 and IFN gamma
b) TH1 response recruits macrophages and neutrophils
c) Th1 response is implicated in delayed hypersensitivity
d) Th1 response leads to the production of IL-10 and IL-35

A

d) Th1 response leads to the production of IL-10 and IL-35

( it leads to production of IFN gamma, TNF alpha, IL-2)

20
Q

What receptor is present on T lymphocytes but not on B lymphocytes ?
a) CD 25
b) CD 35
c) CD 125
d) CD 28

A

d) CD 28
(allows costimulation during APC presentation)

21
Q

What is the most abundant membrane protein of erythrocytes ?
a) ClHCO3- exchanger
b) EPO receptor
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Na/K/ATPase

A

a) ClHCO3- exchanger

22
Q

About IMHA autoantibodies (wrong statement) :
a) Class I antibodies are mainly IgG antibodies, that are active at body temperature
b) Class II antibodies are mainly IgM antibodies, that are active at body temperature
c) Class III antibodies are mainly IgG, that are active at cold temperature
d) Class IV antibodies are mainly IgM, that are active at cold temperature

A

c) Class III antibodies are mainly IgG, that are active at cold temperature
They are active at body temperature. The difference between class I and class III antibodies is that there is only IgG for class III antibodies, there is no agglutination and no complement activation. Opsonized RBCs are eliminated by the reticuloendothelial system.

23
Q

Which breed among the following ones is reported as predisposed for IMHA ?
a) Bichon frisé
b) Daschund
c) Whippet
d) Labrador

A

a) Bichon frisé

24
Q

(False answer)
a) Acetaminophen is an oxydation compound that is directly responsible for anemia
b) Facial or paw edema can be seen with acetaminophen intoxication
c) N-acetyl-cystein helps with acetaminophen intoxication by replenishing glutathione stores
d) Toxicity can occur following 10mg/kg in cats

A

a) Acetaminophen is an oxydation compound that is directly responsible for anemia
Cyt P450 metabolism —> NAPQI (toxic metabolite)

25
Q

Hypophosphatemia induces anemia by (true answer) :
a) Modifying the erythrocytes membrane phospholipidic composition
b) Reducing the erythrocyte’s ATP stores
c) Leading to an important H+ influx in the erythrocytes, to compensate for electroneutrality
d) Impeading DNA synthesis

A

b) Reducing the erythrocyte’s ATP stores

26
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to pyruvate kinase deficiency ?
a) Abyssin and Somali
b) Scottish fold and British Shorthair
c) Angora and Turk Van
d) Persian and Sphynx

A

a) Abyssin and Somali

27
Q

Which genetic disease is not particularly responsible for anemia ?
a) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
b) Phosphofructokinase deficiency
c) Imerslund-Gräsbeck syndrome
d) Chediak-Higashi syndrome

A

d) Chediak-Higashi syndrome

28
Q

Cite negative pronostic factors of IMHA in dogs

A

autoagglutination, intravascular hemolysis, persistently low reticulocyte counts, leukocytosis, left shift, thrombocytopenia, high serum bilirubin and urea concentrations, elevated liver enzyme activities, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlactatemia, and prolonged PT/aPTT

29
Q

Cite negative pronostic factors in cats

A

Older age, Hyperbilirubinemia

30
Q

Explain how hemolytic anemia due to alloantibodies happens in cats ?

A

In contrast to autoimmune antibodies, allo(iso)antibodies are not directed against the patient’s own but against foreign RBCs, e.g., in incompatible blood transfusions. Since cats, unlike dogs, have clinically relevant naturally occurring antibodies against the other blood groups, neonatal isoerythrolysis (NI) occurs in cats. When kittens with blood type A or AB (new designation C) receive colostral anti-A antibodies from a type B queen during the first 16 hours of life, NI may develop.57 In dogs, sensitization of breeding females by DEA-1 incompatible transfusions should be avoided, as these antibodies can be excreted in the colostrum and absorbed by puppies during the first days of life

31
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to IMHA in dogs ?

A

Cocker Spaniels, Irish Setters, Dachshunds, Poodles, Springer Spaniels, Bearded Collies, Old English Sheepdogs

32
Q

In which cat breeds pyruvate kinase deficiencyhas been described ?

A

genetic defect was first described in the Abyssinian and Somali breeds and since then also in European or Domestic Shorthair cats, Bengals, Singapura, Maine Coon, and Norwegian Forest cats

33
Q

In which dog breeds pyruvate kinase deficiency has been described ?

A

Basenji, Beagles, West Highland White Terrier, Dachshund, and other breeds

34
Q

In which dog breeds phosphofructokinase deficiency has been described ?

A

English Springer Spaniel, Cocker Spaniel, Wachtelhund, Whippet, and in mixed breeds

35
Q

In which breeds does stomatocytosis happen?

A

Alaskan malamute, Schnauzer

36
Q

Which breed is affected by hereditary macrocytosis ?

A

Poodle

37
Q

Which breeds are affected by hereditary microcytosis ?

A

Akita, Shiba Inu, Chow chow

38
Q

What are the consequences of a marked hypophosphatemia (<25mg/L) ?

A

Hemolysis (deficiency in ATP, DPG, reduce gluthatione), neurologic signs, myopathy, cardiac dysfunction

39
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to splenic torsion ?

A

GSD, Great Danes, English bulldogs

40
Q

In which conditions acanthocytes can be seen ?

A

Fragmentation injury, iron deficiency anemia (mechanical fragility), vascular neoplasms (e.g., hemangiosarcoma), liver disease, DIC.
Usually seen with keratocytes and schistocytes. Of unclear diagnostic relevance in various diseases or, rarely, a non-relevant finding in healthy young animals (presumptive, congenital or inherited disorder).

41
Q

In which conditions keratinocytes can be seen ?

A

Fragmentation injury (vasculitis, DIC, iron deficiency; seen with acanthocytes and schistocytes) or oxidant injury (seen with eccentrocytes ± Heinz bodies). Determine which mechanism is operative by other evident RBC abnormalities (e.g., keratocytes and eccentrocytes support oxidant over fragmentation injury). Low numbers may be normal in cats

42
Q

In which conditions elliptocytes can be seen ?

A

Usually secondary to precursor-directed immune-mediated anemia or pure red cell aplasia in dogs (indicates myelofibrosis in these disorders16) and liver disease in cats (particularly lipidosis).64 Inherited in dogs (rare).69

ECVIM (9 decks)

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