BB/CM MRXUH exam Flashcards by SHEEN CLARK S. CABA�EROS

The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male donor is:

a. 12.0 g/dL (120g/L)
b. 12.5g/dL (125g/L)
c. 13.5g/dL(135g/L
d. 15.0g/dL (150g/L)

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A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:

a. Diabetes
b . Residence in an endemic malaria region
c. History of jaundice of uncertain cause
d History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

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Which of the fallowing prospective donors would be accepted for donation?

a. 32-year-old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery S
months, previously
b. 19-year-old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking
his anti-malarial medication 9 months previously
c. 22-year old college student who has a temperature of 99.2F(87 3C) and
states that ne feels well, but is nervous about donating
d. 45-year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is
still taking antibiotics

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Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?

A. A tattoo months previously
B. Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
C. 2 units of blood ‘transfused.-/months previously
D. Confirmed positive test for HBSAG 10 years previous

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The mast common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by
testing for:

a. Anti-HCV
b. HBsAg
c. Anti-HAV IgM
d. Ant-Hbe

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The western blat is a confirmatory test for the presence of:

a. CMV antibody
b. Anti HIV 1
c. HBsAg
d. ALT

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The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is.

a. Anti-HBc
b . Anti-Hiv 1 2
c. HBsAg
d. ALT

b .

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A commonly used screening method for anti-HiV-1 detection is

a. Latex agglutination
b. Radioimmunoassay (RA)
c. Thin-layer-chromatograghy1TLC)
d. Enzyme labeled Immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

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Rejuvenation of a unit of red Blood cells a method used to:
a. Remove antibody attached to rbcs
b. Inactivate viruses and bacteria
c. Restore 2,3-OPC and ATP
d. filterbiggd clots/and/cthehSdhts

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When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air
temperature must be recorded:

a. Once a day
b. Twice a day
c. Every 4 hours
d. Every hour

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Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?

a. Cryopredipitated AHF, 4’C
b. fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20
c. Red Blogd Cells, Frozen, -40°C
d. Platelets 37 C

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A unit of red blood cells is issued at 9:00 AM. At 9:00 AM the unit is returned ta the Blood Bank The container has not been entered, but the unit has nct been
refrigerated during this /tme span. The best course of action for the technologist isto:

a. Culture the unit for bacterial contamination
b. Discard the unt if not used within 24 hours
c. Store the unit at room temperature
d. Record thereturn and plate the trit back inta inventory

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The optimum storage temperature for packed blood cells, is?
a. -80°c
b. 20°C
c.- 12°C
d -2C

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The optimum storage temperature for platelets is:

a. -20°c
b -12°C
C 4°C
d 22°c

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According ta the AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?

a. 24 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

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Cryoprecipitate AHF, is maintained in the frozen state at -18”C or below, has a shelf life of

a. 42 days
b. 6 months
c. 12 months
d. 36 months

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Once, thawed, fresh frozen Plasma must be transfused within:

a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d 24 hours

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Platelets prepared by apheresis should contain at least:
a. 1x 10%platelets
b. 3 x 10”“platelets
c 3 x 10”platelets
d. 5 x 10”platelets

c 3 x 10”platelets (basta 3x10^11)

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According to the AABB Standards, platelets must be:

a. gently agitated from stored at room temperature
b. separated within 12 hours ofwhole blogd collection
c. suspended in sufficient plasma to maintain a pH of 5.0 or lower
d . prepared only from whole blood units that have been stored at a “C for 6
hours

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Which of the following red cell typing are most commonly found in the African
American donor population?

a. Lu(a-b-)
b. Jk(a-b-)
c. fy(a-b-)
d. K-k-

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Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by:

a. Jules Bordet
b. Karl landstiener
c. Louis Pasteur
d. PL Mollison

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The enzyme responsible for confernng H activity on the red cel membrane is alpha-

a galactosyl transferase
b N-acetylgalactosaminyl trarsferase
c. L-fucosyl transferase
d, N-acetylglucosaminy transfenase

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Anti-Fy is:

a. usually a cold-reactive agglutinin
b. more reactive when tested with erzyme-treated red blood cells
c capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions
d. often an auto agglutinin

