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BACTE RETAKE Flashcards

1
Q

This gives the surface of gram-negative bacteria a negative charge.

Mycolic acid
Outer membrane
Periplasm
Lipopolysaccharide

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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2
Q

The following statement are true except:

Gram + bacteria ….peptidoglycan layer
The periplasmic space is found in gram – and gram + bacteria
The capsule of gram + bacteria is immediate to murein layer
The sex pilus is a conduit for passage of DNA

A

The periplasmic space is found in gram – and gram + bacteria

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3
Q

This method of sterilization is applied to substances that are heat-sensitive

Filtration
Radiation
Cold sterilization
Oxidation

A

Filtration

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4
Q

It is used as prophylaxis in newborns to prevent ocular n. gonorrhea infection

Erythromycin
Silver nitrate
Povidone Iodine
Vancomycin

A

Erythromycin

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5
Q

Ratio of sodium hypochlorite recommended by CDC for cleaning tabletops after blood spills

1:5
1:10
1:20
NOTA

A

1:10

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6
Q

The following statement are true regarding specimen collection except:

Specimen should be collected during acute phase of an illness
Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at –70C for up to 1 week
N. meningitidis is sensitive to temp changes
Processing should be done upon receipt at the lab

A

Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at –70C for up to 1 week

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7
Q

This anticoagulant is commonly used for viral cultures

EDTA
Citrate
SPS
Heparin

A

Heparin

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8
Q

This is added to transport media to absorb fatty acids

Buffer
Antibiotic
Charcoal
Indicator

A

Charcoal

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9
Q

The following statement are true except

Direct microscopy examination is done to all specimens
All processing should begin with a gross examination of the specimen
Sterile fluid should be given priority for processing
Mislabeled specimens should be rejected

A

Direct microscopy examination is done to all specimens

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10
Q

Inhibits the growth of gram + organism in your MacConkey

Phenol Red
Crystal violet
Ferric Ammonium Citrate
Lactose

A

Crystal violet

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11
Q

The presence of this enzyme allows the release of water and oxygen from hydrogen peroxide. What process is being described?

Oxidase
Catalase
Oxidation reaction
Coagulase

A

Catalase

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12
Q

What is the positive result of the Catalase Test?

Bubble formation
Purple color
Clot formation
Reddening

A

Bubble Formation

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13
Q

Case JJ 5 yo male polio vax seen due to appearance of bright red rash on his cheeks associated with low grade fever and nasal discharge What is the causative agent?

Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and double stranded DNA
Naked nucleocapsid with single-stranded positive polarity RNA
Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and one piece of single stranded positive polarity RNA
Nonenveloped icosahedral single stranded DNA Virus

A

Nonenveloped icosahedral single stranded DNA Virus

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14
Q

Mode of transmission of the causative agent

Transplacental
Respiratory secretion
AOTA
NOTA

A

AOTA

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15
Q

Major site of viral replication

Capillaries of the skin
Bone marrow
Placenta
Neurons

A

Bone marrow

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16
Q

Major virulence factor for S. aureus

Capsule
Protein
Coagulase
Lime layer

A

Coagulase

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17
Q

This test will differentiate your proteus mirabilis from proteus vulgaris

A

Indole

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18
Q

What is the principle of the Indole test

Detects the end products of glucose formation of by your peptidoglycan pathway
Detects end products of glucose from the mixed acid pathway
Determines the organism has the ability to reduce nitrate to nitrite
Test the ability of the organism to produce the enzyme tryptophanase

A

Detects end products of glucose from the mixed acid pathway

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19
Q

What is the positive reaction of the Indole Test

Red color
Growth in the medium with color change
Turbidity
Bright pink color

A

Red color

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20
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Case KK 38 yo male single sexually active came in for consult due to maculopapular rash on his arms and soles associated with progressive weight loss on and off undocumented fever and occasional malaise. Susceptibility testing can be performed for the causative agent.

A

False (causative agent is syphilis)

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21
Q

Case KK 38 yo male single sexually active came in for consult due to maculopapular rash on his arms and soles associated with progressive weight loss on and off undocumented fever and occasional malaise. Susceptibility testing can be performed for the causative agent.

When you start treatment what test can you request to follow the patient’s response to therapy

RPR
FTA-ABS
EIA
Microscopy

A

RPR

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22
Q

What is the specimen of choice if you are suspecting congenital transmission of the causative agent?

