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QE REVIEWER > HEMAQE > Flashcards

HEMAQE Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following reagents used for
Cyanmethemoglobin method has the
purpose of reducing the incubation time of
solution

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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2
Q

What is the expected end-point result of
performing Protamine Sulfate Dilution in
samples with abnormal specimens?

A

Paracoagulation

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3
Q

In performing plasminogen assay, which of
the following converts plasminogen to
plasma?

A

Streptokinase

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4
Q

A 10-year-old female child has developed
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
secondary to kidney acute renal failure
after infection with E. coli 0157:H7. Other
significant laboratory results were
decreased platelet count and the presence
of casts and protein in the urine. What is
most likely the cause of the diagnosis for
the patient?

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

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5
Q

Which of the following RBC inclusions can
possibly be seen with Megaloblastic
anemia?

A

Cabot ring

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6
Q

Which RBC indices are used as parameters
in classifying anemias based on
morphology?

A

MCV and MCHC

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7
Q

What causes prolongation in Stypven time?

A

There is a presence of lupus anticoagulant

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8
Q

In the direct method for platelet count, what is the total magnification used when
examining the platelets?

A

100x

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9
Q

What red blood cell index reflects the red
blood size?

A

Mean corpuscular volume

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10
Q

How much hemoglobin is equivalent to
1mm reading of hematocrit?

A

0.34 grams of hemoglobin

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11
Q

Which of the following pathways
generates 2,3-BPG and enhances oxygen
delivery to tissues?

A

Rapport-leubering Pathway

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12
Q

What test aids in assessing the normal
function of the adrenal gland?

A

Eosinophil Depression Test

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13
Q

Which condition involves oculataneous
albinism in children with Swiss cheese appearance of platelets?

A

Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome

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14
Q

What is the objective lens used in counting
the red blood cells?

A

HPO

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15
Q

Which RBC indices best reflect a normal
red blood cell?

A

MCV=93 fL; MCHC = 34 g/dL

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16
Q

An 18-year-old female patient has been
prone to hemorrhage since she was a child.
Which substance is most likely to be
deficient?

A

Procoagulant substances

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17
Q

What is the appearance of the resting and
circulating platelets?

A

Biconvex disc shaped

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18
Q

You perform a whole blood
lumiaggregometry on a specimen from a
patient who complains to have excessive
beleeing from minor cuts. The following
clinical findings gives a normal aggregation
with ristocetin. What is the most likely
related disorder?

A

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

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19
Q

What is being quantified by the Nitroblue
Tetrazolium test?

A

Neutrophil

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20
Q

Which lymphoid neoplasm is characterized
by peripheral blood lymphocytosis
composed of cells with cobblestone or
soccer ball chromatin pattern?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

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21
Q

Which of the following best describes a
hyperchromic Red Blood Cells?

A

RBCs tent to lyse easily due to have an
increased hemoglobin concentration

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22
Q

Which is the correct method that uses 40-
60 mmHg pressure to test for bleeding
time?

A

Ivy method

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23
Q

What could be the possible factor
deficiency if the Prothrombin Time is
prolonged but all other test results are
normal?

A

Factor VII deficiency

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24
Q

Which is not present in aged serum?

A

Factor V

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25
Q

Using a Modified Fonio’s Method, Martin
counted 35 platelets on 10 consecutive oil
immersion fields, what is the total platelet
count of the patient?

A

700,000 platelets/uL

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26
Q

What is the length of time required to form
a clot in vitro under standard conditions?

A

Clotting Time

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27
Q

Which synthesizes the role of vWF and
fibrinogen in primary hemostasis?

A

vWF participates in collagen binding while
fibrinogen binds to adjacent platelets

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28
Q

Which of these is the best site of choice
for skin puncture in adults?

A

Palmar surface of the distal portion of the
middle and ring finger on the non-dominant
hand

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29
Q

What is the immediate reaction of the
hemostatic system upon injury?

A

Vasoconstriction

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30
Q

Which is the last step in primary
hemostasis?

A

Platelet adherence to one another

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31
Q

A normal hemoglobin has iron in which of
the following states?