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Resistance to malaria id best associated with which of the following bloc
groups?

a. Rh
b. I/i
c. P
d. Duffy

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Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due.to DIC? a.whole blood b. fresh frozen plasma c. cryopredpitated AHF d. platelets

A blood component used in the treatment of the mophilia A is a . Factor VIll Concentrate b. Fresh Frozen Plasma c. Platelets d. Whole Blood

Which of the fallowing blood components is most appropriate to transfuse to an 8-year-old male Hemophiliac who is about to undergo minor surgery? a. Cryopredipitated AHf b. Red Blood Cells C. Platelets d. FactorVIll Concentrate

A unit of fresh frozen Plasma was invertedly thawed and then immediately refrigerated at 4 C on Monday morning. On Tuesday evening this unit may still be transfused as a replacement for a . all coagulation factors b. Factor V C Factorvill d. Factor IX

Which of the following would be the best source of Platelets for transfusion in the case of alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia? a. father b. mother c. pooled platelet-rich plasma d. polycythemic donor

Which of the follwing antigens s most likely to be involved in hemoly disease of the newborn? a. LeA b. P1 c. M d. Kell

To prevent graft-vs-host disease, Red Blood Cels prepared for infants who have received intrauterine transfusions should be: a.Saline-washed b irradiated c. frozen and deglycerol ued d. group-and Rh-compatible with the mother

To prevent febrile transfusion reactions, which Red Blood Cell product should be transfused? a . Red Blood Cells, Irradiated b. CMV-negative Red Blood Cells c . Red Biood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced d. IgA-deficient donor blood

During the issue of an autologous unit of Whole Blood, the supernatant plasma is observed to be dark red in color. What would be the best course of action? a. the unit may be ssued only for autologous use b. remove the plasma and issue the unit as Red Blood Cells c. Issue the unit only as washed Red Blood Cells d. quarantine the unt for further testirg

Coughing, cyanasis and difficult breathing are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? a. febrile allergic b. Allergic c. circulatory overload d. hemolytic

Which of the fallowing is a non-immunologic adverse effect of a transfusion? a. hemolytic reaction b. febrile nonhemolytic reaction c. congestive heart failure d. urticaria

A patient with severe anemia became cyanotic and developed tachycardia, hypertension, and difficulty breathing after receiving 3 units of blood. No fever or other symptoms were evident. This is most likely what type of reaction? a. febrile reaction b. transfusion-associated circulatory overload c anaphylactic reaction d. hemolytic reaction

A 65-year-old woman experienced shaking. chills, and a fever of 102°F (38.9"C) approximately 40 minutes following transfusion of a second unit of Red Blood Cells. The most likely explanation for the patients symptoms is a. transfusion of bacterial contaminated blood b . congestive heart failure c anaphylactic transfusion d. febrile transfusion reaction

The system compose of antigens found primarily in saliva nad plasma is a. Lutheran b. Lewis C.P d. Rh

What reagent is made from the seeds of the plant dolichos biflorus a . Anti-Al b. Anti- A,B c, Anti-B d. Anti-H

Who proposed a numerical Rh nomenclature? a.Fisher and race b. Landsteiner c. Rosenfield d. Wiener

The interval between blood donation is a. 6 weeks b. 8 weeks c 10 weeks d. 3 months

The minimum acceptable hemoglobin for male donors is: a 125g/d b.13.0 g/d c. 13.5 g/dl d. 40g/d

The lowest acceptable hematocrit for female donors: a. 36% b. 38% c. 41% d. 42%

Prospective donors who have malaria should be a. Permanently rejected b. Deferred for three years after cessation of treatment c. Deferred for two years after cessation of treatment d. Deferred for six months

Symptom-free donors who have been Immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola) or mumps vaccines are acceptable after period of a. 24 hours b. 2 days c. 2 weeks d. 24 days

Which blood group system was discovered first? a. ABO b. P C. MNS d. Rh

A father donating platelets for his son is connected to a continuous flow machine, which uses the princiole af centrifugation to separate platelets from whole blood, As the platelet are harvested, all other remaining elements ars returned to the donor This method df platelet Colleton is known ast a. pheresis b. autologous C. homologous