Plasma
Serum
Placenta
Umbilical cord

A

Umbilical Cord

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23
Q

The following statement are true except:

Chlamydia contains lipopolysaccharide in their cell wall
Endocervix the preferred site to collect screening specimens in female patient with chlamydia
One of the differences seen in chlamydia is the shape of the reticulate body
Humans are the only host of chlamydia pneumoniae

A

One of the differences seen in chlamydia is the shape of the reticulate body

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24
Q

35 yo female complains of nonhealing ulcer in her left index finger that now progress to a postular lesion. WHat is hte mycelial formation of the fungus

Daisy-head or floweret microconidia
Thick-walled yeasts with multiple buds resembling a mariner’s wheel

A

Daisy-head or floweret microconidia

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25
Q

The following statement are true except:

If infection with Malassezia furfur is suspected, Olive oil should be added to the medium
If processing is delayed dermatologic specimen should be refrigerated
Respiratory tract secretions are the most common specimen collected for fungal culture
CSF specimens should be processed immediately

A

If processing is delayed dermatologic specimen should be refrigerated

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26
Q

The macroconidia of this organism are rarely formed vary in ssize and shaped and referred to a string-bean appearance

Trichophyton robrum
Tonsurans
Mentagrophytes
Verrucosum

A

Verrucosum

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27
Q

Most sensitive test to diagnose streptococcosis

India ink
Culture
Gram stain
Latex agglutination

A

Latex agglutination

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28
Q

The following statement are true regarding viruses except

All DNA viruses are icosahedral except poxvirus
All RNA viruses reticate in the cytoplasm
Herpesviridae has the ability to establish latency
Poxvirus is the largest and the most complex of all viruses

A

All RNA viruses reticate in the cytoplasm

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29
Q

This test differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from other listeria species

CAMP Test
Wet mount
Carbohydrate fermentation

A

CAMP Test

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30
Q

What test is the most helpful in the definitive diagnosis of the causative agent

Culture
Gram stain
Demonstration of toxins
Demonstration of metachromatic granules

A

Demonstration of toxins

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31
Q

What is being detected by string test for vibrio

Capsule
Flagella
DNA
Villi

A

DNA

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32
Q

Which of hte following vibrios are responsible for pandemic

Vibrio cholerae
Vulnificus
Parahaemolyticus
Cholerae O1 biotype El Tor

A

Cholerae O1 biotype El Tor

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33
Q

Presumptive test of the identification of your group a beta hemolytic streptococcus

Hemolysis on blood agar
Bacitracin test
Novobiocin test
Optochin test

A

Bacitracin test

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34
Q

This is known as a microscopic precipitin test in which your cap surrounding the organism will swell

India ink
Quellung Test
Crystal violet
String test

A
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35
Q

The folloiwng statement are true except

MacConkey Agar is a nutritive and differential media
Blood agar is a nutritive and differential media
TCBS agar is a selective and differential media
Modified Thayer martin is an enrichment and selective media

A

MacConkey Agar is a nutritive and differential media

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36
Q

The following statement are true about gram staining except

It is considered a differential stain
All bacteria can be detected using this staining method
It gives clue about the quality of the specimen

A

All bacteria can be detected using this staining method

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37
Q

The following statement are true except

Gram + positive bacteria with have a thick peptidoglycan layer
Gram – bacteria have an outer lipid bilayer
Gram + bacteria will have an outer lipid layer
Gram – bacteria will have a thin peptidoglycan layer

A

Gram + bacteria will have an outer lipid layer

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38
Q

THis bacteria structure is most often target of antibiotics

Outer membrane
Cell wall
Capsule
Lipopolysaccharide

A

Cell Wall

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39
Q

This test will differentiate streptococcus pneumoniae from alpha hemolytic streptococci

PYR test
LAP test
Bile solubility
Bacitracin

A

Bile solubility

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40
Q

What population is at risk for necrotizing enteritis

Newborn
Toddlers
Unvaccinated children
Preterm infants

A

Preterm infants

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41
Q

Specimen of choice for pediatric patient suspected of Tb

Sputum
Induced Sputum
Bronchial alveolar lavage
Gastric lavage

A

Gastric lavage

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42
Q

The following statement are true regarding chlamydia except

The elementary body is metabolically inert
The reticulate body is the infective form
The elementary is the extracellular form

A

The reticulate body is the infective form

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43
Q

Which Sero variant of chlamydia can cause ocular trachoma

Ba
L1
L1A
K

A

Ba

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44
Q

Which of the following is transmitted by Chiggers

Rickettsiae
Orientia tsutsumagushi

A

Orientia tsutsumagushi

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45
Q

What attenuated strain of mycobacteria is present in the BCG vaccine

M bovis
M africanum
M leprae

A

M bovis

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46
Q

What type of motility is seen on dark field microscopy of vibrios

Tumbling
Corkscrew
Darting
Shooting star

A

Shooting Star

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47
Q

This is added to the medium Modified Thayer Martin agar to inhibit the growth of proteus

A

Trimethoprim

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48
Q

Selective media for isolation of your s. aureus

Sheep blood agar
Mannitol salt agar
Chocolate agar
Nutrient broth

A

Mannitol salt agar

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49
Q

Causative agent of your cat’s scratch disease

A

Bartonella

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50
Q

What is used to seen gastrci biopsy for detection of h. pylori

Wright Giemsa
Warthin-starry
Gram stain
H&E

A

Warthin-starry

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51
Q

Cultivation of Ricketssia

Footpads of mice
Footpads of armadillos
Embryonated egg

A

Embryonated Egg

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52
Q

This associated with dental or surgical procedure often leading to tooth abscess

A

Viridans

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53
Q

Recommended sterilization technique to kill your prions

Incineration
Autoclave
Dry heat
Radiation

A

Incineration

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54
Q

Biosafety cabinet offers the most protection

A

Class III

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55
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is considered what type of biosafety level?