A

Ferrous

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32
Q

What is the standing time after the tubes
for OFT have been gently shaken?

A

2 hours

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33
Q

In a normally maturating blood cell, what
should happen to the proportion of the
cytoplasm to the nucleus?

A

Increasing

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34
Q

Why is there a decreasing level of
basophilia in the cytoplasm as the cell
matures?

A

The decrease in RNA of the cell will
cause a lesser affinity for a basic dye

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35
Q

In Sahli-Adams method for hemoglobin
determination, what is the reagent that we
use to convert hemoglobin to hematin?

A

0.1 N hydrochloric acid

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36
Q

How can you differentiate AML from ALL
using the Sudan Black B stain?

A

AML is positive while ALL is negative for SBB

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37
Q

What subtype of acute myelogenous
leukemia is associated with high incidence
of DIC?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia,
hypergranular variant

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38
Q

What are the reagents used in performing
activated partial thromboplastin time?

A

Calcium, partial thromboplastin

39
Q

A 29-year-old woman with a history of a
blood disorder presents to the clinic for
follow-up after a hospitalization for a
vasco-occlusive pain crisis complicated by
influenza A. Her lab findings: hemoglobin
electrophoresis: 92% Hb S, 6% Hb F, 2% Hb
A2; PBS: anisopoikilocytosis and boatshaped erythrocytes. Which of the
following RBC defect/s is/are involved in
this patient?

A

Functional abnormality of hemoglobin and
membrane damage

40
Q

Which of the following best describes
where D-dimer is produced from?

A

Cross linked and stabilized fibrin clot

41
Q

A woman has developed a massive blood
clot in her left leg resulting in occlusion of
normal blood flow. What property of the
vascular intima is most likely deficient or
nearly absent in this clinical presentation?

A

Anticoagulant property

42
Q

On a well stained blood film, what is the
color of cytoplasm of the monocytes?

A

Blue gray

43
Q

What protein neutralizes free plasmin?

A

Alpha-2 antiplasmin

44
Q

Which is due to abnormally increased
platelet reactivity and increased sensitivity
to platelet agonists?

A

Sticky platelet syndrome

45
Q

Which of the following granulocyte
precursor cells has a round oval,
quadrangular nucleus with fine-reddish
purple chromatin and the cytoplasm
generally lacks granules?

A

Myeloblast

46
Q

Which is the major site of T cell maturation
and differentiation?

A

Thymus

47
Q

Which of the following is the main
negative regulator of intestinal iron
absorption?

A

Hepcidin

48
Q

Which coagulation factor is dependent on
Vitamin K to produce a functional
structure?

A

Factor X

49
Q

Which is an in-vitro phenomenon wherein
thrombocytes surround neutrophils?

A

Platelet satellitosis

50
Q

During bone marrow recovery, why are
monocytes predominantly see in the
peripheral blood and not neutrophils?

A

Monocytes are immediately released upon
maturation

51
Q

. Which can kill certain tumor cells,
microbial agents and virus-infected cells
without prior sensitization/exposure?

A

Natural killer cells

52
Q

What is the recommended plasma sample
used for coagulation tests?

A

<10,000/uL PPP

53
Q

A shift to the left in the PBS means an
increase in which type of cells?

A

Immature granulocytes

54
Q

Which structure in the vascular intima
secretes the von Willebrand factor?

A

Endothelial cells

55
Q

The erythroid precursors in the bone
marrow surround which of the following
cells?

A

Macrophage

56
Q

How does the increased oxygen delivery to
the kidneys affect the erythropoietic
process?

A

Reduced stimulus for erythropoietin production

57
Q

What abnormal hemoglobin is formed
when the iron is oxidized to its ferric state?

A

Methemoglobin

58
Q

Which scenario corresponds to the effect
of fibrinolytic inhibitors?

A

Decreased fibrinolysis- leading to
thrombosis

59
Q

Which of the following WBCs produce
heparan sulfate, the body’s natural
anticoagulant?

A

Basophils

60
Q

Which is the first progenitor cell that
undergoes endomitosis in
megakaryocytopoiesis?

