BB/CM MRXUH exam Flashcards
The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male donor is:
a. 12.0 g/dL (120g/L)
b. 12.5g/dL (125g/L)
c. 13.5g/dL(135g/L
d. 15.0g/dL (150g/L)
b
A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:
a. Diabetes
b . Residence in an endemic malaria region
c. History of jaundice of uncertain cause
d History of therapeutic rabies vaccine
c
Which of the fallowing prospective donors would be accepted for donation?
a. 32-year-old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery S
months, previously
b. 19-year-old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking
his anti-malarial medication 9 months previously
c. 22-year old college student who has a temperature of 99.2F(87 3C) and
states that ne feels well, but is nervous about donating
d. 45-year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is
still taking antibiotics
b
Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?
A. A tattoo months previously
B. Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
C. 2 units of blood ‘transfused.-/months previously
D. Confirmed positive test for HBSAG 10 years previous
D.
The mast common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by
testing for:
a. Anti-HCV
b. HBsAg
c. Anti-HAV IgM
d. Ant-Hbe
b
The western blat is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody
b. Anti HIV 1
c. HBsAg
d. ALT
b.
The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is.
a. Anti-HBc
b . Anti-Hiv 1 2
c. HBsAg
d. ALT
b .
A commonly used screening method for anti-HiV-1 detection is
a. Latex agglutination
b. Radioimmunoassay (RA)
c. Thin-layer-chromatograghy1TLC)
d. Enzyme labeled Immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
d.
Rejuvenation of a unit of red Blood cells a method used to:
a. Remove antibody attached to rbcs
b. Inactivate viruses and bacteria
c. Restore 2,3-OPC and ATP
d. filterbiggd clots/and/cthehSdhts
C
When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air
temperature must be recorded:
a. Once a day
b. Twice a day
c. Every 4 hours
d. Every hour
C
Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?
a. Cryopredipitated AHF, 4’C
b. fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20
c. Red Blogd Cells, Frozen, -40°C
d. Platelets 37 C
B
A unit of red blood cells is issued at 9:00 AM. At 9:00 AM the unit is returned ta the Blood Bank The container has not been entered, but the unit has nct been
refrigerated during this /tme span. The best course of action for the technologist isto:
a. Culture the unit for bacterial contamination
b. Discard the unt if not used within 24 hours
c. Store the unit at room temperature
d. Record thereturn and plate the trit back inta inventory
D
The optimum storage temperature for packed blood cells, is?
a. -80°c
b. 20°C
c.- 12°C
d -2C
D
The optimum storage temperature for platelets is:
a. -20°c
b -12°C
C 4°C
d 22°c
D
According ta the AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?
a. 24 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
A
Cryoprecipitate AHF, is maintained in the frozen state at -18”C or below, has a shelf life of
a. 42 days
b. 6 months
c. 12 months
d. 36 months
C
Once, thawed, fresh frozen Plasma must be transfused within:
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d 24 hours
D
Platelets prepared by apheresis should contain at least:
a. 1x 10%platelets
b. 3 x 10”“platelets
c 3 x 10”platelets
d. 5 x 10”platelets
c 3 x 10”platelets (basta 3x10^11)
According to the AABB Standards, platelets must be:
a. gently agitated from stored at room temperature
b. separated within 12 hours ofwhole blogd collection
c. suspended in sufficient plasma to maintain a pH of 5.0 or lower
d . prepared only from whole blood units that have been stored at a “C for 6
hours
A
Which of the following red cell typing are most commonly found in the African
American donor population?
a. Lu(a-b-)
b. Jk(a-b-)
c. fy(a-b-)
d. K-k-
C
Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by:
a. Jules Bordet
b. Karl landstiener
c. Louis Pasteur
d. PL Mollison
b
The enzyme responsible for confernng H activity on the red cel membrane is alpha-
a galactosyl transferase
b N-acetylgalactosaminyl trarsferase
c. L-fucosyl transferase
d, N-acetylglucosaminy transfenase
C
Anti-Fy is:
a. usually a cold-reactive agglutinin
b. more reactive when tested with erzyme-treated red blood cells
c capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions
d. often an auto agglutinin
C
Resistance to malaria id best associated with which of the following bloc
groups?
a. Rh
b. I/i
c. P
d. Duffy
D
Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct
hypofibrinogenemia due.to DIC?