A

Level III

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56
Q

Preservative used for stool specimen

A

Poly vinyl alcohol

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57
Q

Exhibits satellite phenomenon

A

Haemophilus

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58
Q

Double zone of

A

C. Perfringes

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59
Q

Causative agent of Yaws

T. pallidum subspecies pallidum
T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

A

T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

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60
Q

Mode of transmission of Flu (?) fever

Endogenous
Fomites
Inhalation

A

Inhalation

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61
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Direct microscopy examination is performed on all specimens.

A

False

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62
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Malachite green used for acid fast staining.

A

False

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63
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Slide coagulase test detects clumping factor

A

True

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64
Q

TRUE or FALSE: A positive Hippurate hydrolysis test will show yellow color.

A

FALSE

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65
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Enterococci is resistant to high salt concentration.

A

TRUE

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66
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Cutaneous diphtheriae is caused by non-toxigenic strains only.

A

FALSE

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67
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Blood Culture for typhoid fever is positive during hte 1st week of illness.

A

TRUE

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68
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Haemophilus is very sensitive to drying and extreme temperatures.

A

TRUE

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69
Q

Complications of mumps.

Parotitis
Meningitis
Swelling
Orchitis

A

Meningitis & Orchitis

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70
Q

Toxin-mediated diseases of s.areus.

Food poisoning
Ritter syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome
Folliculitis

A

Food poisoning
Ritter syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome

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71
Q

Specimen suitable for anaerobic culture.

Pleural fluid
Blood
CSF
Expectorated sputum

A

Pleural fluid
Blood
CSF

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72
Q

A positive gram stain with a negative culture may indicate.

Poor transport methods
Old culture media
Excess exposure to air during processing
Poor medtech skills

A

Poor transport methods
Old culture media
Excess exposure to air during processing

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73
Q

Specimens used for the diagnosis of mucormycosis.

Tissue
Sputum
Nasal discharge
Blood

A

Tissue
Sputum
Nasal discharge

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74
Q

Causes bloody diarrhea.

S. aureus
Enteroinvasise E. coli
Shigella

A

Enteroinvasise E. coli
Shigella

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75
Q

Produces odor in culture.

Proteus
Eikenella
Pseudomonas
C. difficile

A

Proteus
Eikenella
Pseudomonas
C. difficile

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76
Q

Normal microbiota in humans.

S. aureus
H. influenzae
S. agalactiae
diptheria

A

S. aureus
H. influenzae
S. agalactiae

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77
Q

Types of Fire Extinguisher.

A
B
C
D

A

A
B
C

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78
Q

Anticoagulant used in the microbio lab.

SPS
EDTA
Heparin
Citrate

A

SPS
Heparin

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79
Q

Rejection of unacceptable specimens.

Vaginal swab for anaerobic culture
Foley-catheter tips for culture
Nasopharyngeal for anaerobic culture
Specimen was received in fixative

A

Vaginal swab for anaerobic culture
Foley-catheter tips for culture
Nasopharyngeal for anaerobic culture
Specimen was received in fixative

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80
Q

Viruses with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies.

Rabies
CMV
Poxvirus
Herpes simplex virus

A

Rabies
Poxvirus

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81
Q

This can cause subacute endocarditis.

S. aureus
Eikenella
Kingella
S. epidermidis

A

S. aureus
Eikenella
Kingella

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82
Q

Characteristics of nocardia.

Gram +
Saprophyte
Aerobic
Partially acid fast

A

Gram +
Saprophyte
Aerobic
Partially acid fast

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83
Q

Can cause UTI.

P. aeruginosa
E. coli
P. mirabilis
S. saprophyticus

A

P. aeruginosa
E. coli
P. mirabilis
S. saprophyticus

84
Q

Vertical Transmission.

Syphilis
Hep b
L. monocytogenes
S. aureus

A

Syphilis
Hep b
L. monocytogenes

85
Q

Colors of the fire diamond.

Red
Yellow
Blue
Green

A

Red
Yellow
Blue

86
Q

Specimens that do not require decontamination for the recovery of mycobateria.

Sputum
Joint fluid
Urine
CSF

A

Joint Fluid
CSF

87
Q

Symptoms of rickettsia.

Fever
Lympadenopathy
Rash
Headache

A

Fever
Lympadenopathy
Rash

88
Q

Sexually transmitted.

N. gonorrhaea
K. granumolatis
C. trachomatis
H. ducreyi

A

N. gonorrhaea
K. granumolatis
C. trachomatis
H. ducreyi

89
Q

This are these agar media found towards Bordetella pertussis

Bordet-Gengou
Regan-Lowe

A

Regan-Lowe

90
Q

Mycobacteria that occur in humans that is capable of causing tuberculosis.