Structural and functional unit of thek idney. Dendritic cells Nephron Erythropoietin Podocytes

Nephron

Urine consist of: 80% H20& 20% solutes 50% H20& 50% solutes 60%H20 &40% solutes 95% H20 & 5% solutes

95% H20 & 5% solutes

RENAL BLOOD FLOW (IN ORDER). RENAL ARTERY (BLOOD IN)> AFFERENTA RTERIOLE > GLOMERULUS > Efferent ARTERIOLE > PERITUBULARCAPILLARIES > VASA RECTA > RENAL Vein (BLOOD OUT). AFFERENT ARTERIOLE (BLOOD IN) >RENAL VEIN > GLOMERULUS > EFFERENTARTERIOLE > PERITUBULARCAPILLARIES > VASA RECTA > RENALARTERY (BLOOD OUT). RENAL ARTERY (BLOOD IN)>GLOMERULUS > AFFERENT ARTERIOLE>EFFERENT ARTERIOLE > VASA RECTA >PERITUBULAR CAPILLARIES > RENAL VEIN(BLOOD OUT). RENAL VEIN (BLOOD IN) > AFFERENTARTERIOLE > EFFERENT ARTERIOLE >GLOMERULUS > VASA RECTA>PERITUBULAR CAPILLARIES > RENALARTERY (BLOOD OUT).

RENAL ARTERY (BLOOD IN)> AFFERENTA RTERIOLE > GLOMERULUS > Efferent ARTERIOLE > PERITUBULARCAPILLARIES > VASA RECTA > RENAL Vein (BLOOD OUT).

Ideal urine specimen for routine urinalysisa nd urine pregnancy test. Mid-stream clean catch First morning Suprapubic aspiration Catheterized

First morning

The glomerular filtrate has a specific gravity of: 1.025 1.005 1.030 1.010

1.010

The "GOLD STANDARD" measurement for estimating GFR. Creatinine Urea Inulin

Inulin

Complete cessation of urine flow. Oliguria Nocturia Polyuria Anuria

Anuria

Chemical compound used to lyse RBC ande nhance the nucleus details of WBC. Acetic Acid Boric acid Formalin Phenol

Acetic Acid

The principle of pH in reagent strip. Diazo reaction Double indicator Protein error of indicator Ehrlich reaction

Double indicator

A factory worker from a chem group company working 12 hours shift to process antifreeze and coolants for vehicle was urgently admitted in the ER dueto abdominal pain, dizziness, headache and even vomiting so the resident physiclan on duty ordered Stat urinalyss. U/A RESULT MACROSCOPIC MICROSCOPIC COLOR: YELLOW WBC: 0-2 TRANSPARENCY: HAZY RBC: 3-5 GLUCOSE: NEGATIVE EC: Mod PROTEIN: NEGATIVE RTE: 10-15 pH: 5.0 CaOx: Many SG: 1.030 Bacte: Few Tubular necrosis Ethylene glycol poisoning Glomerulonephritis Formaldehyde toxicity

Ethylene glycol poisoning

Hormone that regulates water reabsorption in DCT and CD EPO ADH Aldosterone Renin

ADH

Nitrate in urine is reduced to nitrite by: Yeast cells Gram negative Bacilli Neutrophils Gram positive cocci

Gram negative Bacilli

Oval fat bodies and fatty cast are seen in Glomerulonephritis Nephrotic syndrome Geed pasture sydrome Cystitis

Nephrotic syndrome

The only parameter in the reagent strips negative.should never be reported Bilirubin Leukocyte Esterase Urobilinogen Nitrite

Urobilinogen

Also known as "RENAL FAILURE CAST" Waxy cast Hyaline cast Granular cast Broad cast

Broad cast

Ependymal cells from choroid plexus produces CSF for about: 10ml/hr, 30ml/hr 20ml/hr 15ml/hr

20ml/hr

An lumbar tap, what tube should be use in hematology? TUBE 1 TUBE 2 TUBE 3 TUBE 4

REAGENT STRIP: POSITVE CLINITEST: NEGATIVE Other reducing sugars are present Both glucose and other sugars are present Glucose is present None of the above

