HEMA MRXUH Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which test is most useful for monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin?

A. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
B. Prothrombin Time (PT) with INR
C. Thrombin Time (TT)
D. Platelet count

A

B. Prothrombin Time (PT) with INR

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2
Q

What is the characteristic finding in a peripheral blood smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?

A. Hypersegmented neutrophils
C. Macrocytic red blood cells
B. Normocytic, normochromic red blood cells
D. Decreased number of all blood cell types

A

D. Decreased number of all blood cell types

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3
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of a prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT) in a patient on anticoagulant therapy?

A.Vitamin K deficiency
C. Factor V Leiden mutation
B. Hemophilia A
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

A

A.Vitamin K deficiency

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4
Q

What is a key feature of Hodgkin lymphoma when viewed under a microscope?

A. Reed-Sternberg cells
C. Monoclonal plasma cells
B. Atypical lymphoblasts
D. Smudge cells

A

A. Reed-Sternberg cells

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5
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is most appropriate for monitoring patients on heparin therapy?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Platelet count

A

B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

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6
Q

Which of the following is a classic clinical feature of a patient with aplastic anemia?

A. Elevated white blood cell count
C. Hypercellular bone marrow
B. Pancytopenia
D. Hyperuricemia

A

B. Pancytopenia

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7
Q

Which laboratory finding is typically elevated in patients with chronic kidney disease and anemia?

A. Serum iron
C. Erythropoietin
B. Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
D. Serum ferritin

A

D. Serum ferritin

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8
Q

Which of these following hematological tests serves as a liver function test?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
C. Complete Blood Count
B. ABO Rh Typing
D. Reticulocyte Count

A

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)

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9
Q

Which test is used to assess the function of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)-venn
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
C. Thrombin Time (TT)
D. Platelet aggregation test

A

B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

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10
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with an increased risk of bleeding due to decreased platelet function rather than decreased platelet number?

A. Thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Liver Cirrhosis
C. Von Willebrand disease
D. Iron-deficiency anemia

A

C. Von Willebrand disease

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11
Q

Which laboratory finding is characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? diner

A. Decreased prothrombin time (PT)
C. Increased fibrin degradation products (D-dimer)
B. Elevated platelet count
D. Increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

A

C. Increased fibrin degradation products (D-dimer)

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12
Q

Which of the following is the primary defect in hemophilia A?

A. Deficiency of factor IX
C. Deficiency of factor XI
B. Deficiency of factor VIII
D. Deficiency of factor V

A

B. Deficiency of factor VIII

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13
Q

Which type of anemia is characterized by the presence of basophilic stippling of red blood cells?

A. Dead poisoning
C. Iron Deficiency Anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
D. Folate deficiency

A

A. Dead poisoning

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14
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia)?

A. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
C. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Polycythemia vera
D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

A

A. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

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15
Q

In a patient with a high reticulocyte count, what is the most likely underlying issue?

A. Chronic kidney disease
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Chronic inflammation

A

B. Hemolytic anemia

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16
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with an increased risk of thrombosis?

A. Hemophilia
C. Polycythemia vera
B. Thalassemia
D. Aplastic anemia

A

C. Polycythemia vera

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17
Q

Hemoglobin forms that are incapable of oxygen transport include

A. Deoxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin
B. Oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin
C.Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin
D. Methemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin

A

C.Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin

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18
Q

An excessive accumulation of iron in body tissues is called?

A. Hemochromatosis
B. Erythroblastosis
C. Megaloblastosis
D. Acrocyanosis

A

A. Hemochromatosis

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19
Q

The coagulation factors referred to as “vitamin K-dependent” are

A. I, V, VIII, XIII
B. II, V, IX, XII
C. II, VII, IX, X
D. XI, XII, Fletcher, Fitzgerald

A

C. II, VII, IX, X

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20
Q

For patients with polycythemia, the ESR result would be?

A. Increased
B. Decreased

A

B. Decreased

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21
Q

For patients with anemia, the ESR result would be?

A. Increased
B. Decreased

A

A. Increased

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT synthesized in the liver?

A. Factor VIII
B. Plasminogen
C. Protein C
D. von Willebrand factor

A

D. von Willebrand factor

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23
Q

The red cells observed on a peripheral blood smear show extreme anisocytosis with equal number of macrocytes and microcytes. Which of the following values correlate with this finding?

A. MCV 108.OfL, RDW 14.0%
C. MCV 75.0fL, RDW 16%
B. MCV 90.0fL, RDW 25.0%
D. MCV 88.0fL, RDW 12%

A

B. MCV 90.0fL, RDW 25.0%

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24
Q

If the angle of the smear is TOO HIGH, the smear is

A. Thinner
B. Thicker

A

B. Thicker

25
Q

Which of the following is the primary function of red blood cells (RBCs)?

A. Oxygen transport
C. Blood clotting
B. Immune response
D. Nutrient transport

A

A. Oxygen transport

26
Q

ENUMERATE THE REAGENTS/STAINS USED FOR PERIPHERAL BLOOD STAINING.

A

10% Buffered Formalin
Methylene Blue
Eosin
Ethanol/Alcohol

27
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with an increased risk of bleeding due to decreased platelet function rather than decreased platelet number?

A Thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Von Willebrand disease
B. Liver Cirrhosis
D. Iron-deficiency anemia

A

C. Von Willebrand disease

28
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is most appropriate for monitoring patients on heparin therapy?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count

A

B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

29
Q

What is a key feature of Hodgkin lymphoma when viewed under a microscope?