A

LD-CFU-Meg

61
Q

This RBC inclusion describes as a ‘bar of
gold’ is commonly observed in which
condition?

A

Hb CC

62
Q

Which cytokine is involved in the
differentiation and maturation of
Basophil?

A

IL-3 and TSLP

63
Q

What is the objective lens used in WBC
differential counting?

A

OIO

64
Q

Patients with leukemia who undergo
chemotherapy treatments would usually
have _____ levels of white blood cells and
____ levels of platelets in their laboratory
results using hematology analyzers

A

Falsely decreased white blood cells;
Falsely increased platelets

65
Q

The elevation of which of the following
molecules cannot cause an increased ESR?

A

Albumin

66
Q

How many smaller squares are there in
one large corner square?

A

16 smaller squares

67
Q

What is released by platelets and that is
primarily responsible for clot retraction?

A

Thrombosthenin

68
Q

Which is the other name of reticulocyte?

A

Diffuse basophilic erythrocyte

69
Q

A medical technologist was having a hard
time doing the white blood cell differential
count on the blood smears since the red
blood cells are too pale and the white
blood cells are barely visible. How will he
fix the problem with the blood smears?

A

The staining time should be prolonged

70
Q

What anticoagulant is present in blue band
capillary tubes?

A

No anticoagulant

71
Q

What substance on the intact vascular
endothelium acts as an eicosanoid platelet
inhibitor?

A

Prostacylin

72
Q

. How many WBCs are counted for routine
differential counting?

A

100

73
Q

Which best represents the mechanism
involved in Glanzmann thrombasthenia?

A

Inability of fibrinogen to bind with platelets

74
Q

What is the best RBC diluting fluid?

A

Dacie’s fluid

75
Q

Which is the purpose of examining the
bone marrow using a core cylinder?

A

Estimate bone marrow cellularity

76
Q

What is the dilution factor if the blood is
aspirated up to 0.2 mark of the WBC
Thoma pipette?

A

50

77
Q

Which procoagulant has the highest
concentration in the plasma

A

Fibrinogen

78
Q

What is the relationship between the
fibrinogen concentration in the plasma and
the time it takes to form a clot?

A

Inversely proportional

79
Q

Which is a resident macrophage in the
lymph nodes?

A

Dendritic cell

80
Q

What is the concentration of sodium
citrate used in coagulation tests?

A

0.105-0.109 M

81
Q

A man in his late 50s presents signs and
symptoms of myeloproliferative neoplasm.
To clinically diagnose the patient, the
hematologist-oncologist orders cytogenetic
analysis. Upon testing, the patient’s results
show a mutation in the Jak2 gene. What
disorder will be ruled out by the clinician in
diagnosing the patient?

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

82
Q

Which is true about the role of ZPI?

A

Inhibit Xa with the help from Protein Z

83
Q

Which hemolytic anemia involves globin
abnormality?

A

Sickle cell anemia

84
Q

Which is associated with toxic granulations
in neutrophils?

A

Bacterial Infections

85
Q

Which of the following cytokines,
stimulates the granulocytic colonies and
differentiation of progenitors towards
neutrophil lineage?

A

G-CSF

86
Q

Which represents the actual reticulocyte
count per liter of whole blood?

A

ARC

87
Q

Which myeloproliferative disorder is
characterized by thrombocytosis,
abnormal platelet functions and a mutation in jak 1 and Jak 2 gene?

A

Essential thrombocythemia

88
Q

. Which causes a falsely prolonged PT and
PTT?

A

Short draw

89
Q

What is the average diameter of a thrombocyte?

A

2-4 um

90
Q

. What can be observed at the bottom layer
of the blood sample after centrifugation of
an anticoagulated blood?

A

Red cell layer

91
Q

What is the average diameter of a thrombocyte?

A

2-4 um

91
Q

. What can be observed at the bottom layer
of the blood sample after centrifugation of
an anticoagulated blood?

A

Red cell layer

92
Q

When platelets fail to cease the contents
of their granules and tubular systems,
which of the following will immediately be
affected?

A

Platelet activation

93
Q

Which refers to the variation in cell shape?

A

Poikilocytosis

QE REVIEWER (10 decks)

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