M. bovis
M. tuberculosis
M. africanum
M. kansasii

A

M. bovis
M. tuberculosis
M. africanum

91
Q

Symptoms of congenital syphilis.

Saber shin
Deafness
Maxilla
Blindness

A

Deafness
Blindness

92
Q

Swarming colonies.

P. mirabilis
C. tetani
P. vulgari
S. pneumoniae

A

P. mirabilis
C. tetani
P. vulgari

93
Q

Necessary for the growth of heamophilus.

NAD
V Factor
Hemin
X Factor

A

NAD
V Factor
Hemin
X Factor

94
Q

Causes of bacterial meningitis.

N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
K. pneumoniae

A

N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

95
Q

Symptoms of scarlet fever.

Rash
Lymphadenopathy
Strawberry tongue
Honey-crust lesions

A

Rash
Strawberry tongue

96
Q

Naturally inhabitant of the human vagina.

Candida
G. vaginalis
Neisseria
Lactobacillus

A

G. Vaginalis
Lactobacillus

97
Q

This gives the surface of gram – negative bacteria a negativecharge:

a. Mycolic acid (gives TB its acid – fastness property)
b. Outer membrane
c. Periplasm
d. Lipopolysaccharide

A

d. Lipopolysaccharide

98
Q

This method of sterilization is applied to substances that areheat – sensitive:

a. Filtration
b. Radiation
c. Cold sterilization
d. Oxidation

A

a. Filtration

99
Q

This serves as prophylaxis for newborn to prevent ocularNeisseria gonorrhoeae infections:

a. Erythromycin
b. Silver nitrate
c. Povidone – iodine
d. Kanamycin

A

a. Erythromycin

100
Q

The following statements are true, except:

a. Haemophilus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria are examplesof organisms that can undergo transformation.
b. Transduction is mediated by viruses capable of infectingbacteria.
c. All plasmids are capable of conjugative transfer.
d. Transposition is when genetic elements excise from onegenomic location to another

A

c. All plasmids are capable of conjugative transfer.

101
Q

Ratio of sodium hypochlorite recommended by CBC forcleaning table tops after blood spills:

a. 1:5
b. 1:10
c. 1:20
d. None of the above

102
Q

The following statements are true regarding specimencollection, except:

a. Specimen should be collected during acute phase of anillness.
b. Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at -70C for up to1 week.
c. Neisseria meningitidis is sensitive to temperature changes.
d. Processing should be done upon receipt in the laboratory

A

b. Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at -70C for up to1 week.

103
Q

This anticoagulant is commonly used for viral cultures:

a. EDTA
b. Citrate
c. SPS
d. Heparin

A

d. Heparin

104
Q

This is added to transport media to absorb fatty acids.

a. Buffer
b. Antibiotics
c. Charcoal
d. Indicator

A

c. Charcoal

105
Q

The following statements are true, except:

a. Direct microscopic examination is done to all specimens.
b. All processing should begin with a gross examination ofthe specimen.
c. Sterile fluid should be given priority for processing.
d. Mislabeled specimen should be rejected

A

a. Direct microscopic examination is done to all specimens.

106
Q

Inhibits the growth of gram – positive organisms inMacConkey.

a. Phenol red
b. Crystal violet
c. Ferric ammonium citrate
d. Lactose

A

b. Crystal violet

107
Q

The presence of this enzyme allows the release of water andoxygen from hydrogen peroxide.What test is being described?

a. Oxidase
b. Catalase
c. Oxidation reaction
d. Coagulase

A

b. Catalase

108
Q

what is the positive result of catalase test?

a. Bubble formation
b. Purple color
c. Clot formation
d. Red ring

A

a. Bubble formation

109
Q

5 years old male, fully - vaccinated, seen due to appearance ofbright red rash on his cheeksassociated with low grade fever and nasal discharge. What is thecausative agent?

a. Envelope virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and lineardouble – stranded DNA.
b. Naked nucleocapsid with single stranded positive polarityRNA.
c. Envelope virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and onepiece of single stranded positive polarity RNA.
d. Non-enveloped, icosahedral, single stranded DNA.

A

d. Non-enveloped, icosahedral, single stranded DNA.

110
Q

Mode of transmission of the causative agent:

a. Transplacental
b. Respiratory secretions
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

c. All of the above

111
Q

Major site of viral replication.

a. Capillaries of the skin
b. Bone marrow
c. Placenta
d. Neurons

A

b. Bone marrow

112
Q

What is the diagnosis?

a. Measles
b. Varicella
c. Shingles
d. Erythema infectiosum

A

d. Erythema infectiosum

113
Q

This is considered the safest method of sterilization:

a. Incineration
b. Autoclave
c. Boiling
d. Pasteurization

A

a. Incineration

114
Q

Major virulence factor for Staphylococcus aureus?

a. Capsule
b. Coagulase
c. M protein
d. Slime layer

A

b. Coagulase

116
Q

This is considered the simplest method of sterilization:

a. Incineration
b. Autoclave
c. Boiling
d. Pasteurization

A

b. Autoclave

117
Q

Universal precaution:

a. Treat all blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious except sweat
b. Reduce the risk of HBV transmission in clinical laboratories and blood banks
c. Treat all blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious
d. Treat all body fluids as potentially infectious