A. Reed-Sternberg cells
C. Monoclonal plasma cells
B. Atypical lymphoblasts
D. Smudge cells

A

A. Reed-Sternberg cells

30
Q

The coagulation factors referred to as “vitamin K-dependent” are

A. X. I, V, VIII, XIII
B. II, V, IX, XII
C. II, VII, IX, X
D. XI, XII, Fletcher, Fitzgerald

A

C. II, VII, IX, X

31
Q

Hemoglobin forms that are incapable of oxygen transport include

A. Deoxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin
B. Oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin
C. Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin
D. Methemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin

A

C. Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin

32
Q

Which of the following is NOT synthesized in the liver?

A. Factor VIII
B. Plasminogen
C. Protein C
D. von Willebrand factor

A

D. von Willebrand factor

33
Q

Which type of anemia is characterized by the presence of basophilic stippling of red blood cells?

A Lead poisoning
C. Iron Deficiency Anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
D. Folate deficiency

A

A Lead poisoning

34
Q

The red cells observed on a peripheral blood smear show extreme anisocytosis with equal number of macrocytes and microcytes. Which of the following values correlate with this finding?

A. MCV 108.0fL, RDW 14.0%
B. MCV 90.0fL, RDW 25.0%
C. MCV 75.0fL, RDW 16%
D. MCV 88.0fL, RDW 12%

A

B. MCV 90.0fL, RDW 25.0%

35
Q

What is a congenital qualitative platelet disorder?

A. Senile purpura
B. Ehlers-Danos syndrome
C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
D. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

B. Ehlers-Danos syndrome

36
Q

Aspirin ingestion blocks the synthesis of:

A. Thromboxane A2
B. lonized calcium
C. Collagen
D. ADP

A

A. Thromboxane A2

37
Q

The clinical presentation of platelet related bleeding may include all of the ff except:

A. Bruising
B. Nosebleeds
C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

A

D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)

38
Q

What test may be used to confirm the presence of Lupus Anticoagulant?

A. Bestheda titer
B. PT
C. Antinuclear antibody
D. PTT using high-phospholipid reagent

A

D. PTT using high-phospholipid reagent

39
Q

What is the most important application of the quantitative D-dimer test?

A. Diagnose primary fibrinolysis
B. Diagnose liver and renal disease
C. Rule out deep venous thrombosis
D. Diagnose AMI

A

C. Rule out deep venous thrombosis

40
Q

Which of the following lysosomal storage diseases is characterized by macrophages with striated cytoplasm and storage of glucocerebroside?

A. Sanfilippo syndrome
B. Gaucher disease
C. Fabry disease
D. Niemann-Pick disease

A

B. Gaucher disease

41
Q

Megaloblastic episodes in SCD can be prevented by prophylactic administration of:

A. Iron
B. Folic acid
C. Steroids
D. Erythropoietin

A

B. Folic acid

42
Q

Patient’s with SCD usually do not exhibit symptoms until 6 months of age because:

A. The mother’s blood has a protective effect
B. Hemoglobin levels are higher in infants at birth
C. Higher levels of Hb F are present
D. The immune system is not fully developed

A

C. Higher levels of Hb F are present

43
Q

Which of the following tests provides a good indication of accelerated erythropoiesis?

A. Urine Urobilinogen
B. Hemosiderin level
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Glycated hemoglobin level

A

C. Reticulocyte count

44
Q

Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of Megaloblastic anemia?

A. Hyposegmentation of neutrophils
B. Decreased serum LDH level
C. Absolute increase in reticulocytes
D. Increased MCV

A

A. Hyposegmentation of neutrophils

45
Q

An increased MCV, along with a high RDW suggests:

A. Iron Deficiency Anemia
B. Vit. B12 or Folate Deficiency
C. Sickle Cell Anemia
D. Normal blood picture

A

B. Vit. B12 or Folate Deficiency

46
Q

What is the largest hematopoietic cell found in a normal bone aspirate?

A. Osteoblast
B. Myeloblast
C. Pronormoblast
D. Megakaryocyte

A

A. Osteoblast

47
Q

Which of the following blood film findings indicates EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia?

A. The platelets are pushed to the feathered edge
B.The platelets are adhering to WBCS
C. No platelets at all are seen on the film
D. The slide has a bluish discoloration

A

B.The platelets are adhering to WBCS

48
Q

Factor: 1
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 1
Name: Fibrinogen
Pathway: Common

49
Q

Factor: 2
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 2
Name: Prothrombin
Pathway: Common

50
Q

Factor: 3
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 3
Name: Tissue Thromboplastin
Pathway: Extrinsic

51
Q

Factor: 4
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 4
Name: Calcium
Pathway: Common

52
Q

Factor: V
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 5
Name: Labile
Pathway: Common

53
Q

Factor: 7
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 7
Name: Serum-Prothrombin Conversion Factor
Pathway: Extrinsic

54
Q

Factor: 8
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 8
Name: Anti-hemophilic Factor A
Pathway: Intrinsic

55
Q

Factor: 9
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 9
Name: Plasma Thromboplastin Component
Pathway: Intrinsic

56
Q

Factor: 10
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 10
Name: Stuart-Prower
Pathway: Common

57
Q

Factor: 11
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 11
Name: Anti-hemophilic Factor C
Pathway: Intrinsic

58
Q

Factor: 12
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 12
Name: Glass Factor
Pathway: Intrinsic

59
Q

Factor: 13
Name:
Pathway:

A

Factor: 13
Name: Laki-Lorand
Pathway: Common