a.whole blood
b. fresh frozen plasma
c. cryopredpitated AHF
d. platelets
C
A blood component used in the treatment of the mophilia A is
a . Factor VIll Concentrate
b. Fresh Frozen Plasma
c. Platelets
d. Whole Blood
a
Which of the fallowing blood components is most appropriate to
transfuse to an 8-year-old male Hemophiliac who is about to undergo minor surgery?
a. Cryopredipitated AHf
b. Red Blood Cells
C. Platelets
d. FactorVIll Concentrate
D
A unit of fresh frozen Plasma was invertedly thawed and then
immediately refrigerated at 4 C on Monday morning. On Tuesday evening this unit may still be transfused as a replacement for
a . all coagulation factors
b. Factor V
C Factorvill
d. Factor IX
D
Which of the following would be the best source of Platelets for transfusion
in the case of alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia?
a. father
b. mother
c. pooled platelet-rich plasma
d. polycythemic donor
B
Which of the follwing antigens s most likely to be involved in hemoly
disease of the newborn?
a. LeA
b. P1
c. M
d. Kell
d
To prevent graft-vs-host disease, Red Blood Cels prepared for infants who
have received intrauterine transfusions should be:
a.Saline-washed
b irradiated
c. frozen and deglycerol ued
d. group-and Rh-compatible with the mother
B
To prevent febrile transfusion reactions, which Red Blood Cell product
should be transfused?
a . Red Blood Cells, Irradiated
b. CMV-negative Red Blood Cells
c . Red Biood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced
d. IgA-deficient donor blood
C
During the issue of an autologous unit of Whole Blood, the supernatant
plasma is observed to be dark red in color. What would be the best course of
action?
a. the unit may be ssued only for autologous use
b. remove the plasma and issue the unit as Red Blood Cells
c. Issue the unit only as washed Red Blood Cells
d. quarantine the unt for further testirg
D
Coughing, cyanasis and difficult breathing are symptoms of which of the
following transfusion reactions?
a. febrile allergic
b. Allergic
c. circulatory overload
d. hemolytic
C
Which of the fallowing is a non-immunologic adverse effect of a transfusion?
a. hemolytic reaction
b. febrile nonhemolytic reaction
c. congestive heart failure
d. urticaria
C
A patient with severe anemia became cyanotic and developed tachycardia,
hypertension, and difficulty breathing after receiving 3 units of blood. No fever or
other symptoms were evident. This is most likely what type of reaction?
a. febrile reaction
b. transfusion-associated circulatory overload
c anaphylactic reaction
d. hemolytic reaction
b
A 65-year-old woman experienced shaking. chills, and a fever of 102°F
(38.9”C) approximately 40 minutes following transfusion of a second unit of Red
Blood Cells. The most likely explanation for the patients symptoms is
a. transfusion of bacterial contaminated blood
b . congestive heart failure
c anaphylactic transfusion
d. febrile transfusion reaction
D
The system compose of antigens found primarily in saliva nad plasma is
a. Lutheran
b. Lewis
C.P
d. Rh
B
What reagent is made from the seeds of the plant dolichos biflorus
a . Anti-Al
b. Anti- A,B
c, Anti-B
d. Anti-H
a
Who proposed a numerical Rh nomenclature?
a.Fisher and race
b. Landsteiner
c. Rosenfield
d. Wiener
D
The interval between blood donation is
a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c 10 weeks
d. 3 months
D
The minimum acceptable hemoglobin for male donors is:
a 125g/d
b.13.0 g/d
c. 13.5 g/dl
d. 40g/d
B
The lowest acceptable hematocrit for female donors:
a. 36%
b. 38%
c. 41%
d. 42%
B
Prospective donors who have malaria should be
a. Permanently rejected
b. Deferred for three years after cessation of treatment
c. Deferred for two years after cessation of treatment
d. Deferred for six months
A
Symptom-free donors who have been Immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola) or mumps vaccines are acceptable after period of
a. 24 hours
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 24 days
B
Which blood group system was discovered first?
a. ABO
b. P
C. MNS
d. Rh
A
A father donating platelets for his son is connected to a continuous flow machine,
which uses the princiole af centrifugation to separate platelets from whole blood,
As the platelet are harvested, all other remaining elements ars returned to the
donor This method df platelet Colleton is known ast
a. pheresis
b. autologous
C. homologous
A
Structural and functional unit of thek idney.