A

a. Treat all blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious except sweat

118
Q

Maintains the integrity of trophozoites and ova:

a. Boric acid
b. Buffered formalin
c. Stuart’s medium
d. Polyvinyl alcohol

A

d. Polyvinyl alcohol

119
Q

This absorbs the fatty acids in the transport medium:

a. Dyes
b. Antibiotics
c. Charcoal
d. Glycerol

A

c. Charcoal

120
Q

Concentration of SPS:

a. 0.023%
b. 0.024%
c. 0.025%
d. 0.026%

121
Q

Refrigerator temperature:

a. 3 deg. C
b. 4 deg. C
c. 5 deg. C
d. 6 deg. C

A

b. 4 deg. C

122
Q

Anticoagulant used for viral cultures:

a. No anticoagulant
b. EDTA
c. SPS
d. Heparin

A

d. Heparin

122
Q

Nutritive media for fungi:

a. Trypic soy agar
b. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar
c. Nutrient agar
d. Chocolate agar

A

b. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

123
Q

Culture media that supports a wide range of most organisms:

a. Differential media
b. Nonselective media
c. Enrichment media
d. Selective media

A

b. Nonselective media

124
Q

MacConkey agar is a differential and selective media:

a. True
b. False

A

a. True (it will differentiate the lactose and nonlactose fermenters)

125
Q

Dye present in MacConkey agar:

a. Phenol red
b. Crystal violet
c. Gentian blue
d. Neutral red

A

b. Crystal violet

126
Q

Indicator in MacConkey agar:

a. Phenol red
b. Crystal violet
c. Gentian blue
d. Neutral red

A

d. Neutral red

128
Q

These organisms can grow in only low levels of oxygen:

a. Strictly aerobic
b. Microaerophilic
c. Anaerobic
d. Facultative anaerobe

A

b. Microaerophilic

129
Q

These organisms require increased concentrations of carbon dioxide:

a. Microaerophiles
b. Anaerobe
c. Capnophiles
d. Facultative anaerobe

A

c. Capnophiles

130
Q

They exist as double stranded, closed, circular, autonomously replicating extrachromosomal genetic elements:

a. Jumping genes
b. Episomes
c. Plasmids
d. Nucleoid

A

c. Plasmids

131
Q

This type of genetic exchange is seen when an organism develops antibiotic resistance:

a. Conjugation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Plasmid transfer

A

b. Transformation

132
Q

Recipient cell uptakes free DNA and integrates into the recipient cell’s DNA:

a. Conjugation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Plasmid transfer

A

b. Transformation

133
Q

This structure is present in numerous amounts in gram-positive bacteria:

a. Techoic acids
b. Thick peptidoglycan layer
c. Thin peptidoglycan layer
d. Myolic acids

A

a. Techoic acids

134
Q

Microscopically, if an organism is acid fast positive:

a. Red organism with a dark green background
b. Red organism with a blue green background
c. Blue organism in a red background
d. Blue organism in a green background

A

b. Red organism with a blue green background

135
Q

This structure is present in numerous amounts in gram-positive bacteria:

a. Techoic acids
b. Thick peptidoglycan layer
c. Thin peptidoglycan layer
d. Myolic acids

A

a. Techoic acids

136
Q

Microscopically, if an organism is acid fast positive:

a. Red organism with a dark green background
b. Red organism with a blue green background
c. Blue organism in a red background
d. Blue organism in a green background

A

b. Red organism with a blue green background

137
Q

Determines the mechanism of replication of the viral genome:

a. Nucleic acid genome
b. Viral capsid
c. Viral genome structure
d. Nucleic acid core

A

c. Viral genome structure

138
Q

Has tissue tropism to mucosal or cutaneous tissue:

a. Parvovirus B19
b. HSV1
c. VZV
d. Human papillomavirus

A

d. Human papillomavirus

139
Q

Most specific marker for diagnosis of acute Hepatitis B infection:

a. HbsAg
b. HbcAg
c. Anti-HbcAg IgM
d. Anti-HbsAg IgM

A

c. Anti-HbcAg IgM

140
Q

If there is a delay in examination for dermatophytes specimen, they should be refrigerated:

a. True
b. False

141
Q

Birds on a fence:

a. Tricophyton spp.
b. Mucorales
c. Epidermophyton sp.
d. Fusarium spp.

A

a. Tricophyton spp.