Glucose is present

Ropes/mucin clot test used to confirm? Peritoneal fluld Pleural fluid Serous fluid Synovial fluid

Synovial fluid

Confirmatory test to detect phenylketonuria Silver nitroprusside Guthrie test Clinitest Acetest

Guthrie test

Fern test to confirm what body fluid Serous fluid Amniotic fluid Synovial fluid Ascitic fluid

Amniotic fluid

WBC Clumps or PACKED FIELD WBC associated with Cystitis Pyelonephritis Nephrotic sydrome

Pyelonephritis

Crystals seen in severe liver disease Bilirubin Tyrosine Leucine AOTA

AOTA

SG: 1.015, RTE CELLS: >25 Acute tubular necrosis Cystitis Glomerulonephritis Pyelonephritis

Acute tubular necrosis

25 CSF glucose normal value 60 mg/dl 93 mg/dl 120 mg/dl 180 mg/dl

60 mg/dl

Requires wet environment for feeding locomotion, osmoregulation and reproduction. Protozoans Cestodes Nematodes Trematodes

Protozoans

Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica. Cyst Trophozoite Larva Ova

Cyst

Brain eating bacteria, commonly found in water or swimming pool, chlorine resistant and the mode of transmission through intranasal (from water). E. histolytica Acanthamoeba Naegleria fowleri Gardia lamblia

Naegleria fowleri

Falling leaf motility E. homonis G. lambia D. fragils T. vaginalis

G. lambia

Pear-shape "Jerky motility commonly found in patient with STD G. lambla E. Hystolitica T. vaginalis E. Coli

T. vaginalis

LARGEST PROTOZOA that secretes hyaluronidane that causes colonic ulcers Balantidium coli D latum Asparis lumbrlcoides B. hominis

Balantidium coli

The acoumulation of eosinophils in the lungs due to laval migration of ascaris lumbricoides for maturation fanconi sydrome loefflers syndrome Good pasture syndrome nephrotic syndrome

loefflers syndrome

Japanese lantern- shaped with protruded colorless "bipolar plugs" ova. Hookworm Whip worm Eel worm Pipworm

Whip worm

The gold standard" method used to detect E.vermicularis eggs. Peri-anal swab/scotch tape swab Grahams scotch adhesive tape swab Finger scrapping exam Kato katz

Grahams scotch adhesive tape swab

Hook worm that has zero teeth but has pair of semi-lunar cutting plates. A. braziliense A. caninum Ancylostoma duodenale Necator americanus

Necator americanus

An intestinal nematode that causes autoinfection. Enterobius vermicularis Necator americanus Ascaris lumbricoldes Strongeyloides stercoralis

Strongeyloides stercoralis

Trophozoites often multiple in rbcs which may form maltase cross. Wuchureria bancrofti Brugia malayi Babesia microti Onchocerca volvulus

Babesia microti

Which of the foliowing is true about Dracunculus medinensis EXCEPT? Greater than 1 meter long Also known as Dragon worm 1st intermediate host: HUMAN infective stage of human: L3

1st intermediate host: HUMAN

NO CYSTIC STAGE. Entamoeba coli Entamoeba histoytica Entamoeba gingivalis Entamoeba polecki

Entamoeba gingivalis

RBC stippling occasionally with "COMMA-LIKE RED DOTS called MAURERS DOTS Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium ovale Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium malariae

Plasmodium falciparum

____: Fasciola Hepatica Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE

____: Schistosoma mansoni Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE

____: Enterobius vermicularis Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE

____: Entamoeba histolytica Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE

____: Ascaris Lumbricoides Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE

____: Taenia Solium Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE

____: Schistosoma haematobium Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE

____: Paragónimus westermani Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE

____: Loa Loa Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE

____: Ancylostoma brazilliense Choices: 1. LUNG FLUKE 2. TERMINAL SPINE 3. SHEEP LIVER FLUKE 4. PORK TAPEWORM 5. SEAT WORM 6. CAT HOOKWORNM 7. AFRICAN EYEWORM 8. BULL'S EYE CYST 9. LOEFFLERS SYNDROME 10. PROMINENT LATERAL SPINE