Dendritic cells
Nephron
Erythropoietin
Podocytes
Nephron
Urine consist of:
80% H20& 20% solutes
50% H20& 50% solutes
60%H20 &40% solutes
95% H20 & 5% solutes
95% H20 & 5% solutes
RENAL BLOOD FLOW (IN ORDER).
RENAL ARTERY (BLOOD IN)> AFFERENTA RTERIOLE > GLOMERULUS > Efferent ARTERIOLE > PERITUBULARCAPILLARIES > VASA RECTA > RENAL Vein (BLOOD OUT).
AFFERENT ARTERIOLE (BLOOD IN) >RENAL VEIN > GLOMERULUS > EFFERENTARTERIOLE > PERITUBULARCAPILLARIES > VASA RECTA > RENALARTERY (BLOOD OUT).
RENAL ARTERY (BLOOD IN)>GLOMERULUS > AFFERENT ARTERIOLE>EFFERENT ARTERIOLE > VASA RECTA >PERITUBULAR CAPILLARIES > RENAL VEIN(BLOOD OUT).
RENAL VEIN (BLOOD IN) > AFFERENTARTERIOLE > EFFERENT ARTERIOLE >GLOMERULUS > VASA RECTA>PERITUBULAR CAPILLARIES > RENALARTERY (BLOOD OUT).
RENAL ARTERY (BLOOD IN)> AFFERENTA RTERIOLE > GLOMERULUS > Efferent ARTERIOLE > PERITUBULARCAPILLARIES > VASA RECTA > RENAL Vein (BLOOD OUT).
Ideal urine specimen for routine urinalysisa nd urine pregnancy test.
Mid-stream clean catch
First morning
Suprapubic aspiration
Catheterized
First morning
The glomerular filtrate has a specific gravity of:
1.025
1.005
1.030
1.010
1.010
The “GOLD STANDARD” measurement for estimating GFR.
Creatinine
Urea
Inulin
Inulin
Complete cessation of urine flow.
Oliguria
Nocturia
Polyuria
Anuria
Anuria
Chemical compound used to lyse RBC ande nhance the nucleus details of WBC.
Acetic Acid
Boric acid
Formalin
Phenol
Acetic Acid
The principle of pH in reagent strip.
Diazo reaction
Double indicator
Protein error of indicator
Ehrlich reaction
Double indicator
A factory worker from a chem group company working 12 hours shift to process antifreeze and coolants for vehicle was urgently admitted in the ER dueto abdominal pain, dizziness, headache and even vomiting so the resident physiclan on duty ordered Stat urinalyss.
U/A RESULT
MACROSCOPIC MICROSCOPIC
COLOR: YELLOW WBC: 0-2
TRANSPARENCY: HAZY RBC: 3-5
GLUCOSE: NEGATIVE EC: Mod
PROTEIN: NEGATIVE RTE: 10-15
pH: 5.0 CaOx: Many
SG: 1.030 Bacte: Few
Tubular necrosis
Ethylene glycol poisoning
Glomerulonephritis
Formaldehyde toxicity
Ethylene glycol poisoning
Hormone that regulates water reabsorption in DCT and CD
EPO
ADH
Aldosterone
Renin
ADH
Nitrate in urine is reduced to nitrite by:
Yeast cells
Gram negative Bacilli
Neutrophils
Gram positive cocci
Gram negative Bacilli
Oval fat bodies and fatty cast are seen in
Glomerulonephritis
Nephrotic syndrome
Geed pasture sydrome
Cystitis
Nephrotic syndrome
The only parameter in the reagent strips negative.should never be reported
Bilirubin
Leukocyte Esterase
Urobilinogen
Nitrite
Urobilinogen
Also known as “RENAL FAILURE CAST”
Waxy cast
Hyaline cast
Granular cast
Broad cast
Broad cast
Ependymal cells from choroid plexus produces CSF for about:
10ml/hr,
30ml/hr
20ml/hr
15ml/hr
20ml/hr
An lumbar tap, what tube should be use in hematology?