142
Q

Presumptive identification of Group A Betahemolytic streptococci from other Betahemolytic streptococci:

a. PYR test
b. CAMP test
c. Growth on blood agar
d. Bacitracin susceptibility test

A

d. Bacitracin susceptibility test

143
Q

Test used to differentiate Group B streptococci from other streptococci:

a. PYR test
b. CAMP test
c. Growth on blood agar
d. Bacitracin susceptibility test

A

b. CAMP test

144
Q

What is the principle of the correct test above:

a. Certain organisms produce diffusible extracellular hemolytic test that acts synergistically with the beta-lysin of S. aureus to cause enhanced lysis of RBCs
b. Detection of beta-napthylamine producing a bright red precipitate
c. Disk impregnated with bacitracin allowing the antibiotic to diffuse into the plates, after inoculation, the plates are examined for zone of inhibition. Any ZOI greater than 10 mm is susceptible
d. Hemolysis is enhanced in anaerobic conditions, stabbing of the agar should be done

A

a. Certain organisms produce diffusible extracellular hemolytic test that acts synergistically with the beta-lysin of S. aureus to cause enhanced lysis of RBCs

145
Q

Which of the following is FALSE of streptococci pneumoniae?

a. Gram negative lancet-shaped bacilli
b. Gram positive lancet-shaped cocci
c. Positive quelling test
d. Alpha hemolytic

A

a. Gram negative lancet-shaped bacilli

146
Q

Used for the presumptive identification of catalase-negative gram-positive cocci:

a. LAP test
b. PYR test
c. Quelling test
d. Bile solubility test

A

a. LAP test

147
Q

Associated with dental or surgical procedures often leading to tooth abscess:

a. Viridans
b. Eikenella corrodens
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Kingella kingae

A

a. Viridans (S. mutans – dental care)

148
Q

CS, 35 years old, female, known smoker, alcoholic beverage drinker, and IV drug user has been diagnosed with acute endocarditis since 201540. What is the risk factor present in the history that predisposes the patient to develop the disease?

a. Alcoholic beverage drinker’
b. Smoker
c. IV drug user
d. Female

A

c. IV drug user

149
Q

The organism that is responsible for the disease has the ff. characteristics:

a. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, betahemolytic on sheep blood agar, ferments mannitol, coagulase positive, catalase positive
b. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, nonhemolytic on sheep blood agar, catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive (epidermidis)
c. Gram-positive cocci in chains, betahemolytic on sheep blood agar, catalase negative, bacitracin sensitive (pyogenes)
d. Gram-positive cocci in chains, betahemolytic on sheep blood agar, catalase negative, bacitracin sensitive (agalactiae)

A

a. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, betahemolytic on sheep blood agar, ferments mannitol, coagulase positive, catalase positive

150
Q

What is the most common heart valve involved?

a. Mitral valve
b. Tricuspid valve
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

b. Tricuspid valve

151
Q

This organism is non-motile, gram-negative rod that is seen in infections resulting from human bites:

a. Viridans
b. Eikenella corrodens
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Kingella kingae

A

b. Eikenella corrodens

152
Q

ML, 38 years old, male, sexually active, came in due to a painful ulcer found on his genitals, he also noted several lesions surrounding his genital area, and inguinal lymphadenopathy

What do you expect on gram staining the ulcer?

a. Pleomorphic coccibacilli
b. Small coccibacilli with occasional cells appearing as tangled fragments
c. Slender, coccibacillary described as school of fish
d. Small pleomorphic form or sometimes long filamentous forms

A

c. Slender, coccibacillary described as school of fish (ducreyi)

153
Q

ML, 38 years old, male, sexually active, came in due to a painful ulcer found on his genitals, he also noted several lesions surrounding his genital area, and inguinal lymphadenopathy

What is the most likely organism isolated?

a. Treponema pallidum
b. Heamophilus ducreyi
c. Neisseria gonorrohea
d. None of the above

A

b. Heamophilus ducreyi

154
Q

ML, 38 years old, male, sexually active, came in due to a painful ulcer found on his genitals, he also noted several lesions surrounding his genital area, and inguinal lymphadenopathy

This organism is a normal inhabitant of the human respiratory tract:

a. True
b. False

155
Q

Organisms that CAN be detected using gram’s stain:

a. Ureaplasma
b. Chlamydia
c. Mycobacteria
d. Spirochetes

A

c. Mycobacteria

Reason:
a. Ureaplasma (intracellular, cell wall deficient)
b. Chlamydia (intracellular)
d. Spirochetes (needs dark-field microscopy to be seen)

156
Q

Selective medium for isolation of S. aureus

a. Sheep blood agar
b. Mannitol salt agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Nutrient broth

A

b. Mannitol salt agar

157
Q

This organism is the causative agent for the major cause of preventable blindness worldwide:

a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Neisseira gonorrheae
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Chlamydia psittaci

A

a. Chlamydia trachomatis

158
Q

Gram-negative rods exhibiting bipolar staining that resembles a closed safety pin:

a. Yersinia pestis
b. Enterobacter aerogenes
c. Escherichia coli
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

a. Yersinia pestis

159
Q

Described to cause community-acquired atypical pneumonia that can occur singly or cause outbreaks in families and military recruit camps:

a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Ureaplasma urylyticum

A

a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

160
Q

What is used to stain gastric biopsies for detection of helicobacter pylori?

a. Wrights giemsa stain
b. Warthin-starry stain
c. Gram stain
d. H and E stain

A

b. Warthin-starry stain

161
Q

Causative agent for Cat Scratch disease:

a. Bartonella henselae
b. Bartonella quintana
c. Bartonella alsatica
d. Bartonella bacilliformis

A

a. Bartonella henselae

162
Q

This step in viral replication is also termed as adsorption:

a. Attachment
b. Penetration
c. Viral entry
d. Uncoating

A

a. Attachment

163
Q

What compound is present of there is a red color on the Voges Proskauer test?

a. Acetoin
b. Glucose
c. Amino acids
d. Lactose

A

a. Acetoin

164
Q

Identify the organism

MAC: non-lactose fermenter, swarming colonies with characteristic smell
IMViC: -, +, -, -
ONPG: +
Urea: +

a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Proteus mirabilis
c. Escherichia coli
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

b. Proteus mirabilis (negative indole)

165
Q

This virulence factor of Pseudomonas is a polysaccharide polymer that inhibits phagocytosis:

a. Capsule
b. Pili
c. Alginate
d. Catalases

A

c. Alginate

166
Q

This virulence factor of Pseudomonas protects the organism from reactive oxygen species:

a. Capsule
b. Pili
c. Alginate
d. Catalases

A

d. Catalases

167
Q

This test differentiates Vibrios from Aeromonas:

a. String test
b. Quellung test
c. CAMP test
d. Growth on CIN agar

A

a. String test (Vibrio +)

168
Q

Most common typeable strain of Haemophilus:

a. Type 1
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type 2

169
Q

Which of the following organisms exhibitsatellite phenomenon?

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Haemophilus ducreyi
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

b. Haemophilus influenzae

170
Q

Small coccobacilli that resemble fine grains of sand:

a. Brucella
b. Moraxella
c. Bordatella
d. Francisella

A

a. Brucella

171
Q

Young colonies are small and shiny and resemble drops of mercury:

a. Brucella
b. Moraxella
c. Bordatella
d. Francisella

A

c. Bordatella

172
Q

Diagnosis of botulism

a. Elek test
b. Culture
c. Demonstration of toxin
d. Gram staining

A

c. Demonstration of toxin

173
Q

What toxin is produced by Clostridium tetani?

a. Enterotoxin
b. Tetanospasmin
c. Exotoxin A
d. Clostridium toxin

A

b. Tetanospasmin

174
Q

Causative agent of a gastrointestinal disease that causes bowel necrosis and inflammation in low-birth-weight infants:

a. Clostridium tetani
b. Clostridium perfringes
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium difficile

A

b. Clostridium perfringes (NEC; necrotizing entercolitis)

175
Q

Causative agent of donovanosis:

a. Klebsiella granulomatosis
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Yersinia pestis

A

a. Klebsiella granulomatosis

176
Q

This organism has a predilection to the gallbladder:

a. Salmonella typhi
b. Salmonella choleraesuis
c. Salmonella enteritidis
d. Salmonella typhimurium

A

a. Salmonella typhi

177
Q

This organism multiplies in the Peyer’s patches:

a. Salmonella typhi
b. Salmonella choleraesuis
c. Salmonella enteritidis
d. Salmonella typhimurium

A

a. Salmonella typhi

178
Q

What organism is associated with complicated UTI?

a. Proteus mirabilis
b. Proteus vulgaris
c. Escherichia coli (most common UTI)
d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (sexually active females)

A

a. Proteus mirabilis

179
Q

This pigment is the key to the identification of Serratia marcesens:

a. Prodiglosin
b. Staphyloxanthin (S. aureus)
c. Pyocyanin (Pseudomonas)
d. Violacein (Chromobacterium violaceum)

A

a. Prodiglosin

180
Q

AL, 25 years old, male, came in due to complaints of abdominal cramps and fever for the past 4 days. He said that he developed watery stools that eventually became bloody stools since yesterday

What is the most likely organism that will be isolated?

a. Shigella dysenteriae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Salmonella typhi

A

a. Shigella dysenteriae

181
Q

What is being released during cell lysis in your string test?

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Capsule
d. Lipopolysaccharide

182
Q

These are pieces of DNA that move from one genetic element to another and in unable to replicate independently:

a. Transposable elements / jumping genes
b. Plasmids
c. Episomes
d. Nucleosomes

A

a. Transposable elements / jumping genes

183
Q

This is the causative agent of Hansen disease:

a. Mycobacterium africanum
b. Mycobacterium leprae
c. Mycobacterium microti
d. Mycobacterium bovis

A

b. Mycobacterium leprae

184
Q

Specimen/s stored at refrigerator temperature if there is delay:

  1. Urine
  2. Viral specimens
  3. Sputum
  4. Serum for serology
A
  1. Urine
  2. Viral specimens
  3. Sputum
185
Q

Specimen label

  1. Patient’s name
  2. Date of collection
  3. Source
  4. Doctor
A
  1. Patient’s name
  2. Date of collection
  3. Source
186
Q

Specimen requisition

  1. Patient’s name
  2. Date of collection
  3. Source
  4. Doctor
A
  1. Patient’s name
  2. Date of collection
  3. Source
  4. Doctor
187
Q