TUBE 1
TUBE 2
TUBE 3
TUBE 4
3
REAGENT STRIP: POSITVE
CLINITEST: NEGATIVE
Other reducing sugars are present
Both glucose and other sugars are present
Glucose is present
None of the above
Glucose is present
Ropes/mucin clot test used to confirm?
Peritoneal fluld
Pleural fluid
Serous fluid
Synovial fluid
Synovial fluid
Confirmatory test to detect phenylketonuria
Silver nitroprusside
Guthrie test
Clinitest
Acetest
Guthrie test
Fern test to confirm what body fluid
Serous fluid
Amniotic fluid
Synovial fluid
Ascitic fluid
Amniotic fluid
WBC Clumps or PACKED FIELD WBC associated with
Cystitis
Pyelonephritis
Nephrotic sydrome
Pyelonephritis
Crystals seen in severe liver disease
Bilirubin
Tyrosine
Leucine
AOTA
AOTA
SG: 1.015, RTE CELLS: >25
Acute tubular necrosis
Cystitis
Glomerulonephritis
Pyelonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
25 CSF glucose normal value
60 mg/dl
93 mg/dl
120 mg/dl
180 mg/dl
60 mg/dl
Requires wet environment for feeding locomotion, osmoregulation and reproduction.
Protozoans
Cestodes
Nematodes
Trematodes
Protozoans
Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica.
Cyst
Trophozoite
Larva
Ova
Cyst
Brain eating bacteria, commonly found in water or swimming pool, chlorine resistant and the mode of transmission through intranasal (from water).
E. histolytica
Acanthamoeba
Naegleria fowleri
Gardia lamblia
Naegleria fowleri
Falling leaf motility
E. homonis
G. lambia
D. fragils
T. vaginalis
G. lambia
Pear-shape “Jerky motility commonly found in patient with STD
G. lambla
E. Hystolitica
T. vaginalis
E. Coli
T. vaginalis
LARGEST PROTOZOA that secretes hyaluronidane that causes colonic ulcers
Balantidium coli
D latum
Asparis lumbrlcoides
B. hominis
Balantidium coli
The acoumulation of eosinophils in the lungs due to laval migration of ascaris lumbricoides for maturation
fanconi sydrome
loefflers syndrome
Good pasture syndrome
nephrotic syndrome
loefflers syndrome
Japanese lantern- shaped with protruded colorless “bipolar plugs” ova.
Hookworm
Whip worm
Eel worm
Pipworm
Whip worm
The gold standard” method used to detect E.vermicularis eggs.
Peri-anal swab/scotch tape swab
Grahams scotch adhesive tape swab
Finger scrapping exam
Kato katz
Grahams scotch adhesive tape swab
Hook worm that has zero teeth but has pair of semi-lunar cutting plates.
A. braziliense
A. caninum
Ancylostoma duodenale
Necator americanus
Necator americanus
An intestinal nematode that causes autoinfection.
Enterobius vermicularis
Necator americanus
Ascaris lumbricoldes
Strongeyloides stercoralis
Strongeyloides stercoralis
Trophozoites often multiple in rbcs which may form maltase cross.
Wuchureria bancrofti
Brugia malayi
Babesia microti
Onchocerca volvulus
Babesia microti
Which of the foliowing is true about Dracunculus medinensis EXCEPT?
Greater than 1 meter long
Also known as Dragon worm
1st intermediate host: HUMAN
infective stage of human: L3
1st intermediate host: HUMAN
NO CYSTIC STAGE.
Entamoeba coli
Entamoeba histoytica
Entamoeba gingivalis
Entamoeba polecki
Entamoeba gingivalis
RBC stippling occasionally with “COMMA-LIKE RED DOTS called MAURERS DOTS
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium falciparum
____: Fasciola Hepatica
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
3
____: Schistosoma mansoni
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
10
____: Enterobius vermicularis
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
5
____: Entamoeba histolytica
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
8
____: Ascaris Lumbricoides
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
9
____: Taenia Solium
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
4
____: Schistosoma haematobium
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
2
____: Paragónimus westermani
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
1
____: Loa Loa
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
7
____: Ancylostoma brazilliense
Choices:
1. LUNG FLUKE
2. TERMINAL SPINE
3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE
4. PORK TAPEWORM
5. SEAT WORM
6. CAT HOOKWORNM
7. AFRICAN EYEWORM
8. BULL’S EYE CYST
9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME
10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE
6