Rejection of unacceptable specimens:

  1. Improperly stored specimen
  2. Transport time less than 2 hours
  3. Improperly labelled specimen
  4. Fixation with formalin
A
  1. Improperly stored specimen
  2. Improperly labelled specimen
188
Q

Common direct fungal stain/s:

  1. KOH
  2. Gram stain
  3. Calcofluor white
  4. Auramine rhodamine
A
  1. KOH
  2. Calcofluor white
189
Q

Present in gram-positive bacteria

  1. Outer membrane
  2. Inner membrane
  3. Periplasmic space
  4. Techoic acids
A
  1. Inner membrane
  2. Techoic acids
190
Q

DNA virus/es with linear DNA:

  1. Parovovirus
  2. Hepadnavirus
  3. HPV
  4. Papillomavirus
A
  1. Parovovirus
  2. HPV
191
Q

Can establish latency:

  1. EBV
  2. HSV-1
  3. VZV
  4. HSV-6
A
  1. EBV
  2. HSV-1
  3. VZV
  4. HSV-6
192
Q

RNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm:

  1. Influenza virus
  2. Reovirus
  3. Retrovirus
  4. Rotavirus
A
  1. Influenza virus
  2. Retrovirus
193
Q

Staining methods for Pneumocystis jirovecii:
1. Lactophenol cotton blue
2. Giemsa
3. H and E
4. Calcofluor white

A
  1. Giemsa
  2. Calcofluor white
194
Q

Complication/s of streptococcal infection:

  1. Strep throat
  2. Glomerulonephritis
  3. Impetigo
  4. Rheumatic fever
A
  1. Glomerulonephritis
  2. Rheumatic fever
195
Q

Causes of bacterial meningitis:

  1. Neisseria meningitidis
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Hemophilus influenzae
  4. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A
  1. Neisseria meningitidis
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Hemophilus influenzae
196
Q

Factor/s that limit sterilization, disinfection, or decontamination:

  1. Exposure time
  2. Organic load
  3. Presence of biofilm
  4. Presence of cell wall
A
  1. Exposure time
  2. Organic load
  3. Presence of biofilm
197
Q

Approach to identification of Clostridium tetani:

  1. Rods with terminal spores
  2. Gram-negative, spore-forming bacilli
  3. Swarming colonies
  4. Gram-positive, nonspore-forming bacilli
A
  1. Rods with terminal spores
  2. Swarming colonies
198
Q

This/these finding/s is/are seen in tertiary syphilis:

  1. Neurosyphilis
  2. Rashes on the palms and soles of the feet
  3. Gummas
  4. Saber shin
A
  1. Neurosyphilis
  2. Gummas
199
Q

This/these agar media is/are found to work best for recovery of Bordatella pertussis:

  1. Stainer-scholte
  2. Bordet-gengou
  3. Modified jones-kendrick charcoal
  4. Regan-lowe
A
  1. Regan-lowe
200
Q

Risk factors associated with coagulasenegative staphylococci:

  1. Prosthetic device implants
  2. Catheterization
  3. Immunosuppressive therapy
  4. Needle stick injury
A
  1. Prosthetic device implants
  2. Catheterization
  3. Immunosuppressive therapy
201
Q

This virulence factors is not present in any other streptococci lancefield groups:

  1. Streptolysin O
  2. Streptolysin S
  3. Hyaluronidase
  4. M protein
202
Q

Organism/s that produce a positive CAMP test:

  1. Streptococcus pyogenes
  2. Listeria monocytogenes
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Streptococcus agalactiae
A
  1. Listeria monocytogenes
  2. Streptococcus agalactiae
203
Q

Approach to identification of Listeria monocytogenes:

  1. Tumbling motility on nutrient broth
  2. Umbrella pattern on semisolid media at room temperature
  3. Cold enrichment
  4. CAMP negative
A
  1. Tumbling motility on nutrient broth
  2. Umbrella pattern on semisolid media at room temperature
  3. Cold enrichment
204
Q

Factor/s needed for growth of Haemophilus spp. on culture media:

  1. Hemin
  2. X factor
  3. NAD
  4. Blood
A
  1. Hemin
  2. X factor
  3. NAD
205
Q

Bacillus anthracis will present/s with:

  1. Cutaneous anthrax
  2. Gastrointestinal anthrax
  3. Injectional anthrax
  4. Subcutaneous anthrax
A
  1. Cutaneous anthrax
  2. Gastrointestinal anthrax
  3. Injectional anthrax
206
Q

Causative agent/s of Bacterial vaginosis:

  1. Gardnerella vaginalis
  2. Mobiluncus
  3. Lactobacillus
  4. Neisseria gonorrhea
A
  1. Gardnerella vaginalis
  2. Mobiluncus
  3. Lactobacillus
207
Q

This type of genetic exchange is mediated by viruses capable of infecting bacteria:

a. Conjugation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Plasmid transfer

A

c. Transduction

Internship 2025 (9 decks)

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